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z. Medical Microbiology > Exam #3 > Flashcards

Exam #3 Flashcards

1
Q

adaptive vs innate immune system

A

Adaptive: Takes time to develop but highly effective, responds to antigens, B cells (antigen specific, mature in bone marrow, produce antibodies) T cells (antigen specific, mature in thymus, 4 kinds - becomes memory cells)
Innate: Immediate response, nonspecific, operates continuously

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2
Q

neutrophils

A

first response to invaders, when found it results in phagocytosis, what pus is made of

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3
Q

macrophages

A

longer lived than neutrophils, can also present antigens

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4
Q

eosinophils and basophils

A

elevated (Eos) are indications of a parasitic infection, release chemicals that are toxic to parasites

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5
Q

dendritic cells

A

spleen and lymph nodes, can phagocyte whole bacteria and absorb soluble antigens, insert themselves into membrane to break and kill the cell

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6
Q

mast cells

A

in connective tissues, rich in histamine (inflammation) and heparin

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7
Q

monocytes

A

circulate in blood and differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells

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8
Q

neutrophils vs macrophages

A

macro are longer lived and can present antigens

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9
Q

elevated neutrophils

A

bacterial infection

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10
Q

elevated lymphocytes

A

(b and t cells) viral infection

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11
Q

elevated eosinphils

A

parasitic infection

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12
Q

elevated basophils

A

allergic reaction

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13
Q

physcial barriers to infection

A
  • skin (layers of dead cells); sebum (oily substance that covers and protects), slightly acidic pH inhibits bacterial growth,
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14
Q

physical barries to infection for lungs

A

large microbes get trapped in hairs/cilia of the nasal cavity, sneezing forces air out of the respiratory tract, macrophages ingest and kill most bacteria not sneezed out

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15
Q

chemical barriers to infection

A
  • acidic pH of the stomach
  • acidic pH of the vagina
  • lysozyme (enzyme) degrades walls of gram positive bacteria
  • defensins, apart of the innate immune system, kill by destroying the cytoplasmic membrane (insert themselves) both gram positive and negative bacteria
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16
Q

David Phillip Vetter case key points

A
  • born with a mutation where he could no produce t cells
  • received a stem cell transplant from sister (bone marrow)
  • stem cells contained mono (latent herpres virus) and he died from that disease
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17
Q

cytotoxic t-cells

A

destroy infected host cells

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18
Q

what are antibodies

A

proteins that circulate in the blood stream and recognize foreign structures such as antigens

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19
Q

parts of an antibody and their functions

A

antigen binding sites - tips - different based on what antigen it recognizes

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20
Q

IgA function

A

2 antibodies stuck together, protects external openings

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21
Q

IgM function

A

appear in early infection, 1st to make a response to pathogen/vaccine, largest (5 binded together)

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22
Q

IgG function

A

most common, highlights pathogens for phagocytes, only one that can cross placenta, few weeks to get immunity

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23
Q

IgE function

A

triggers the release of histamines (allergies)

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24
Q

IgD function

A

primarily unknown, on the surface of B cells

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25
Q

what antibody isotope can cross the placenta

A

IgG

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26
Q

what is isotype switching

A

changes the B cell from one type of antibody to another
ex: IgM to IgG

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27
Q

mascular

A

red, flat, less than 1 cm diameter

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28
Q

vesitcular

A

small blisters are formed

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29
Q

papular

A

small, solid and elevated

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30
Q

pustular

A

papule that is filled with pus

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31
Q

maculopapular

A

papule is reddened

32
Q

how to you become infected with chicken pox/shingles, how does it replicate

A

inhale particles from skin lesions, exposure to the fluids, replicates in nasopharynx,

33
Q

how does chicken pox damage skin cells

A

invades the capillary endothelial calls (deepest layer) and produces fluid

34
Q

where does chicken pox go when it is latent

A

neurons of the dorsal root ganglia

35
Q

risk factors for reactivation of chicken pox/shingles

A

stress, poor diet/sleep, anything that wears down the immune function

36
Q

why is chicken pox/shingles a risk to the eye

A

can cause an infection in the cornea

37
Q

chicken pox/shingles vaccine

A

live form of the virus, have the vaccine as a kid will not get shingles

38
Q

how do you come infected with measles

A

breathe in water droplets, extremely infectious, replicates in lungs - moved to lymph nodes and produces a viremia (presence of virus in blood)

39
Q

what type of rash does measles cause

A

flat, red, starts at the hairline and goes down the back

40
Q

signs and symptoms of measles

A

cold and flu symptoms to start, high fever (104), reash appears at hairline and spreads down, conjunctivitis (pink eye), koplik spots

