Exam 3 Flashcards
(226 cards)
1
Q
Who coined the term “homeostasis”- A condition which may vary, but which is relatively constant
A
Walter B. Cannon
2
Q
Convection
A
Type of heat transfer- circulation or movement of fluid or gas (eg wind, heating of water on a stove)
3
Q
Radiation
A
Type of heat transfer- energy emitted by one source and absorbed by another (sunlight)
4
Q
Evaporation
A
Type of heat transfer- conversion of liquid to gas (sweating, panting)
5
Q
Conduction
A
Type of heat transfer- energy transfer along temperature gradient within or between bodies (bathing). Touching. Two things of different temps touch each other, temperatures start moving toward each other and meet in the middle
6
Q
high surface area to volume ratio makes heat transfer within environment efficient and rapid when you have a high surface-to-volume ratio in your object. so want smaller object. 2:1 surface area to volume is preferable to 1:2 surface area to volume for communication outside of the cell
A
true
7
Q
T or F Elephants consume much less O2 per kg than shrews
A
T. heat/energy produced by tiny things is lost pretty rapidly. elephants don’t lose a lot of energy to the environment, they are pretty well self contained
8
Q
mammals and birds endotherms or ectotherms
A
endotherms.
9
Q
animals whose temperatures are regulated by behavior AND internal metabolism (physiology). name some types of physiological thermoregulation
A
endotherms- shivering, piloerection (hair standing on end) panting, sweating, brown fat metabolism, seasonal hair growth/loss
10
Q
T or F all animals display behavioral efforts to regulate temperature. Name some types of behavioral thermoregulation
A
T. ectotherms do this exclusively, no physiological regulation.
Behavioral thermoregulation-
Basking in reptiles
Posture, lowering or increasing surface area
Bathing in water
Urine washing (monkeys)
Huddling (rat pups)
11
Q
cells in what area of the hypothalamus change firing rate with increases or decreases in temperature?
A
Preoptic area
12
Q
physiological responses to cold
A
increased thyroid activity (metabolism)
metabolism of brown fat
constriction of cutaneous blood vessels
shivering of muscles
13
Q
physiological responses to heat
A
increased respiration
perspiration
dilation of cutaneous blood vessels
14
Q
Prominent thermoregulatory structure, place with the finest set zone
A
Hypothalamus. no single thermostat in nervous system, brainstem and spinal cord also thermoregulate
15
Q
brown adipose tissue function
A
gets metabolized to generate heat around the body
16
Q
who are the most significant evaporators? (best distance runners in animal kingdom) what caused this adaptation?
A
Humans! persistence running caused this adaptation
17
Q
piloerection function
A
creates insulation by trapping air. vestigial in humans
18
Q
countercurrent heat exchange in nasal veins and testicles. what is it and why does it exist?
A
Neural and testicular tissue is damaged at lower temperatures than other body tissues, want to avoid damage of hot blood in brain and balls. cold blood in nasal veins surrounds arterial blood on its way to the brain. similar in balls
19
Q
Although there are significant metabolic costs of having the capability of thermoregulation, why do endotherms have an advantage over ectotherms?
A
expanded niche! endotherms can exist in a much larger range of environments
20
Q
Number phases following infection: Body temperature increases. Set point increases, causing a cold feeling. Body temp decreases. When infection is neutralized, set point returns to original, feel hot
A
2,1,4,3
21
Q
How do ectotherms fight off an infection if their temperature is not internally regulated?
A
Behavioral fever. Use behavior to change environmental temperature and generate fever (go under light in cage)
22
Q
Huddling is an example of what form of thermal energy regulation/exchange
A
conduction. Also minimizing surface area exposed to outside cold temperature
23
Q
What is the function of the brood patch in birds?
A
allows for direct conduction of heat. Mostly directed toward developing babies
24
Q
How do some ectotherms survive subzero body temperatures?
A
Have an antifreeze protein in their blood. Fish blood protein used in ice cream to keep it smooth instead of crystallized
25
Approximate daily water intake often MATCHES, EXCEEDS, or IS LESS THAN daily water output
Matches
26
Baroreceptors in major blood vessels detect pressure drop from fluid loss, what kind of thirst is induced?
