Exam 3 Flashcards
(299 cards)
1
Q
True or False: Cranial sutures are fibrous and amphiarthrosis joints
A
false
2
Q
Which of these organs are involved in maintaining blood calcium levels?
- Parathyroid gland
- Kidneys
- Bones
- Thyroid gland
A
All
3
Q
The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the ________.
A
occipital bone
4
Q
Yellow marrow has been identified as ________.
A
an area of fat storage
5
Q
Which term is used to describe movement towards the longitudinal axis?
A
adduction
6
Q
Which of the following skin cancers is most likely to metastasize?
A
melanoma
7
Q
In adults, new connective tissue cells originate from the ________.
A
mesenchyme
8
Q
At synovial joints, ________.
A
the joint cavity is filled with a thick, lubricating fluid
9
Q
Which of the following terms describes a muscle that has (is) a shorter length or tendon?
A
Minimus/Minor
10
Q
Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
A
supports trunk of body
11
Q
Which hormones are responsible for the adolescent growth spurt?
A
estrogen and testosterone
12
Q
Which of the following are only found in cancellous bone?
A
trabeculae
12
Q
Which of the following tissue types would you expect to find in an area exposed to abrasion?
A
Stratified squamous epithelium
13
Q
Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion?
A
ball and socket
14
Q
Which one of the following foods is best for bone health?
A
leafy green vegetables
15
Q
True or False: Following a fracture, the processes of endochondral ossification are used to transition fibrocartilage to bone?
A
true
16
Q
The sternal angle is the ________.
A
junction between the manubrium and body
17
Q
What is the function of the collateral ligaments?
A
Extracapsular ligaments to reinforce the joint capsule
18
Q
Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue?
A
polarity
19
Q
What do the terms medius imply?
A
Middle
20
Q
Which of the following connective tissues would you expect to find in areas of the body exposed to both compressive and shearing forces?
A
fibrocartilage
21
Q
Which type of epithelial tissue specializes in moving particles across its surface?
A
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
22
Q
true or false: You would expect an Olympic sprinter to have skeletal muscle organs with a greater percentage of fast glycolytic fibers.
A
true
23
Q
Binding of __________ to myosin permits cross-bridge __________ between actin and myosin in skeletal muscle cells.
A
ATP; detachment
24
The radius bone ________.
has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna
25
Wolff's law, which describes the effect of mechanical forces in bone modeling/remodeling, would predict that ________
a right-handed pitcher will have thicker bones in his right arm compared to his left.
26
Which of the following molecules directly blocks the active site and prevents muscle contraction?
Tropomyosin
27
Rank/Order the skin cancers from most severe (worst prognosis) to least severe (best prognosis)
Basal cell carcinoma (least sever)
Squamous cell carcinoma
Melanoma (most sever)
28
A gomphosis ________.
anchors a tooth to the jaw
29
Which is moved the least during muscle contraction?
the origin
30
Differentiated cells in a developing embryo derive from ________.
ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
31
Skeletal muscle is composed of very hard working cells. Which organelles do you expect to find in abundance in skeletal muscle cell?
mitochondria
32
Which of the following are found in compact bone and cancellous bone?
lacunae
33
The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called ________.
sarcolemma
34
Which of the following processes is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?
fever
35
Which of the following do you expect to find in the papillary layer of the dermis (select all that apply).
Capillary loops
Sensory structures
Loose areolar connective tissue
36
Which of the following is not a function of the hypodermis?
source of blood vessels in the epidermis
37
Which of the following gives rise to all others?
stratum basale
38
Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue?
Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers.
39
How can a fractured diaphysis release fat globules into the bloodstream?
The yellow marrow in the diaphysis is exposed and damaged.
40
In general, skin cancers ________.
can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun
41
Which of the following is a likely reason that osteoporosis is seen more frequently in women?
