Exam 2- SI-2 Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

Def. An example is methanogens and methanotrophs

A

Synotrophs

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2
Q

Def. Artificially fixed nitrogen compounds that alter natural cycles

A

Fertilizers

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3
Q

Def. Oxidation of ammonia to nitrite, or nitrite to nitrate

A

Nitrification

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4
Q

Def. Increases due to rising air and ocean temperatures

A

Oxygen minimum zones

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5
Q

Def. Reduction of nitrogen compounds into a gaseous product

A

Denitrification

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6
Q

Def. Anaerobic oxidation of ammonia to nitrogen gas

A

Anammox

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7
Q

Def. Earth’s surface traps long-wave heat waves, effectively making the entire planet a large greenhouse

A

Radiative forces

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8
Q

Def. Released by the combustion of fossil fuels

A

CO2

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9
Q

Def. Remove CO2 from the atmosphere

A

Photoautotrophs

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10
Q

Def. Two or more organisms cooperate to benefit nutritionally from the presence of the other

A

Syntrophy

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11
Q

Def. The most rapidly transferred carbon reservior in the atmosphere

A

CO2

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12
Q

Def. Oxidation of ammonia to nitrate

A

Comammox

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13
Q

Def. When dissolved, this acidifies the ocean

A

CO2

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14
Q

Which of the following species is part of the “high-GC” phylum?
A. Mycoplasma mycoides
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
E. Two of these

A

Actinomyces israelii

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15
Q

Of the four major bacterial phyla, which is the largest and most metabolically diverse?
A. Proteobacteria
B. Actinobacteria
C. Firmicutes
D. Bacteroidetes

A

Proteobacteria

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16
Q

Which of the following pathogens is NOT found in gammaproteobacteria?
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Salmonella enterica
C. Escherichia coli
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
F. All of these are gammaproteobacteria

A

Bacillus anthracis

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17
Q

You are examining a sample from a patient suffering from a post-operative wound
infection. Gram staining reveals many purple bacilli with a characteristic “drumstick”
appearance. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoea
B. Rickettsia ricketsii
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

Clostridium perfringens

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18
Q

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a bacteria in
betaproteobacteria?
A. Chlamydia
B. Syphilis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Nongonococcal urethritis

19
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe the infection cycle of Chlamydia?
A. Infectious reticulate bodies are released from a lysed host cell
B. Elementary bodies attack host cells
C. Reticulate bodies multiple within host
D. Conversion to reticulate bodies
E. Conversion to elementary bodies

A

Infectious reticulate bodies are released from a lysed host cell

20
Q

Deinococcus radiodurans is a hyperthermophilic belonging to the Deinococcus-Thermus phylum. What characteristic of D. radiodurans is believed to have originated from horizontal gene transfer with Archaea?
A. Carotenoids
B. High DNA repair efficiency
C. Ether-linked lipids
D. Double membrane and thick cell wall
E. None of these

A

Ether-linked lipids

21
Q

Archaea are a classification of Prokaryotes distinct from Bacteria. Which of the
following does NOT describe Archaea?
A. Ether-linked lipids
B. Complex RNA polymerase similar to those of Eukarya
C. Peptidoglycan cell walls
D. Ability to produce methane
E. Two of these

A

Peptidoglycan cell walls

22
Q

Euryarchaeota are a phylum of Archaea that includes species adaptive to hypersaline environments. What ion is crucial to the ability of Halophiles to maintain a normal internal concentration of Na+ in conditions up to 5.5M NaCl?
A. Mg2+
B. K+
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. Mn2+

23
Q

Archaea belonging to the genera Methanobacterium are capable of reducing carbon
dioxide to methane by utilizing hydrogen gas as an electron donor. What environmental
condition is needed to perform methanogenesis?
A. High salinity
B. High temperature
C. Anoxic conditions
D. Proton motive force
E. Two of these

A

Anoxic conditions

24
Q

Pyrodictium and Pyrolobus are genera of Crenarchaeota that grow in deep-sea vents.
Which of the following is NOT true of these Archaea?
A. Capable of surviving autoclaving for an hour
B. Motility via archaella
C. Growth using Fe3+ and H2 to perform chemolithoautotrophy
D. Aerobic oxidation of hydrogen sulfide