Hypovolemic thirst. extracellular fluid is being lost from some sort of abnormality (hemorrhage, diarrhea, vomiting, etc)
27
how do osmosensory neurons help in the regulation of water content
Stretch and shrink to send info about water content in body
28
Osmotic thirst function
Osmosensory neurons in the brain detect any increased osmolality of extracellular fluid, which draws water out of the intracellular compartment
29
What hormone causes blood vessels to contract, increasing BP and inhibiting urine production for Water conservation
Vasopressin, comes from hypothalamus through posterior pituitary
30
Why do Brattleboro rats and folks with diabetes insipidus have to drink a bunch of water all the time?
Unable to produce vasopressin, therefore unable to retain water
31
What does angiotensin come from, what does it combine with to form angiotensin II?
Angiotensinogen in liver. Combines with renin from kidneys
32
Function of angiotensin II? How is angiotensin II created?
Angiotensin reacts with renin from kidneys to form angiotensin II which causes vasopressin to be released, blood vessels to constrict, aldosterone to be released, and hypothalamus and pituitary to trigger drinking
33
Function of aldosterone?
Stimulates salt retention to increase drinking
34
T or F, osmotic thirst occurs when you have low levels of salt
F. High levels
35
T or F, hypovolemic thirst means that you have too much salt in your body
F. It means that you lost a bunch of water volume
36
In what area do both hypovolemic thirst and osmotic thirst first arrive in the thirst pathway?
Preoptic area
37
The preoptic area in the thirst pathway stimulates what two areas
Hypothalamic thirst network, causes drinking
| Supraoptic nucleus, paraventricular nucleus cause water conservation
38
What do marine mammals have to excrete more of to stay alive
salt. Some marine birds have specialized salt excretion glands, marine mammals piss out a lot more salt
39
Insulin promotes conversion of what into what for short term energy storage
Glucose into glycogen. Energy stored in fat
40
Glucagon converts what into what for ready energy
Glycogen from fat into glucose
41
Name the phase of hunger: Evoked by sensory stimuli associated with food (eg smells). Insulin is released, salivation occurs, stomach contracts
Cephalic. Smell or think of good food, body prepares for the consumption of food and glucose
42
What phase of hunger is affected by classical conditioning
Cephalic
43
In what phase of hunger are gut hormones released, leading to further insulin release after the cephalic phase
digestive phase. Stimulated by stomach distention from food entering digestive tract
44
in what phase of hunger does glucose enter the bloodstream? this phase also has glucodetectors in the liver signal the pancreas to release insulin
Absorptive phase. the glucodetectors also initiate afferent signals through the vagus nerve to the nucleus of the solitary tract, relaying to the hypothalamus a signal that you have food in your body being absorbed
45
What does the removal of the ventromedial hypothalamus do?
Increases the set point for weight
46
What does the removal of the Lateral hypothalamus do?
Decreases the set point for weight
47
Four hormones that directly influence hypothalamus for appetite
Leptin, as fat cells increase, so does leptin release
| Insulin, ghrelin, pyy3-36
48
The stomach produces what when you are hungry
Ghrelin
49
Leptin stimulates what and inhibits what? making you not eat
POMC/CART. inhibits NPY/AgRP neurons
50
What increases CART? What is CART?
Cocaine and amphetamine related transcript. Appetite suppressant. Leptin increases CART
51
Appetite suppressants
POMC/CART
52
Appetite stimulators
NPY/AgRP
53
AgRP
Agouti Related Peptide. Appetite stimulant, marijuana stimulates this
54
What decreases AgRP, making you not eat
Pyy3-36, insulin
55
Insulin inhibits what for appetite
AgRP neurons. Inhibition of agrp makes you not eat
56
pyy3-36 inhibits what for appetite
AgRP neurons. Inhibition of AgRp makes you not eat
57
Ghrelin stimulates what, increasing appetite
AgRP neurons
58
Gut floura function
Bacteria group in stomach can bypass brain signals by release of ghrelin to tell you that you are hungry
59
T or F you can change brain function to control set points in the body
T. Fat lady got the brain surgery
60
what would happen if you gave leptin to a mouse lacking db/db leptin receptors
NOTHING. some cases of human obesity involve db mutations
61
what would happen if you gave leptin to a mouse that could not produce leptin
it would get skinnier
62
Why does metabolism make it so hard to lose weight with just diet changes
Metabolism adjusts to caloric intake. Will lower with lower caloric intake
63
Why does liposuction tend to only be a temporary fix
You will gain the weight right back because your set point for weight is still at a higher level
64
No single structure is responsible for set point, positive or negative feedback T or F
T
65
Redundancy and interaction in a distributed system are key for homeostasis T or F
T
66
More powerful homeostatic control enables a wider niche (eg Endothermic regulation) T or F
T
67
The functions accomplished by homeostatic regulation are co-served by evolutionary niche adaptations T or F
T
68
in hypothalamus above optic chiasm. A major regulator of internal clock. Very active during light hours
Suprachiasmatic nucleus SCN
69
T or F after removal from the brain, neurons in the suprachiasmatic nucleus cease following circadian cycle
F. Continues to match 24 hour cycle
70
If a rat with an SCN lesion received a functioning SCN from a donor rat, what would happen?