Menopause reduces estrogen levels which reduces osteoblast activity
42
What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula?
acromion
43
The muscles in your fingers have a predominance of fast-glycolytic fibers, whereas the muscles of your feet have a predominance of slow-oxidative fibers.
Which of the following statements accurately describes their differences?
Muscle fibers of the feet have a greater abundance of **myoglobin** than do muscle fibers of the hands.
44
Which connective tissue specializes in storage of fat?
adipose tissue
45
Connective tissue is made of which three essential components?
cells, ground substance, and protein fibers
46
Which of the following are incapable of undergoing mitosis?
osteoblasts and osteoclasts (next guess)
47
If you cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound, which of the following cells would help get rid of the bacteria?
Langerhans cells
48
What do the terms Minimus/minor imply?
A given muscle is the smallest for a given muscle group
49
In the first few seconds of skeletal muscle contraction, what is the main mechanism by which ATP is replenished?
Energy and phosphate are transferred from creatine phosphate to ADP.
50
Which of the following develops from the ectoderm?
skin
51
The middle cranial fossa ________.
has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum
52
True or False: All muscle cells change chemical energy into mechanical energy by removing a phosphate group from ATP?
true
53
Which of the following is the best description of a muscle action?
The primary movement produced by muscle contraction (next guess)
54
A typical vertebra has ________.
lamina that spans between the transverse process
55
Cells release products through exocytosis
eccrine
56
The cell ruptures (lysis) and dies
holocrine
57
Cells release products through pinching off of the apical region but the cell remains alive
apocrine
58
Movement of a body region in a circular movement at a condyloid joint is what type of motion?
circumduction
59
A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________.
acromioclavicular joint
60
Which of the following structures divides the nasal cavity along a midsagittal plane?
The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the vomer
61
What is the function of melanin?
protect DNA from UV radiation
62
A bursa ________.
prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone
63
True or False: Differences in skin color are due to melanocyte activity and melanosome size/concentration?
True
64
Muscle that has a striped appearance is described as being ________.
striated
65
The bony openings of the skull include the ________.
hypoglossal canal, which is located in the posterior cranial fossa
66
A cartilaginous joint ________.
is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage
67
Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called ________.
abduction
68
Where in the body are you most likely to find a squamous cell carcinoma?
Areas exposed to intermediate UV radiation ex.) scalp, nose, ears, and hands
69
True or False: Endochondral ossification begins with mensenchyme differentiating into osteogenic cells?
False (chondroblasts)
70
A blow to the 'temple' region may rupture the middle meningeal artery. What region of the skull corresponds to this region?
Pterion
71
Which of the following statements is correct about what happens during flexion?
The angle between bones is decreased.
72
If a biopsy of the quadriceps muscles (muscles on the front of the thigh) were taken from gold medal-winning speed skaters in the four following events, which would most likely have the SMALLEST percentage of type 1 muscle fibers?
500 meters
73
Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________.
beneath the periosteum
74
Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________.
epiphyseal plate
75
Which muscle has a convergent pattern of fascicles?
pectoralis major
76
Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement?
hinge joint
77
Which of the following molecules contains the active site to which myosin binds?
G-actin
78
Muscle fatigue is caused by ________.
exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of lactic acid levels
79
Which of the following lines the body cavities exposed to the external environment?
mucosa
80
The area of a bone where the nutrient foramen passes forms what kind of bone marking?
a hole
81
Sesamoid bones are found embedded in ________.
tendons
82
The tibia ________.
is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane
83
Which cell type helps to repair injured muscle fibers?
satellite cells
84
The ankle joint ________.
is a uniaxial hinge joint
85
Which of the following terms describes fascicles which run straight and parallel?
rectus
86
From which embryonic cell type does muscle tissue develop?
myoblast cells
87
In a laboratory experiment you have treated a muscle cell with a calcium channel blocker. The membrane still depolarizes, but the concentration of calcium never increases in the cytosol. Which of the following describes what will happen next?
Tropomyosin will continue to cover the myosin binding sites on actin and no cross-bridges will form.
