Exam 2- SI-1 Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Def. Environment low in nutrients

A

Oligotrophic

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2
Q

Def. An organism that grows best at very low nutrient concentrations

A

Oligotroph

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3
Q

Def. Layering of microbial communities

A

Stratification

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4
Q

Def. Proportion of each species in an ecosystem

A

Species abundance

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5
Q

Def. Bacteria that grow best at high pressure

A

Piezophile/Barophile

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6
Q

Def. Total number of different species present

A

Species richness

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7
Q

Def. The microbial oxygen-consuming capacity of a body of water

A

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

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8
Q

What is the correct order of steps in reverse PCR?
I. Cooling of reaction to anneal the primers
II. Addition of primer and reverse transcriptase
III. Addition of RNase H
IV. Isolation of a target RNA sequence
V. Heating of reaction to denature target sequence
VI. Reverse transcriptase produces a single stranded DNA copy of the target sequence
VII. Addition of primers specific to 5’ end and Taq polymerase
VIII. Extension and amplification of target sequence

A

IV, II, VI, III, VII, V, I, VIII

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9
Q

What is the significance of a band located further down than another band after Agrose Gel Electrophoresis?

A

The higher band is larger than the lower band

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10
Q

Which of the following nucleic acid hybridization procedures could be used after agarose gel electrophoresis to determine if a gene is being expressed?

A

Northern blot

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11
Q

Which of the following sequences would be most likely to be targeted by a restriction enzyme?

A

5’-GAATTC-3’

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a major step in gene cloning using restriction enzymes?
A. Cut foreign DNA with restriction enzyme
B. Add vector cut with a different restriction enzyme
C. Add DNA ligase to form recombinant molecules
D. Introduce recombinant vector into host

A

Add vector cut with a different restriction enzyme (should be same)

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13
Q

Identify a trait of T7 phage polymerase that makes it useful in gene cloning experiments
A. Only recognizes T7 promoters
B. Allows for the measurement of gene expression
C. Less active than native RNA polymerase
D. Increases cellular growth and yield of all proteins

A

Only recognizes T7 promoters

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14
Q

What might be a useful reporter gene?
A. LacZYA operon
B. Luciferase
C. GFP
D. Two of these

A

Luciferase, GFP

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15
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe genome editing using CRISPR/Cas9?
A. Cas proteins function as endonucleases that cleave nucleic acids resembling
CRISPR RNAs or the synthetic guide RNA
B. Can only be used to alter prokaryotes with native Cas proteins
C. Can be used as gene drive to spread mutations
D. New DNA can be inserted at the cleavage site

A

Can only be used to alter prokaryotes with native Cas proteins

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16
Q

Though genetic engineering applications are beneficial, genetically modified organisms
may spread genes to wild-type populations with possible adverse consequences.
Which of the following represents a challenge to containment of GM organisms?
A. Self-toxins can eliminate wild bacteria, increasing proliferation of GM bacteria
B. Auxotrophs synthesize amino acids with high efficiency, outcompeting wild bacteria
C. Release of DNA from lysed cells can be transferred to competent bacteria
D. Reliable implementation of containment is difficult
E. Two of these

A

Two of these:
Release of DNA from lysed cells can be transferred to competent bacteria
Reliable implementation of containment is difficult

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17
Q

Which of the following would NOT be found during Prebiotic chemistry?
A. Amino acids
B. Proteins
C. Nucleosides
D. Sugars
E. All of these would be found during prebiotic chemistry

18
Q

What event is associated with high rates of horizontal gene transfer?
A. Biological building blocks
B. RNA world
C. Protein synthesis
D. DNA
E. Lipid bilayers
F. Divergence of Bacteria and Archaea

A

Lipid bilayers

19
Q

The oxidation of Earth was primary facilitated by this photoautotroph
A. Chlorophytes
B. Cyanobacteria
C. Green sulfur bacteria
D. Purple bacteria
E. All of these

A

Cyanobacteria

20
Q

The endosymbiotic theory explains what cellular aspect?
A. Lipid bilayers
B. Aerobic respiration
C. Prokaryotic photosynthesis
D. Organelles in Eukaryotes