The rat would display the circadian rhythm of the donor rat. The host always adopts the donor cycle, even if the cycle were abnormal (20 hour free run instead of 24)
71
Entraining
Keep something on a schedule
72
What entrains the SCN via the retinohypothalamic tract (EVEN IN BLIND ORGANISMS)?
light. If no light cues are present, other cyclic events such as regular feeding time may entrain scn
73
Zeitgeber
"timegiver" external cues that happen at the same time every day to entrain circadian rhythm
74
Melanopsin containing ganglion cells are the beginning of what?
retinohypothalamic tract that entrains circadian rhythms of SCN
75
Retinohypothalamic tract fibers originate as _______ containing ganglion cells
melanopsin
76
T or F the SCN cannot be entrained by melanopsin-containing retinal ganglion cells in mutant mice lacking rods and cones
F. Can still entrain SCN w/o rods or cones
77
What NT sets off the 24 hr per and cry gene formation cycle in the SCN
Glutamate from melanopsin containing ganglion cells
78
Genes involved in negative feedback loop in SCN causing circadian rhythm
per and cry
79
T or F once the SCN is entrained, it will stick with that cycle possibly forever until something else disrupts it
T
80
T or F, the SCN is typically just in charge of sleep
F. Many targets. controls a bunch of circadian rhythms. Goes to dorsal medial thalamus and causes release of a bunch of hormones. Scn keeps a bunch of homeostatic processes on a circadian cycle
81
T or F. Determining the meaning behind sleep waves requires insight into their amplitudes
F. Frequencies are important to study, not amplitudes
82
Indication in EEG that the brain is acting synchroniously during sleep
delta wave during stage 3 and stage 4 sleep
83
T or F. Dreams only occur in REM sleep
F
84
What stage of sleep has alpha rhythms
Stage 1
85
What stage(s) of sleep has delta waves
3 and 4
86
What stage of sleep has sleep spindles and k complexes
stage 2
87
T or F as the night goes on, you have longer episodes of stage 4 sleep and shorter episodes of REM
F. the opposite
88
In what part of sleep do you tend to have one thought repeat itself over and over again
Non-rem
89
When does growth hormone secretion occur
Slow wave sleep
90
REM rebound
After sleep deprivation, you don't make up for every lost hour, but you do have a bunch of rem sleep
91
What type of sleep do infants have way more than usual?
REM sleep 50% of the time. sleeping gets more consistent throughout development
92
T or F learning and memory consolidation are not influenced by amt of sleep
F. Influenced heavily. less sleep, poorer performance on memory tasks
93
When white noise bursts are presented in sync with SWS oscillations, what happens?
Increases SWS and memory performance
94
When do night terrors occur?
SWS
95
Tetris effect
if you played tetris earlier in the day, you are more likely to dream about tetris later that night
96
Recording of brain patterns of rat doing a maze a bunch, then recordings of brain activity match those recordings during sleep. What might this be proof of?
dreaming in animals
97
4 measurements to tell if someone is in rem sleep
```
eye movement
EEG looks very similar to being awake
Lack of muscle tone
Inhibition of motor cortex through pons
wake them up and they remember their dreams pretty easily
```
98
T or F invertebrates such as fruit flies and crayfish do not exhibit REM, only SWS
T
99
What type of sleep don't dolphins experience and why
REM, need to keep muscle tone in order to surface for breathing. Some birds also do not experience rem sleep because they need to stay alert to avoid predators
100
Why is body size a major determinant for the amount of sleep a species gets?