88
Which of the following properties is NOT common to all three muscle tissues?
at rest, uses shielding proteins to cover actin-binding sites
89
At a synovial joint, the synovial membrane ________.
secretes the lubricating synovial fluid (next guess)
90
Which of the following statements regarding contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber is TRUE?
Contracting muscle fibers do not always shorten.
91
Which of the following terms describes fascicles which run within the horizontal plane?
Transverse
92
Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula?
supraspinous fossa (next guess)
93
Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if ________ is lacking.
vitamin D
94
What protein is the principal component of skeletal muscle thick filaments?
Myosin
95
Which of the following helps an agonist work?
a synergist
96
What is the definition of a "motor unit"?
A single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it innervates
97
Which of the following combinations of body regions would you expect to find in a patient with third degree burns across 54 % of his body?
Head, neck, right arm, trunk
98
Which of the following are characteristics of muscle tissues?
- Responds to external stimulus
- Stretches beyond original length without tearing
- Recoils to original length
- Shortens along the longitudinal axis
99
The axial skeleton ________.
forms the vertical axis of the body
100
When a muscle has been repeatedly contracting at a moderate intensity for an extended period of time (more than a few minutes), what is the primary source of ATP?
Cellular respiration (oxidative phosphorylation)
101
Cleft palates result from ______
Failure of the median palatine suture to fuse
102
Sebaceous glands ________.
are associated with hair follicles
103
In what region of the long bone would you expect to find the primary ossification center
Diaphysis
104
Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row?
scaphoid
105
The skeletal system is made of ________.
bones and cartilage
106
Which of the following is the best explanation for severe burns potentially leading to dehydration?
The epidermis contains molecules for minimizing water loss, and may be destroyed or damaged in severe burns. (next guess)
107
True or False: Fetal skulls have regions of endochondral ossification known as fontanelles when incomplete?
False (intramembranous ossification)
108
Organized tubes of contractile proteins
Myofibril
109
The cytoplasm of the muscle cell
Sarcoplasm
110
Carry electrical signal into the cell
T-tubule
111
Specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum that stores and releases Calcium
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
112
The plasma membrane of the muscle cell
Sarcolemma
113
Synovial joints ________.
are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity
114
limited mobility
Amphiarthrosis
115
freely moveable across different axes
Diarthrosis
116
little to no movement
Synarthrosis
117
What is the function of the posterior cruciate ligament?
Intracapsular ligament to prevent posterior glide
118
What structure contributes to the knee joint?
lateral epicondyle of the femur (next confident guess)
119
Which element is important in directly triggering contraction?
calcium
120
Cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscles in that they ________.
contain intercalated discs
121
Thin and thick filaments are organized into functional units called ________.
sarcomeres
122
Langerhans cells are commonly found in the ________.
stratum spinosum
123
When comparing adult and fetal skulls, fetal skulls _____
Lack styloid and mastoid processes
124
Which of the following molecules binds calcium to allow for muscle contraction?
Troponin
125
During intramembranous ossification, which is produced first?
- Trabeculum of spongy bone
- Lamellae of compact bone
- Red bone marrow
- Periosteum
Trabeculum of spongy bone
126
Why is cartilage slow to heal?
because it does not have a blood supply
127
Depolarization of the sarcolemma means ________.
the inside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate
128
Which of the following terms is used for the muscle which generates the most force for a given movement?
agonist
129
All of the following play a role in calcium homeostasis except
-thyroxine
- vitamin D
- calcitonin
- parathyroid hormone
thyroxine
130
Embryonic development of the axial skeleton involves ________.
intramembranous ossification, which forms the facial bones.
131
Eccrine mode of secretion
Eccrine and Apocrine sweat glands
132
Holocrine mode of secretion
Sebaceous gland
133
Collagen lends ________ to the skin.
structure
134
In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes?
They die in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity.
