Exam 2 Review Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

when is the lac operon optimally expressed

A

in presence of lactose and absence of glucose

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2
Q

how many different secondary structures(hairpins) may be formed by the Trp leader mRNA

A

3

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3
Q

what regulatory sequence may be located tens of thousands of nucleotides away from the genes they regulate

A

enhancers
(any trans regulators)

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4
Q

what is the role of DNA methylation in eukaryotes

A

aid in silencing transcription

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5
Q

increased acetylation of histones is typically associated with what

A

gene activation and euchromatin formation

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6
Q

which enzyme acts as template for telomere repeat DNA sequence

A

telomerase

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7
Q

the process by which pneumococcus transfers DNA between RII and heat killed SIII is known as what

A

transformation

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8
Q

which direction of DNA will be the lagging strand

A

side where point of origin moves towards 3’ end

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9
Q

what is one difference between DNA replication in bacteria vs eukaryotes

A

eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication while bacteria only have one

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10
Q

if single stranded binding protein is not present during DNA replication what would you expect to see

A

SSB prevents reannealing, so strands would quickly reanneal and DNA replication could not proceed

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11
Q

why are leading strand primers removed rather than joined like okazaki fragments

A

they contain nucleotides with 2’OH groups, and are targeted for excision by DNA polymerase

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12
Q

a plant cell exhibits in transcription of tRNA genes, which polymerase is mutated

A

RNA plymerase III

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13
Q

what region of gene would need to be mutated to prevent access of RNA polymerase to the gene

A

promoter sequence

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14
Q

why does rho dependent transcriptional termination in bacteria require the rho protein

A

RNA polymerase stalls on termination stem-loop and rho is needed to displace it

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15
Q

what defines end of eukaryotic gene

A

presence of polyadenylation signal sequence leads to cleavage of pre-mRNA

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16
Q

what is the purpose of alternative splicing in eukaryotic cells

A

produce multiple polypeptide sequences from a single primary transcript

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17
Q

role of promoter region

A

recruit transcription factors that form initiation complex

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18
Q

what is the shine-dalgarno sequence in bacteria

A

purine-rich sequence found in 5’ UTR of mRNA

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19
Q

how does eukaryotic ribosomal small subunit recognize start codon on mRNA

A

binds met-tRNA to first AUG codon after kozak sequence

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20
Q

what would you expect to find bound to stop codon at A site

A

translation release factor

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21
Q

how would a single base insertion into second codon of sequence affect AA sequence

A

AA sequence would be changed

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22
Q

difference between NER and BER

A

NER detects ribosomes in double helix, BER removes damaged bases

23
Q

which class of point mutation almost always results in mutant phenotype

24
Q

2 mutagens classified as base analogs

A

5-bromouracil
2-aminopurine

25
2 forms of double stranded break repair
NHEJ SDSA
26
how is DNA replication in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes described
bidirectional and semiconservative
27
which protein is responsible for initiation of oriC in E. coli
DnaA
28
sequence of steps in PCR
denaturation, primer annealing, primer extension
29
where does sigma subunit of bacterial RNA pol bind
bacterial gene's promoter
30
what is a characteristic of short tandem repeats in genetic analysis
STRs segregate independently
31
A mutation of the O region of the lac operon would most likely result in what?
constitutive expression of lac operon, whether or not lactose was present, as the repressor cannot bind
32
in griffins experiment did mice die
live IIIS and live IIR with dead IIIS
33
which protein removes RNA primer from nascent DNA in E. coli
DNA polymerase I
34
properties of holoenzyme but not core enzyme
promoter recognition and binding
35
property of core enzyme but not holoenzyme
5' to 3' synthesis
36
necessary component of intrinsic but not rho dependent terminators in E. coli
string of U's in RNA
37
during transcription in E. coli when does sigma subunit fall off
after first 8-10 RNA nucleotides
38
role of general transcription factors
GFT binds to core promoter and allow transcriptional initiation
39
function of shine dalgerno sequence
specification of authentic start codon in bacterial RNA
40
what will never be found in A-site of ribosome
initiator tRNA(that will be in P-site)
41
in bacterial translation initiation, the mRNA...
is oriented on small subunit by shine dalgarno sequence through base pairing with an rRNA
42
last component incorporated in process of translation initiation
large ribosomal subunit
43
what complex(es) binds to open A site in process of translational elongation
charged tRNA elongation factor GTP
44
what class of mutation generally creates decreased amount of gene product
promoter mutations
45
strand slippage during DNA replication generally results in what type of mutation?
expansion of trinucleotide repeat sequence
46
spontaneous nucleotide changes
depurination and deamination
47
alkylating agents generally result in what type of mutations?
base substitutions
48
what repair mechanism is used most to repair thymine dimers
photoactivation repair
49
presence of what combination of molecules could prevent transcription of a repressible operon
repressor and corepressor
50
binding of which complex increases ability of RNA polymerase to transcribe the lac operon
cap-cAMP operon
51
what complex transports regulatory RNAs to RNAs targeted for degradation or inhibition of translation
RISC
52
what is most efficient at changing gene expression through RNA interference
DS RNA that includes gene sequence you want to silence
53
what is primarily responsible for genomic imprinting
methylation of cytosine in DNA
54