the larger the animal, the less sleep it requires. Data suggest that one of the functions of sleep is to repair damage to brain cells. The higher metabolic rates of small animals lead to increased cellular injury and may, consequently, require more time for repair. Lions break this rule, specifically males. They don't do much so they don't stay awake
101
Why do carnivores not really follow the body size-sleep rule?
not very strong relationship in carnivores, but is very strong in herbivores. Herbivores that are small can hide from predators and sleep more. Big ones have to stay awake to avoid being eaten. Sleep is riskier for herbivores. If you sleep a lot as an herbivore, your food doesn’t really go anywhere
102
unihemispheric sleep characteristics and function
No REM. Present in all cetaceans (whales dolphins etc) and some birds lizards, species of seals and manatee. Right half of their brain will go into SWS for 50% of the sleeping time, left side for the other 50%. Need to maintain function in some of the brain so they can surface to breathe. Migratory birds that fly long periods do this so they can glide and rest
103
Functions of sleep?
Energy conservation use less when youre asleep. Body temp lower, metabolic activity lower
Niche adaptation. All animals have an ideal time to feed, hunt, avoid predators, do whatever (you’re either diurnal or nocturnal). Sleep allows you to live within the ecological niche that you are best at
Body restoration. Helps to maintain immune system, growth hormone only released at this time. Clean waste out of brain
Learning & memory consolidation
104
T or F the body and spinal cord do not seem to regulate sleep components
T
105
Forebrain promotes SWS or REM & wakefulness
SWS
106
Brainstem systems promote REM & wakefulness or SWS
REM and wakefulness
107
Neurons active at the onset of sleep in basal forebrain release what to where
GABA to TMN in hypothalamus, allows brain to sleep
108
Function of reticular formation in sleep/wakefulness
Arouses brain. If you lesion reticular formation you get permanent sleep.
109
What two areas of the brain battle over sleep and wakefulness
Reticular formation (wakefulness) basal forebrain (sleep)
110
Pons- specifically Locus Coeruleus- function in sleep
Locus Coeruleus sends projections to spinal cord that inhibit motor neurons promoting stillness during rem sleep. Also releases powerful inhibitory neurotransmitters gaba and glycine. Lesion pons -> no REM sleep
111
Are things that knock you out (anesthesia) GABA agonists or antagonists?
Agonists. Anesthetics produces an EEG similar to SWS
112
REM Behavior Disorder
Dreaming, but motor neurons were not inhibited. Different than sleepwalking. Here you just straight up act out dreams. lesion in Locus coeruleus. pons fails to inhibit motor neurons
113
Sleep paralysis can be attributed to what?
An overactive pons. Typically occurs during transition from REM to waking. Assoc w/ hallucinations because youre still sort of in REM
114
Not enough or no hypocretin neurons in hypothalamus means? Treatment?
Narcolepsy. Fall right into REM for like 30-50 min. Hypocretin usually keeps sleep at bay. Amphetamines during the day is normal treatment. amp you up as much as possible during the day
115
What happens during cataplexy
Sudden loss of muscle tone.Entering into REM sleep paralysis state out of the blue. Like in the middle of great emotional distress or high arousal. Collapse but remain aware and conscious during the whole thing
116
Total sleep deprivation in rats causes death within 10-20 days, in rats within 10 hours. What causes this?
Immune system suppression creates vulnerability to infection. Lose weight despite increased food intake
117
When during sleep deprivation do hallucinations tend to appear?
Around 1 week
118
Fatal familial insomnia 4 stages (7 to 18 months)
Increasing insomnia causing super anxiety
Hallucinations and panic attacks become very noticeable for about 5 months
Then Complete inability to sleep is followed by the rapid loss of weight, lasting for about 3 months
Then dementia- patient becomes unresponsive or mute. leads to death
119
T or F sleep apnea can lead to memory issues
T. Lose air flow to brain can kill neurons. Hippocampus dies off first
120
Possible cause of somnambulism (sleepwalking)
Activation of reticular formation but failure to discontinue SWS. Happens early in sleep
121
Kleine-Levin syndrome
Sleeping beauty
122
How to treat insomnia right now?