135
Rigor mortis is caused by
lack of ATP
136
The ________ exocrine gland stores its secretion until the glandular cell ruptures, whereas the ________ gland releases its apical region and reforms.
holocrine; apocrine
137
The primary curvatures of the vertebral column ________.
are remnants of the original fetal curvature
138
When considering the organization of muscles, bones, and joints which of the following is FALSE?
Bones act as fulcrums and are pulled on by muscles
139
The process that replaces hyaline cartilage with bone tissue is called ________.
Endochondral ossification
140
Which of the following are used to help diagnose early melanomas (select all that apply)
(ABCDE)
A: Asymmetrical borders
B: irregular BORDER shapes
C: Colors varied
D: Diameter large
E: Evolving shape
141
Which of the following is the best description of a muscle insertion?
The point of muscle attachment that moves when contracted
142
What is the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate?
calcification, maturation, proliferation, reserved
143
The location of a muscle's insertion and origin can determine ________.
action
144
Which of the following fibers is provides high tensile strength?
Collagen
145
True or False: In a terrible triad injury the medial meniscus can be torn due to interweaving of collagen from the medial collateral ligament?
true
146
Which of the following is the epithelial tissue that lines the interior of blood vessels?
simple squamous
147
Which of the following do all synovial joints contain (select all that apply)
- Articular cartilage
- Reinforcing ligaments
- Complex joint cavity
- Articular capsule
- Nerves and blood vessels
- Synovial fluid
148
Which of the following supports body weight when sitting?
ischial tuberosity
149
A synchondrosis is ________.
found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage
150
What do the terms Magnus/maxiumus/major imply?
A given muscle is the largest for a given muscle group
151
True or False: In spina bifida occulta the laminae of the affected vertebrae fail to form the spinous process?
true
152
Which of the following can be found in areas of movement?
cartilage
153
Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?
sternal end
154
Eccrine sweat glands ________.
are present in the skin throughout the body and produce watery sweat
155
True or False: Hyperflexion in whiplash may cause the nuchal ligament to tear or stretch?
true
156
Long bones enable body movement by acting as a ________.
lever
157
Ligaments connect bones together and withstand a lot of stress. What type of connective tissue should you expect ligaments to contain?
dense regular connective tissue
158
The tubercle of a rib ________.
is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra
159
The cells of muscles, myocytes, develop from ________.
myoblasts
160
According to the sliding filament model, binding sites on actin open when ________.
calcium ion levels rise
161
Select all of the following characteristics which describe skeletal muscle tissue
Peripheral nucleus
Many nuclei
Striated
162
Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly.
coracoid process
163
Which of the following structures are primarily responsible for causing air to swirl as it enters the nasal cavity?
The superior and middle nasal conchae of the ethmoid and the inferior nasal conchae
164
True or False: Endocrine glands secrete onto body surfaces or cavities
False (they secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream)
165
The fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of the bone is the ________.
periosteum
166
In temporomandibular joint dislocation _______.
The mandibular condyle moves over the articular tubercle of the temporal bone
167
The correct order for the smallest to the largest unit of organization in muscle tissue is ________.
filament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle
168
In response to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system, the arrector pili ________.
are responsible for goose bumps
169
Match the synovial joint with the appropriate functional classification:
Ball and socket- Triaxial
Pivot- Uniaxial
Saddle- Biaxial
Condyloid- Biaxial
Plane or Gliding- Nonaxial
Hinge- Uniaxial
170
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
Contractility
171
The first type of bone to form during fracture repair is ________ bone.
spongy
172
Which of the following connective tissue would you expect to see extensively in the hypodermis?
Adipose connective tissue
173
Parts of the sphenoid bone include the ________.
- glabella
- zygomatic process
- sella turcica
- squamous portion
sella turcica
174
Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint?
capitulum
175
Which category of bone is among the most numerous in the skeleton?
long bones
176
Which of the following is the best description of a herniated disc?
