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Microbiology > Exam 2- SI-3 > Flashcards

Exam 2- SI-3 Flashcards

(48 cards)

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1
Q

What comprises the majority of soils?
A. Inorganic mineral matter
B. Organic matter
C. Air and water
D. Microorganism and macroorganisms

A

Air and water

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2
Q

Which of the following correctly describes species richness and species abundance?
A. Species abundance is the proportion of each species in an ecosystem; species richness is the total number of different strains in a species
B. Species abundance is the proportion of each species in an ecosystem; species richness is the total number of different species in an ecosystem
C. Species abundance is the total number of all organisms in a species; species richness is the total number of different strains in a species
D. Species abundance is the total number of all organisms in a species; species richness is the total number of different species in an ecosystem

A

B. Species abundance is the proportion of each species in an ecosystem; species richness is the total number of different species in an ecosystem

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3
Q

How does rising temperatures during the summer affect freshwater lake conditions?
A. Formation of an anoxic layer between the upper and lower depths
B. Formation of a warm, H2S rich layer near the water’s surface
C. Formation of a cold, anoxic layer at lower depths
D. All of these

A

Formation of a cold, anoxic layer at lower depths

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4
Q

Generally, the open ocean is ______ than freshwater environments
A. More oligotrophic
B. More eutrophic
C. Less saline
D. Warmer

A

More oligotrophic

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5
Q

How do Pelagibacter and other marine heterotrophs drive ATP synthesis?
A. Light energy via bacteriorhodopsin
B. Light energy via proteorhodopsin
C. Light energy via photosystems I or II

A

Light energy via proteorhodopsin

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6
Q

Def. Extremely low fermentation and methanogenesis activites

A

Deep sediments

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7
Q

Def. Active anaerobic methane oxidation by psychrophilic piezophiles

A

Cold seeps

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8
Q

Def. Chemolithotrophy by thermophilic piezophiles

A

Hydrothermal vents

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9
Q

Def. Eutophication due to terrestrial runoff; aerobic respiration

A

Coasts

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10
Q

Def. Lithotrophy involving nitrogen compounds; eutrophic region where biochemical oxygen demand exceeds oxygen production

A

Oxygen minimum zone

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11
Q

Def. Carbon fixation by cyanobacteria

A

Productive surface waters

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12
Q

Which of the following has NOT correctly matched the chemolithotroph to its electron
donor?
A. Sulfur-oxidizing: Elemental Sulfur
B. Methanogenic; CH4
C. Sulfate-reducing; H2
D. Iron/Manganese-oxidizing; Fe 2+, Mn 2+
E. Methylotrophic; CO

A

Methanogenic; CH4

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13
Q

A growing concern of global warming is the expansion of these oceanic regions, which function as significant sinks for the loss of fixed nitrogen and as a source of N2O, a potent greenhouse gas.
A. Epilimnion
B. Hypolimnion
C. Oxygen Minimum Zones
D. Pelagic photic zone

A

Oxygen minimum zones

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14
Q

Which of the following nutrients is considered to be rich in the open ocean?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Phosphorus
D. Iron

A

Oxygen

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15
Q

Which of the following would you NOT expect to find in the deep-sea?
A. Psychrophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Hyperthermophiles
D. Chemolithotrophic prokaryotes
E. Chemoorganotrophic prokaryotes
F. Extreme piezophiles
G. All of the could be found in the deep-sea

A

All of these could be found in the deep-sea

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16
Q

Which carbon reservoir is most rapidly transferred in the atmosphere?
A. CO
B. CO2
C. CH4
D. CH2O

A

CO2

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17
Q

In the Redox cycle for Carbon, __________ involves assistance from syntrophs.
A. Oxygenic photosynthesis
B. Respiration
C. Anaerobic respiration and fermentation
D. Methanogenesis
E. Anoxygenic photosynthesis
F. Chemolithotrophy

A

Methanogenesis

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18
Q

What major nitrogen transformations is most energy intensive?
A. Nitrification
B. Denitrification
C. Anammox
D. Nitrogen fixation