GABA Agonists like ambien are temporary. Best treatment is cognitive and behavioral therapy
123
Treating psychopathology alleviates sleep disorder and viceversa
boobs
124
People with depression REM more but also wake up more and do not achieve stage 3/4 very often
boobs
125
Trephination
Drilling a hole through the head to release an unhealthy spirit from the brain
126
Paralytic dementia diagnosis was actually what
old timey diagnosis in 1/4 of patients in mental hospitals. Sudden onset of delusions, grandiosity, poor judgment, impulsivity. Pupils did not constrict in response to light but did when focusing on objects. Was discovered that many patients sustained brain damage from syphilis
127
why is syphilitic psychosis important for neuroscience
First disease to inspire researchers to study other forms of mental disorders in hopes of finding treatments
128
Psychosurgery
uneducated use of surgical manipulation to treat severe mental illness. frontal lobotomy was at the head of this wave
129
Walter Freeman –
American psychiatrist that performed and aggressively advocated the prefrontal lobotomy; he probably deserves much of the blame for its overuse
130
Cingulotomy
1970s- lesion pathways to cingulate cortex; used to treat depression/anxiety
~1/3 of severely OCD patients benefitted from this procedure
131
Capsulotomy
discrete lesions in anterior part of internal capsule (white matter projections underlying cortex)
Long lasting benefits in some cases of severe anxiety
132
what is Deep Brain Stimulation DBS used to treat. in what portions of the brain
treatment of severe depression; involves stimulating ventral portion of medial prefrontal cortex with a surgically implanted electrode
-DBS has also been used to treat Tourette’s syndrome (i.e., heightened sensitivity to sensory stimuli that is accompanied by the urge to emit verbal tics); via stimulation of caudate nucleus
133
Neurosurgeries are a last resort
boobs
134
What do major depressive illness, reactive depression, anxiety disorders, and PTSD have in common?
Stress related mental illnesses. Substantial degree of comorbidity (overlap between these disorders)
135
Extreme feelings of sadness and helplessness every day for weeks on end MDD
```
Major depressive disorder
Core symptoms
Dysphoria: increased negative affect
Anhedonia: decreased positive affect
Additional symptoms
Weight/appetite loss/gain
Insomnia/hypersomnia
Psychomotor agitation/retardation
Fatigue
Worthlessness/guilt
Diminished ability to think/concentrate, indecisiveness
Suicidality
```
136
Dysphoria
Increased negative affect MDD symptom
137
Anhedonia
Decreased positive affect MDD symptom
138
T or F the absence of happiness is a more reliable symptom than increased sadness in diagnosing depression
T
139
```
Treatment of depression: match the percentages of folks that respond to the corresponding treatments.
50, 30, 50
Taking antidepressants
Undergoing therapy
Taking placebos
```
50% of people taking antidepressants get better
50% of people undergoing therapy get better
30% of people taking placebos get better
140
What do Monoamine Oxidase inhibitors do and what do they treat
Treat depression by blocking the enzyme MAO which breaks down monoamine (Dopamine, Norepi, 5-HT) transmitters into active metabolites. Causes increased release of monoamine nts
141
Monoamine hypothesis of depression
Depression is caused by low 5-HT and NE nt activity
142
treatment of depression that Blocks transporter proteins that reabsorb 5-HT, NE, and DA back into presynaptic terminal
Effect is lingering increases in NT levels in synaptic cleft
Results in increased stimulation of postsynaptic neurons
Tricyclics.
Side effects:
Blocks histamine receptors: drowsiness
Blocks acetylcholine receptors: dry mouth, difficulty urinating (muscle problems), decreased sex drive
Blocks peripheral sodium channels: heart irregularities
143
What drug blocks 5-HT reuptake? treatment of depression
SSRIs. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. The term “selective” derives from the fact that these drugs are more preferential to 5HT than other monoamine transporters (although not entirely exclusive)
Hence one gets the benefits from the tricyclic drugs minus a number of their side effects
However, milder side effects remain
144
Bupropion. class of antidepressant and function
Atypical antidepressant. Inhibits reuptake of DA and NE but not 5-HT.