The nucleus pulposus protrudes through the annulus fibrosis compressing a spinal nerve in the intervertebral foramen
177
Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones; however, the bones in the wrist are categorized as ________.
short bones
178
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident?
protection of internal organs
179
Which dietary supplement is most likely to contribute to greater skeletal muscle ATP availability in the first few seconds of skeletal muscle contraction?
Creatine
180
The chemical curare is a nicotinic receptor antagonist. How will curare affect skeletal muscle function?
It will cause flaccid paralysis (no muscle contraction possible).
181
Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis?
the metacarpophalangeal joint
182
Which of the following is most likely to be released when blood calcium levels are elevated?
calcitonin
183
As you are walking down the beach, you see a dead, dry, shriveled-up fish. Which layer of your epidermis keeps you from drying out?
stratum corneum
184
True or False: Fetal skulls have regions of intramembranous ossification known as fontanelles when incomplete?
true
185
Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments?
lesser trochanter
186
Which of these joints is classified as a synarthrosis?
the manubriosternal joint
187
Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone?
ilium
188
True or False: All false ribs attach to the costal cartilage of the true ribs?
False (attaches indirectly to the sternum via costal cartilage)
189
Which motion moves the bottom of the foot away from the midline of the body?
eversion
190
Which of the following is true of second degree burns (select all that apply)
- Blisters
- Severe pain
- Dermis damaged
- Epidermis damaged
191
True ribs are ________.
attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum
192
The sternum ________.
has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body
193
Why is damage to the ligamentum teres problematic?
Damage may disrupt blood flow to the head of the femur and lead to death of bone tissue
194
Shoulder dislocation is _________
Damage to the glenohumeral joint resulting in dislocation of the humeral head
195
In humans, exposure of the skin to sunlight is required for ________.
vitamin D synthesis
196
Which type of fibrous joint connects the tibia and fibula?
syndesmosis
197
Squamous cell carcinomas are the second most common of the skin cancers and are capable of metastasizing if not treated. This cancer affects which cells?
keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum
198
What is the function of the anterior cruciate ligament?
Intracapsular ligament to prevent anterior glide
199
Which of the following statements about slow fibers is false?
Slow fibers have a small network of capillaries.
200
Muscle relaxation occurs when ________.
calcium ions are actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
201
Which of the following is the best description of a muscle origin?
The point of muscle attachment that does not move when contracted
202
During endochondral ossification of a long bone, ________.
growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening
203
Which is found only in the cervical region of the vertebral column?
nuchal ligament
204
Which of the following best describes the formation of the thicker scars with a cut perpendicular to the line of cleavage?
The incision is pulled open due to the activity of elastin fibers in the dermis
205
Bone tissue can be described as ________.
dense, hard connective tissue
206
True or False: Eversion injuries may result in a fibular fracture?
True
207
Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?
talus
208
During muscle contraction, the cross-bridge detaches when ________.
the myosin head binds to an ATP molecule
209
Shoulder separation is _________
Damage to the acromioclavicular joint resulting in damage to the ligaments between the acromion process and clavicle
210
Which of the following develops from the endoderm?
lungs
211
The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of ________.
7 vertebrae
212
In relaxed muscle, the myosin-binding site on actin is blocked by ________.
tropomyosin
213
Bones that surround the spinal cord are classified as ________ bones.
irregular
214
True or False: Inversion injuries may stretch or tear the deltoid ligaments?
False (Talofibular ligaments/
Calcaneofibular ligaments are torn/ streched)
215
Striations, cylindrical cells, and multiple nuclei are observed in ________.
skeletal muscle only
216
Which of the following is not a type of tissue?
embryonic
217
What is the function of the transverse tubules in a skeletal muscle fiber?
They allow action potentials to propagate deep into the center of skeletal muscle cells.