A

Nitrogen fixation

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19
Q

Which nitrogen transformation is primarily aerobic?
A. Nitrification
B. Denitrification
C. Anammox
D. None of these
E. All of these

A

Nitrification

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20
Q

Human production of large amounts of fertilizers in the agriculture industry have a
major impact on which cycle?
A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen
C. Phosphorus
D. Sulfur
E. Two of these

21
Q

The combustion of fossil fuels has a major impact on which cycle?
A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen
C. Phosphorus
D. Sulfur
E. Two of these

Study These Flashcards
A

Two of these:
Carbon
Sulfur

22
Q

Which of the following describes radiative forcing?
A. CO2 traps long-wave heat waves from the Earth’s surface, in effect making the entire planet a large greenhouse
B. Long-wave heat waves from the Earth’s surface dissolve CO2 into the ocean, forming carbonic acid and causing acidification
C. Dissimilatory oxidation of ammonia during anammox releases N2 into the atmosphere, which traps long-wave heat waves from the Earth’s surface
D. Phosphite and hypophosphite rapidly cycle through aquatic ecosystems, leading to stratification and expansion of oxygen minimum zones

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A

CO2 traps long-wave heat waves from the Earth’s surface, in effect making the entire planet a large greenhouse

23
Q

What form of sulfur is its most significant reservoir, and where is it found?
A. Sulfide; Sediments and rocks
B. Sulfide; Oceans
C. Sulfate; Sediments and rocks
D. Sulfate; Oceans
E. Sulfur Dioxide; Atmosphere

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A

Sulfate; oceans

24
Q

Which of the following is the terminal electron acceptor in sulfate-reducing bacteria?
a. sulfite (SO32-)
b. thiosulfate (S2O32-)
c. hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
d. sulfate (SO42-)
e. elemental sulfur (S°)

Study These Flashcards
A

Sulfate (SO4)