145
ECT and use
Electroconvulsive therapy first used to treat schizophrenia; similar to lobotomies, it made patients temporarily more docile and calm
Nowadays, ECT is only used to relieve depression, and is only done on severe cases where patient is suicidal
146
Deep brain stimulation DBS
Involves implanting an electrode in the prefrontal cortex and giving mild stimulation. Only used in patients with intractable depression
147
Causes of depression
dysfunction of the brain serotonergic system
Other possibilities (not mutually exclusive to 5HT):
-genetic component/ 5-HT
-stress
-low BDNF
-Hippocampal neurogenesis
148
short form of 5-HT-TLPR (serotonin transporter-linked polymorphic region) gene is correlated with what mental illnesses
MDD, anxiety, PTSD
149
People with high levels of circulating cortisol are prone to what mental illness. What brain structure is in charge of this
Depression. Hypothalamus
150
Dexamethasone function
injection causes suppression of cortisol. In depressed patients, it only mildly blocks cortisol rather than turning off the cortisol circadian rhythm like normal
151
BDNF and depression
antidepressant treatments prompt axons to release BDNF. aids in neuron growth, guidance, and synapse formation during cortical development, but is also important for plasticity and learning during adulthood
BDNF may therefore promote synaptic growth and/or maintenance in limbic and cortical structures
152
T or F hippocampal volume volume is reduced in patients with MDD and may be related to low levels of neurogenesis
T
153
prenatal and neonatal risk factors for SZ
Poor nutrition of mother during pregnancy
Premature birth
Low birth weight
Complications during delivery
Increased stress in mother early in pregnancy (famine, viral infection)
If the father has an old age at conception they are more likely to become schizophrenic
Season of birth effect: People born in winter are 5%-8% greater at risk
154
Gene DISC1 causes what?
Ventricular enlargement, maybe increase in possibility of schizophrenia
155
disorganization of the hippocampus and other pyramidal cells could potentially cause?
schizophrenia
156
t or f people with depression show hyperfrontality and people with schizophrenia show hypofrontality
T.
157
Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia
Idea that too much Dopamine somewhere in the brain causes schizophrenia.DA by-products are increased in periphery in SZ
Drugs that block DA reduce positive symptoms (less hallucinations)
Drugs that increase DA, or DA precursors, increase pos. symptoms
Post-mortem studies show increases in DA receptors in frontal cortex
Amphetamine psychosis looks like SZ, but can clear with drug removal
158
Drugs that block DA receptors, discovered in 1950s
Neuroleptics, antipsychotics
159
Drugs that block D2 receptors
Typical Antipsychotics
160
Atypical antipsychotics.
Block D2 but have other effects less well understood (prob some 5-HT receptor antagonist
161
Glutamate hypothesis of schizophrenia
Deficient activity at glutamate synapses in the frontal cortex accounting for SZ
162
Where is it that genes seem to have an effect on schizophrenia?
Major histocompatibility complexrepresent a family of genes known to be involved in the immune response to infection
163
C4 protein upregulation in SZ patients plays an important role in
Cortical synapse during development through interaction with microglia
164
Stimulus-> response learning
Respondent, Classical, Pavlovian conditioning
165
What type of learning/conditioning is specific to smooth muscles and glands/involuntary behaviors
Respondent, Classical, Pavlovian conditioning
166
Response->stimulus learning. Learning an association by behavioral response leading to a stimulus. (Pecking at a certain area gets you food, other areas do not. Behavior triggers stimulus
Operant, instrumental, skinnerian
167
What type of learning/conditioning is associated with skeletal muscles/voluntary action
Operant, instrumental, skinnerian
168
```
MATCH ACRONYM WITH EXAMPLE, SOME WILL BE USED TWICE:
Unconditioned Stimulus: US
Unconditioned Response: UR
Conditioned Stimulus: CS
Conditioned Response: CR
```
White lab coat
Food in mouth
salivation
Eye blink
Air puff
tone
White lab coat CS
Food in mouth US
salivation UR CR
Eye blink UR CR
Air puff US
tone CS
169
Eye blink pathway
Trigeminal nerve-trigeminal nucleus-. CEREBELLAR CORTEX AND INTERPOSITUS NUCLEUS OF CEREBELLUM are important because both are getting information about the air puff and the tone. Conditional learning is occurring in the cerebellum through convergence of information. Interpositus nucleus creates eye blink in response to tone
170
In eye blink conditioning convergence of information causes conditional learning where?