218
Drug X blocks ATP regeneration from ADP and phosphate. How will muscle cells respond to this drug?
by absorbing ATP from the bloodstream X
by using ADP as an energy source
by using glycogen as an energy source X
none of the above
219
Which of the following terms would be used in the name of a muscle that moves the leg away from the body?
abductor
220
Select all of the following that are classified as primary vertebral curves
Thoracic AND Sacrococcygeal
221
Which cells do NOT originate from osteogenic cells?
osteoclasts
222
A muscle that has a pattern of fascicles running along the long axis of the muscle has which of the following fascicle arrangements?
parallel
223
Where in the body are you most likely to find a melanoma?
Anywhere in the body. (next guess)
224
The paranasal sinuses are ________.
air-filled spaces found within the frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones only
225
The papillary layer of the dermis is most closely associated with which layer of the epidermis?
stratum basale
226
The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis are composed mainly of ________.
connective tissue
227
Which of the following are joined by a symphysis?
adjacent vertebrae
228
Select all of the following which would happen if ATP is removed from the skeletal muscle cell.
- Calcium would remain in the sarcoplasm keeping the muscle contracted
- Myosin would not unbind from actin
229
You have designed a drug that is supposed to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin. You inject it into a relaxed muscle, but find that none of the drug bound. Which of the following explains why?
The myosin binding sites on actin are covered by tropomyosin.
230
What would be the result if the administration of a drug sequesters all the ATP in a cell?
All cross-bridges will remain tightly bound to actin.
231
Where in the body are you most likely to find a basal cell carcinoma?
Areas exposed to long-term UV radiation such as the head, neck, arms, and back.
232
True or False: The site of Ca 2+ storage in muscle cells is the lateral sacs of the transverse tubules?
False
233
Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus?
greater tubercle
234
Which of the following is not a characteristic of all synovial joints?
bursae
235
Female pelvis characteristics:
- shallow false pelvis
- subpubic angle greater than 100 degrees
- coccyx points inferior
- short, wide sacrum
236
Male pelvis characteristics:
- deep false pelvis
- subpubic angle less than 90 degree
- coccyx points anteriorly
- narrow sacrum
237
The pelvis ________.
has a subpubic angle that is larger in females
238
The epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone in a child is classified as a ________.
synchondrosis
239
What aspect of creatine phosphate allows it to supply energy to muscles?
phosphate bonds
240
True or False: Recruitment of different types of motor units in a muscle is one means of varying the amount of tension generated in that muscle?
True
241
A fontanelle ________.
is the area of fibrous connective tissue found at birth between the brain case bones
242
Which of the following occurs in the spongy bone of the epiphysis?
hematopoiesis (blood cell production)
243
Elevate:
to raise
244
Depress:
to lower
245
Abduct:
To move away from the midline
246
Adduct:
To move towards the midline
247
Flex:
To decrease the angle of
248
Extend:
To increase the angle of
249
The cells responsible for the transmission of the nerve impulse are ________.
neurons
250
In bone, the main cells are ________.
osteocytes
251
True or False: Intramembranous begins with mesenchyme differentiating into chondroblasts?
False (osteogenic cells)
252
An individual using a sharp knife notices a small amount of blood where he just cut himself. Which of the following layers of skin did he have to cut into in order to bleed?
papillary dermis
253
Which of the following is the most apical living layer of the epidermis?
Stratum granulosum
254
Which arrangement best describes a bipennate muscle?
The muscle fibers feed in on an angle to a long tendon from both sides.
255
How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone?
3
256
Which statement is true concerning the knee joint?
The lateral meniscus is an intrinsic ligament located on the lateral side of the knee joint. (next guess)
257
True or False: Inversion injuries may stretch or tear the talofibular ligaments?
True
258
After a skin injury, the body initiates a wound-healing response. The first step of this response is the formation of a blood clot to stop bleeding. Which of the following would be the next response?
increased production of connective tissue
259
Which of the following bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification?
the flat bones of the cranium
260
True or False: Syndesmoses are fibrous and amphiarthrosis joints?
true
261
Which of the following terms describes fascicles which run at a non-orthogonal (right) angle?
oblique
262
Select all of the following that characterize inflammation:
- Swelling
- Redness
- Pain
- Localized heat
263
True or False: You would expect an Olympic power lifter to have skeletal muscle organs with a greater percentage of fast glycolytic fibers.
true
264
True or False: You would expect an extreme marathon runner to have skeletal muscle organs with a greater percentage of fast glycolytic fibers.