A

Organelles in eukaryotes

21
Q

Which of the following best describes a homologous gene?
A. Genes that descended from a single ancestral gene
B. Genes that share the same function
C. Multiple copies of a gene within a genome
D. None of these

A

Genes that descended from a single ancestral gene

22
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer?
A. Uptake of foreign DNA from the environment
B. Transfer of DNA from a viral intermediate
C. Direct injection of DNA from a donor cell
D. Genome replication and cell division

A

Genome replication and cell division (vertical)

23
Q

Which of the following statements describes a transposon?
A. Mobile genetic elements that are strong drivers of genome evolution
B. Contain genes unrelated to transposition
C. Encode for transposase and possess terminal inverted repeats
D. Two of these
E. All of these

24
Q

Identify a difference between selection and genetic drift
A. Selection involves the appearance of novel alleles in response to environmental
pressure; Genetic drift involves the loss of an allele due to replication errors
B. Selection involves a change in allele frequencies due to environmental pressure;
Genetic drift involves a change in allele frequencies due to random change
C. Selection involves a change in allele frequencies due to random chance; Genetic
drift involves a change in allele frequencies due to environmental pressure
D. Selection results in evolution; Genetic drift does not

A

Selection involves a change in allele frequencies due to environmental pressure; genetic drift involves a change in allele frequencies due to random change

25
In cases of Salmonella borne gastritis, patients are typically not provided with antibiotics. What is one explanation for this? A. Salmonella sp. are highly antibiotic resistant B. To reduce selective pressure C. Salmonella sp. release toxins after death D. Antibiotics can induce mutations that lead to additional virulence factors
To reduce selective pressure
26
If a gene can be found in some members of a species, but not all, which genome is the gene part of? A. Core genome B. Pan genome
Pan genome
27
Which of the following is NOT an example of a chromosomal island? A. A region that encodes for genes relating to uropathogenicity in E. Coli B. A region on a plasmid that encodes for Enterotoxin production in C. perfringens C. A region that encodes for pollutant-degradation pathways D. A region that encodes for nitrogen fixation in Rhizobium
A region on a plasmid that encodes for Enterotoxin production in C. perfringens
28
Which of the following metabolisms can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A. Photolithoheterotrophy B. Photolithautotrophy C. Chemolithoautotrophy D. Chemolithoheterotrophy E. All of these
Photolithoautotrophy
29
What is produced during phototrophy and respiration, but NOT fermentation? A. Oxygen B. ATP C. NADH D. Proton motive force
Proton motive force
30
Def. Obtain carbon from CO2
Autotroph
31
Def. Obtain carbon from organic compounds
Heterotroph
32
Def. Energy sources from photons
Phototroph
33
Def. Energy sources from electron transfer
Chemotroph
34
Def. Reducing power from inorganic compounds
Lithotroph
35
Def. Reducing power from organic compounds
Organotroph
36
Where does the energy and reducing power come from in the rTCA cycle? A. Oxidation; Acetyl-CoA B. Reduction; Acetyl-CoA C. ATP; NADPH D. ATP; NADH
ATP; NADH
37
Which of the following is NOT a process in photophosphorylation? A. ATP synthase phosphorylates ADP to ATP B. Transfer of a photon through a photosystem C. Cyclic and non-cyclic electron flow produces a proton motive force D. Light energy converts a weak electron donor into a strong donor
Transfer of a photon through a photosystem
38
Which of the following correctly describes nitrifying bacteria? A. Typically able to catalyze both reactions B. Involves the reduction of nitrate to nitrite, and the reduction of nitrite to ammonia C. Anaerobic process D. None of these
None of these
39
What are the universal oxygen requirements of methanogenic Archaea? A. Strict aerobes B. Microaerophilic C. Facultative anaerobes D. Aerotolerant anaerobes E. Strict anaerobes F. There are no universal requirements
Strict anaerobes
40
Which of the following is present during fermentation? A. External electron acceptors B. Electron transport chain C. Proton motive force D. Substrate level phosphorylation E. ATP synthase
Substrate level phosphorylation
41