Cerebellum. Cerebellar cortex and interpositus nucleus do the learning by receiving info about tone and air puff, interpositus nucleus creates eye blink in response to tone
171
Importance of cerebellar cortex and interpositus nucleus of cerebellum in eyeblink conditioning
. CEREBELLAR CORTEX AND INTERPOSITUS NUCLEUS OF CEREBELLUM are important because both are getting information about the air puff and the tone. Conditional learning is occurring in the cerebellum through convergence of information. Interpositus nucleus creates eye blink in response to tone
172
What happens if the interpositus nucleus is lesioned
Only exhibit unconditioned response. no conditional learning occurs because the conditional pathway is severed. Reflex pathway remains
173
How is trace eye blink conditioning different from delay eye blink conditioning?
In trace, the conditioned stimulus occurs separately before the unconditioned stimulus occurs. This is more complicated learning because you need to store the information for longer, so we recruit our hippocampi to document the stimulus in order to remember the relationship
174
What would happen during trace eye blink conditioning if the hippocampus were lesioned?
only unconditioned response will occur
175
T or F in operant conditioning, consequences result after behaviors
T
176
What did thorndikes cat puzzle boxes illustrate?
Learning was occurring every trial, cats were learning to escape faster. If something works, were gonna keep doing it. If something doesn't work, were not gonna keep doing it
177
Law of Effect (Learning)
Variability of potential actions, some more successful than others
Only successful actions are retained in behavioral repertoire
Over time, behaviors become more successful and often more complex
178
T or F natural selection of successful behaviors (in learning) does not occur
F. In relation to the law of effect, successful organisms are naturally selected, successful synapses and neurons are naturally selected, and successful behaviors are naturally selected
179
Behavior is a function of its consequences
A behavior is modified by the consequences of the behavior
180
A rabbit is presented two tones. After one tone, it is always shocked on the bottom of its feet five seconds later. It runs to avoid the shock. Eventually, rabbit will run less than five seconds after the tone to avoid the shock. When a different tone is played, the rabbit does nothing. What is this an example of
Discriminative avoidance learning.
181
What brain structures are involved in discriminative avoidance learning (operant) and not classical conditioning
Thalamus and cingulate
182
What type of learning do you need the cerebellum for?
Classical conditioning
183
What type of learning do you need the thalamus for?
Operant conditioning
184
Playing a tone preceding the giving of water to a rat, inducing learning of the rat to approach the water source after every time the tone plays expecting water. The rat does not respond to other tones, because they don't do anything. What is this an example of
Discriminative appetitive learning
185
What brain pathway do we directly stimulate in rats to reinforce behavior
VTA/nucleus accumbens
186
These are Important for short term memory. Monkey has to remember where the food was in order to get the food. During cue period, frontal cortex is not doing much. During delay period, monkey is actively trying to remember, dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is going nuts trying to remember. they correspond to the memory period of the task. If this area is lesioned, they will just start guessing randomly where the food is. Untrained monkey won’t have this kind of activity. Doesn’t know it has to remember to get the food. Six different types of these important for each part of memory process
memory cells
187
Placed in a room, have to use spatial cues within the room to determine which hall the food is in. . What brain lesion would make this not work
hippocampus
188
Train rat to go to right. Door on right will always be correct response no matter where they are placed in the maze. Not a spatial memory, it is learning a habit/routine. Lesion of what would stop this
caudate nucleus. important for learning a routine
189
Object recognition memory is regulated by what?
extrastriate visual cortex
190
Type of long term memory- Can verbally tell somebody memory
Declarative
191
Type of long term memory- Procedural. Skill someone would have to practice. Cant just tell and the person will learn it.
Nondeclarative
192
Type of long term memory- memories of moments. Is this a branch of declarative or nondeclarative memory
Episodic, declarative
193
Type of long term memory- Facts. mostly in temporal lobe. theres a specific location in there for remembering names. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory
Semantic. Declarative
194
Type of long term memory- Motor/muscle memory. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory
Skill learning- nondeclarative
195
Type of long term memory- Exposure to a stimulus causes you to behave and think in relation to that stimulus. Think medically when you are in a doctors office. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory?