False
265
The process by which a less specialized cell matures into a more specialized cell is called ________.
differentiation
266
Which of the following is a type of synovial joint?
- a synostosis
- a suture
- a plane joint
- a synchondrosis
a plane joint
267
Which of the following is true of third degree burns (select all that apply)
Hypodermis damaged
Epidermis damaged
Charred appearance
Little-to-no pain
Dermis damaged
268
The joint between adjacent vertebrae that includes an intervertebral disc is classified as which type of joint?
amphiarthrosis
269
Without red marrow, bones would not be able to ________.
make blood cells
270
True or False: The binding of ATP to myosin causes an allosteric change in myosin's actin-binding site such that the affinity of myosin for actin is decreased.
True
271
Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
sacrum
272
Which of the following is the primary ligament responsible for resisting extension of the vertebral column
anterior longitudinal ligament
273
An individual has spent too much time sun bathing. Not only is his skin painful to touch, but small blisters have appeared in the affected area. This indicates that he has damaged which layers of his skin?
epidermis and dermis
274
Tetanus toxin inhibits acetylcholinesterase activity. What will a person suffering from tetanus toxin poisoning look like?
All muscles of the body might present a tense, fully contracted state.
275
What is the best explanation for the presence of canaliculi in compact bone?
They are used by osteocytes to relay waste products and obtain nutrients
276
Which of the following is a bone of the brain case?
parietal bone
277
True or False: The name given to the repeating functional units that cause striations in a skeletal musclemyofibril is "sarcomere."
true
278
A meniscus is ________.
a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones
279
Which of the following statements about fast fibers is true?
Fast fibers have large glycogen reserves.
280
Intramembranous ossification ________.
produces the bones of the top and sides of the skull
281
Supination is the motion that moves the ________.
hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position
282
True or False: Fibrocartilage is surrounded by perichondrium.
False
283
Which of the following develops from the mesoderm?
cardiac muscles
284
Which of the following tissue types would you expect to find lining a blood vessel?
Endothelium (next guess)
285
A lack of ATP in the muscle cell will lead to
- sustained flaccid paralysis
- myosin heads becoming "stuck" in a bound configuration with actin.
- calcium build-up in the cytosol
286
A syndesmosis is ________.
a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones
287
Which of the following connective tissues would you expect to find in tendons and ligaments?
Dense regular connective tissue
288
Which best describes a "myofibril"?
It is a cylindrical cellular organelle composed of myofilaments.
289
The primary support for the glenohumeral joint is provided by the ________.
rotator cuff muscles
290
Compared to type 1 (slow oxidative) skeletal muscle fibers, how are type 2X (fast-glycolytic) skeletal muscle fibers different?
Type 2X fibers fatigue more readily.
291
Which of the following terms is used for the muscle which opposes the action of a muscle responsible for a given movement
antagonist
292
Which of the following statements regarding myosin in skeletal muscle is TRUE?
Myosin is an ATPase.
293
A sprinter would experience muscle fatigue sooner than a marathon runner due to ________.
anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter
294
With respect to their direct effects on osseous tissue, which pair of hormones has actions that oppose each other?
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
295
In observing epithelial cells under a microscope, the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narrow, and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell. The specimen is what type of epithelial tissue?
columnar
296
A typical lumbar vertebra has ________.
a short, rounded spinous process
297
Which of the following is true of goblet cells?
- they are unicellular exocrine glands
- They produce the protein mucin
- In the digestive tract they assist in reducing friction across the epithelial surface
- In the respiratory tract they assist in trapping debris
298
Done