41
Q

what are Koplik spots

A

white spots on the inner cheek, sign of measles

42
Q

how do you catch reubella

A

inhalation of infection, replicates in cytoplasm of nasopharynx and lymph nodes

43
Q

what type of rash does reubella cause

A

pink maculopapular (redden papule) that arises suddenly on head and spreads to the body and extremities

44
Q

who is at most risk for a rubella infection why do we still vaccinate even though it is a mild disease

A

children at most risk, can cause birth defects in pregnant women and in immunocompromised patients can cause inflammation of heart - can lead to death

45
Q
A

Staphylococcus aureus, gram stain and arrangement

46
Q

S. aureus (flora, hemolytic type, how does it avoid immune system)

A

normal flora in nose, beta hemolytic (complete), coats bacteria and walls of the infection from the immune system leading to abscess formation, can kill immune cells and coat itself in proteins

47
Q

toxic shock syndrome

A

causes vasodilation, subdermal hemorrhage, drop in BP, toxins diffuse from the abscesses to the blood, can cause peeling of hands and feet (scaled skin syndrome)

48
Q

what is mrsa and the best antibotic to treat it

A

S. aureus, treated with penicillin drugs, 60% has become resistant, will be treated with vancomycin

49
Q

how can you diagnose hand-foot-and mouth disease

A

related to common cold, blister-like sores on the hands and mouth that are not painful or itchy, can be found in nasal and throat secretions, spread through contact with fluids

50
Q

signs and symptoms of impetigo

A

honey colored crust lesions around nose and mouth cause by strep or staph, highly contagious

51
Q
A

Streptococcus pyogenes, gram stain

52
Q

S. pyogenes (flora, hemolytic type)

A

normal in upper respiratory, beta hemolytic

53
Q

signs and symptoms of necrotizing factitious, major bacterial cause

A

blisters, fatigue, pain, produces toxins that cause major tissue distruction, infection of the fascia (between skin and organ)

54
Q

how can a hyperbaric oxygen chamber help treat necrotizing factitious

A

strep has no catalase and is anaerobic, killed by the oxygen

55
Q

what is cellulitis and its involved tissues

A

non-necrotizing inflammation of the lower dermal layers, does not involve fascia or muscles, often a complication of a wound infection

56
Q

what is lymphangitis, what might it indicate

A

inflammation of the lymphatic vessels caused by staph/strep other bacteria could indicate sepsis

57
Q

how can you tell the difference between staph vs strep

A

staph: gram positive cocci cluster, catalase reactive to oxygen
strep: gram positive cocci in chains, no reactive catalase, anaerobic
both: beta hemolytic
staph yellow on msa, strep will not grow on msa

58
Q

ringworm infections

A

caused by fungus, direct contact with skin, over counter anti-fungal creams will help treat

59
Q

candida infections

A

form in normal flora of GI tracts, vagina, oral cavity, infects skin, mucous membranes and body organs

60
Q

what does KOH prep do in regards of fungal infections

A

destroys skin cells but not walls of mycelia (cell walls of fungi)

61
Q

burn wound infections

A

mrsa is most common cause of burn wound infection, skin barrier damaged the bacteria have a direct route

62
Q

dry vs wet vs gas gangrene

A

dry: fingers and toes, severe frostbite or diabetes
wet: internal necrosis
gas: clostridium species produce gasses, also considered wet

63
Q

Clostridium perfringens

A

gram positive rod, spore former, anaerobe, grows only on dead tissue, found in the soil, infects traumatic wounds, kills host tissue before immune can respond

64
Q

conjunctivitis vs keratitis

A

C: inflammation of the white of the eye
K: inflammation of the cornea (sight threatening)

65
Q

viral keratitis

A

cornea infection

66
Q

bacterial eye infections

A

white part of the eye infection

67
Q

why are newborns given eyedrops

A

as a prophylactic measure against different STD’s the mother could have

68
Q

virulence factors

A

(severity of disease) determined by the capsules

69
Q

major cause of bacterial pharyngitis and why is treatment important

A

strep throat, some proteins on can be similar as cardiac/joint/kidney proteins, body can then bind to own cells

70
Q

what is special about the strep pyrogens that cause scarlet fever

A

makes pyrogenic exotoxins

71
Q

signs and symptoms of diphtheria

A

gray matter covers back of the throat, preventable by vaccine

72
Q

why is it common for children to otitis media ear infections and what is the treatment for children with chronic ear infections

A

tubes are smaller and more horizontal than in adults

73
Q
A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, gram stain, capsules

74
Q

what’s the most common cause of pnenomnia in adults, hemolysis, and immune system avoidance

A

flus and common cold

75
Q

bortatellus protusses, gram negative rod

A

whooping cough, gram stain

76
Q

T cells

A

activate B cells

77
Q

B cells

A

produce antibodies

z. Medical Microbiology (4 decks)

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