A

Aerobic oxidation of hydrogen sulfide

25
How are halophilics, such as Halobacterium salinarum, able to produce a proton motive force? A. By reversing the action of ATP synthase to spend ATP B. By the action of a protein containing retinol C. By maintaining a high internal concentration of positive ions D. By pumping protons out of the cell using light energy E. Two of these
Two of these: By the action of a protein containing retinol By pumping protons out of the cell using light energy
26
Which of the following is NOT a secondary endosymbiont? A. Rhodophyta B. Dinoflagellates C. Euglenids D. Apicomplexans E. Stramenopiles F. Two of these
Rhodophyta (red algae)
27
What gene is used to place eukaryotes on their phylogenetic tree? A. 16S rRNA B. 18S rRNA C. Both of these
18S rRNA
28
Which of the following organelles would you NOT expect to find in the Excavates Giardia intestinalis and Trichomonas vaginalis? A. Nucleus B. Mitosomes C. Hydrogenosomes D. Mitochondria
Mitochondria
29
Which of the following Alveolates move via short, hairlike extensions called cilia? A. Dinoflagellates B. Paramecium C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Toxoplasma gondii
Paramecium
30
Some protists are mixotrophs capable of both auto- and heterotrophy. Of the following, which would you expect to be capable of mixotrophy? A. Dinoflagellates B. Trypanosomes C. Euglena D. Apicomplexans E. Two of these
Two of these: Dinoflagellates Euglena
31
Which of the following is correctly matched? A. Apicomplexans - Chloroplast B. Euglena - Mitosomes C. Diplomonads - Mitochondria D. Parabasalids - Two nuclei E. Diatoms - Frustules F. Slime molds - Hyphae G. None of these
Diatoms- Frustules
32
Def. Structure for sexual reproduction
Asci
33
Def. Structure for asexual reproduction
Conidia
34
Def. Structure for dissemination of spores
Fruiting bodies
35
Def. Structure for multicellular network
Hyphae
36
Def. Structure for absorptive nutrition
Mycelia
37
Def. Structure for cell wall
Chitin
38
Def. Structure for symbiosis with plant roots
Mycorrhiaze
39
Which of the following fungi would flourish in habitats where sugars are present? A. Molds like Statchybotrys B. Mycelium like Rhizopus C. Yeasts like Saccharomyces D. Basiodiomycotes like Amanita
Yeasts like Saccharomyces
40
Of the phylum Archaeplastida, which alga is considered “deep”? A. Rhodophyta “Red alga” B. Chlorophyta “Green alga” C. Neither of these D. Both of these
Rhodophyta "red algae"
41
Which structure is needed for sexual reproduction in true mushrooms? A. Conidiophores B. Ascus C. Basidium D. Hyphae
Basidium
42
What must be true in order for yeasts to produce haploid offspring? A. Two haploid nuclei from the same mating type fuse to form a diploid nucleus B. Two haploid nuclei from different mating types fuse to form a diploid nucleus C. Conidia form at the tips of conidiophores D. Mitosis and budding of ascospores E. Two of these
Two of these: Two haploid nuclei from different mating types fuse to form a diploid nucleus Mitosis and budding of ascospores
43
Many antibiotics, such oxazolidinones, inhibit the function of the 70S ribosome. Would these antibiotics have any effect upon a eukaryotic organism? A. No because eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes B. No because complex eukaryotes have mechanisms that remove antibiotics from the cell C. Yes because eukaryotes have 70S ribosomes within their mitochondria and chloroplasts D. Yes because these antibiotics are disruptive to other organelles besides ribosomes
Yes, because eukaryotes have 70S ribosomes within their mitochondria and chloroplasts
44
Many mushrooms can be toxic upon consumption. This includes species of Amanita, who produce a-amanitin, an inhibitor of RNA polymerase II. What organisms would be affected by a-amanitin? A. Eukaryotes only B. Prokaryotes only C. Archaea and Eukarya, but not bacteria D. Bacteria, but not Archaea or Eukarya
Archaea and Eukarya, but not bacteria