Priming (perceptual and conceptual). nondeclarative
196
Type of long term memory- Stimulus and behavioral learning. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory
Conditioning (simple and complex) nondeclarative
197
What part of the brain is episodic memory stored
cortex, perhaps especially in right frontal and temporal regions
198
What part of the brain is semantic memory stored
Cortex, perhaps especially in temporal lobes
199
What part of the brain is skill learning memory stored
basal ganglia, motor cortex, cerebellum
200
What part of the brain is affected by perceptual priming memory
reduces activity in bilateral occipito-temporal cortex
201
What part of the brain is affected by conceptual priming memory
Reduces activity in left frontal cortex
202
What part of the brain is simple conditioning memory stored in
cerebellar circuit
203
What part of the brain is complex conditioning memory stored in
hippocampus and cortex
204
Removal of what brain area/structure would cause inability to form new declarative memories (anterograde amnesia)
medial temporal lobe including hippocampus
205
T or F- In Alzheimer's, the cortex is just deteriorating first. Entire brain eventually deteriorates, causing motor issues later
T. memory is just the first to go. Retrograde and anterograde amnesia
206
How come monkeys with hippocampal lesions can still perform memory tasks?
May be relying on familiarity-based recognition strategies, which are supported by parahippocampal and rhinal cortices
207
How does flashbulb memory work? what is it?
If learning experience is emotional, it activates the basolateral amygdala and/or sympathetic nervous system Emotional experiences initiate hormone release from adrenal gland and norepinephrine release from amygdala which strengthen memory representations in other brain areas
9/11
208
T or F Cajal predicted that changes in levels of memory and learning occur at the level of the synapse
T
209
in what type of habituation is there no synaptic change
short term habituation. only less neurotransmitter from sensory neurons to motor neurons
210
In what type of habituation is there synaptic change
long term habituation- synapses are not as effective so they are lessened
211
Increase in synapse formation and activity in order to maximize focus on an important stimulus
long-term sensitization
212
A physiological change in response to stimulation, high rate of stimulation causes increase in postsynaptic potential for at least an hour
Long term potentiation
213
learn about ampa and nmda
boobs
214
What kind of attn is this- Focus coincides with sensory orientation, e.g., head orientation or saccade. Voluntary motor action. Overtly observable to someone who is watching
Overt attention
215
What kind of attn. is this- Focus directed independently of sensory orientation. (without any motor actions) (in class example, switch attn to one side of periphery and other
Covert attention
216
What attention type is reflexive
Exogenous attention. Something in environment that steals your attention. (siren goes off and you turn toward it. Unexpected stimulus in same place that target you are supposed to identify will be gives you faster reaction time in identifying the target (valid). If it pops up somewhere else, it will take you longer to locate the target and identify
217
What attention type is intentional/voluntary
Endogenous attention. Stimulus tells you to look somewhere so you voluntary choose to look there. Top down processing
218
Is exogenous or endogenous attention faster
Exogenous. Endogenous is consciously controlled, so slower.
219
Brain area- Neural activity associated with covert attention
TMS disrupts covert attention shifts. Also affects
Endogenous (voluntary) attention
IPS/SPL
Intraparietal sulcus, Superior parietal lobule
220
Brain area- Neural activity associated with overt attention (saccades)
lesion patients have difficulty ignoring distracters Also affects
Endogenous (voluntary) attention
Cant choose where they want to look, just look everywhere
FEF
Frontal eye field
221
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May be involved in detecting targets based on novelty (new or unexpected)
Affects exogenous (involuntary) attention
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VFC
Ventral frontal cortex
222
Neural activity associated with unexpected target onset
lesion patients have difficulty orienting toward unexpected targets
Affects exogenous (involuntary) attention
TPJ
Temporoparietal junction
223
Brain area where sensory information can be integrated to make a decision
prefrontal cortex
224
Lesion to dorsolateral frontal cortex causes
diminished judgment, planning, insight, and temporal organization. cognitive impersistence, motor programming deficits (like aphasia and apraxia), diminished self care
225
Orbitofrontal lesion to frontal cortex causes
Stimulus driven behavior, emotional liability, distractibility, no social insight- get really dirty and sexual on everyone. No social inhibition
226
Mediofrontal lesion to frontal cortex causes
apathy. don't care to do anything. just sit and pee your pants