25
Which of the following sequences of events are correct with respect to the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? a. (1) primers extend; (2) primers anneal; (3) denaturation (strand separation) b. (1) denaturation (strand separation); (2) primers extend; (3) primers anneal c. (1) denaturation (strand separation); (2) primers anneal; (3) primers extend d. (1) primers anneal; (2) denaturation (strand separation); (3) primers extend
c. (1) denaturation (strand separation); (2) primers anneal; (3) primers extend
26
The process of moving a genetic element within or between DNA molecules in the same cell is called a. transposition. b. conjugation. c. transduction. d. reversion. e. transformation.
Transposition
27
What type of reporter fusions can expose both transcriptional and translational controls? a. gene fusions b. operon fusions c. either operon fusions or gene fusions
Gene fusions
28
In the reductive TCA cycle, CO2 is assimilated by reversing TCA steps that require ________ as the energy input. a. acetyl-CoA b. oxygen c. ADP d. ATP e. CO2
ATP
29
Cyanobacteria have ________-based photosynthesis and are the only ________ -producing bacteria. a. Mg2+; NO b. H2O; O2 c. H2S; S° d. fumarate; O2 e. succinate; O2
H2O; O2
30
What is the special property of DNA polymerase used in current polymerase chain reaction (PCR) protocols? a. It must be highly acid stable. b. It must be an error-prone polymerase. c. It must be highly sensitive to heat. d. It must be highly heat stable. e. It must be highly stable in high-salt solutions.
It must be highly heat stable
31
A bacterium capable of producing methane and water from carbon dioxide and hydrogen performs a type of metabolism called ________ and is categorized as a ________. a. fermentation; chemoorganotroph b. sulfur bacterium; chemolithotroph c. carbon fixation; phototroph d. methanogenesis; chemolithotroph e. respiration; heterotroph
Methanogenesis; chemolithotroph
32
Listeria is a(n) ________ organism, which means that it readily grows at refrigeration temperatures. a. acidophilic b. mesophilic c. psychrotrophic d. neutrophilic e. phototrophic
Psychrotrophic
33
The ________ is the dominant carbon fixation pathway utilized by chloroplasts and cyanobacteria. a. glycolysis b. reverse TCA cycle c. reverse acetyl-CoA d. Calvin cycle e. pentose phosphate pathway
Calvin cycle
34
Plasmodium falciparum is a(n) ________ and is transmitted to the human host by the bite of a ________. a. an Apicomplexan; sand fly b. an Apicomplexan; mosquito c. a type of Trypanosome; mosquito d. a Microsporidian; reduviid bug e. a type of Trypanosome; tsetse fly
An Apicomplexan; mosquito
35
Microbes of the gut microbiome are most likely members of a. Deltaproteobacteria. b. Alphaproteobacteria. c. Epsilonproteobacteria. d. Gammaproteobacteria. e. Betaproteobacteria.
Gammaproteobacteria
36
The ancestral organism that gave rise to the modern-day chloroplast was most likely a. related to modern Wolbachia spp. b. a bacterium related to Escherichia coli. c. a methanogen. d. a cyanobacterium. e. a bacterium related to modern Rickettsia.
A cyanobacterium
37
Which of the following is unique to archaea? a. being anaerobic b. infection by double-stranded DNA viruses c. being thermophilic d. having pseudopeptidoglycane. e. having supercoiled DNA
Having pseudopeptidoglycane
38
Bacteria of the genus Mycoplasma are classified as low GC Gram-positives because_____________________________. a. they appear purple after Gram staining b. they appear red after Gram staining c. their 16S rRNA sequences show the most similarity to other low GC Gram-positives d. they do not have cell walls e. they have 70S ribosomes
Their 16S rRNA sequences show the most similarity to other low GC gram-positives
39
A trait that differentiates all Firmicutes from Actinobacteria is ___________________ a. cell size. b. Gram stain character. c. oxygen requirements. d. GC content. e. genome size.
GC content
40
A high concentration of organic substances in wastewater leads to a. methanogenesis. b. a low biochemical oxygen demand (BOD). c. a high biochemical oxygen demand (BOD). d. increased photosynthesis.e. oligotrophy.
A high biochemical oxygen demand
41
The energy-yielding process of ________ occurs only in the archaea. a. sulfur oxidation b. hydrogen oxidation c. anaerobic respiration d. methanogenesis e. fermentation
Methanogenesis
42
Chlamydiae contain two distinct developmental stages. The __________ stage is metabolically inert but infectious. The ___________ stage is metabolically active but noninfectious. a. endospore/vegetative cell b. elementary body/reticulate body c. vegetative cell/endospore d. reticulate body/elementary body
B. elementary body/reticulate body
43
The term protist includes many clades of single-celled and colonial eukaryotic organisms EXCEPT ______ a. amoebas. b. diatoms. c. dinoflagellates. d. paramecia. e. fungi.
fungi
44
Bacteria in the genera ________ produce durable endospores that remain viable for millennia. a. Oscillatoria and Anabaena b. Lactobacillus and Streptococcus c. Rickettsia and Chromatium d. Bacillus and Clostridium
Bacillus and clostridium
45
An ancient ________ is assumed to be in the same lineage as mitochondria. a. Mycoplasma b. cyanobacterium c. Rhizobium d. Rickettsia e. Clostridium
Rickettsia
46
Sulfolobus species are referred to as double ________, meaning they require high temperature and high acidity simultaneously. a. acidophiles b. membranes c. extremophiles d. hyperthermophiles e. thermophiles
Extremophiles
47
_______ have retinal-associated light-driven membrane ion pumps. a. Amoebas b. Sulfolobales c. Haloarchaea d. Red algae e. Leishmania
Haloarchaea
48
A bacterial phylum is a group of organisms that share a common ancestor that diverged early from other bacteria, based on ______________________________ a. their genomic sizes. b. their ribosome sizes. c. the presence of certain plasmids. d. small-subunit (16S) rRNA sequences. e. the presence or absence of cell wall.
Small-subunit (16S) rRNA sequences

Microbiology (6 decks)

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