Exam 3: NR 414 Flashcards
(274 cards)
1
Q
This is a facial bone that articulates a joint instead of a suture
A
Mandible
2
Q
This is a blood vessel that runs diagnonally across the sternomastoid muscle
A
External jugular Vein
3
Q
This isthmus of the thyroid gland lies just below the
A
cricoid cartilage
4
Q
What can be a cause of cluster headaches
A
alcohol and daytime napping
5
Q
Shrugging the shoulders is a test of the status of which cranial nerve?
A
XI
6
Q
What should the fontanels feel like during examination
A
firm, slightly concave, and well defined
7
Q
If the thyroid gland is enlarged bilaterallly what maneuver is appropriate?
A
listen for a bruit over the thyroid lobes
8
Q
What are the characteristics of lymph nodes on a normal healthy person?
A
Mobile, Soft, Nontender
9
Q
What is cephalhematoma associated with
A
subperiosteal hemorrhage
10
Q
What size are normal cervical lymph nodes
A
smaller than 1 cm
11
Q
A throbbing, unilateral pain associated with nausea, vomiting and photophobia is a characteristic of:
A
migrain headache
12
Q
Lymph node in front of the ear
A
preauricular
13
Q
this is superficial to the mastoid process
A
posterior auricular
14
Q
at the base of the skull
A
occipital
15
Q
This is behind the tip of the mandible
A
Submental
16
Q
Halfway between the angle and the tip of the mandible
A
submandibular
17
Q
This is under the angle of the mandible
A
jugulodigastric
18
Q
This is overlying the sternomastoid muscle
A
superficial cervical
19
Q
Deep under the sternomastoid muscle
A
deep cervical
20
Q
The is the open space between the eyelids
A
palpebral fissure
21
Q
The cornial reflex is mediated by which cranial nerves
A
V & VII
22
Q
What retinal structures are viewed through the ophthalmoscope
A
- optic disc
- retinal vessels
- gen. background
- macula
23
Q
What is positive consensual light reflex
A
simultaneous constriction of the other pupil when one eye is exposed to bright light
24
Q
Aging causes thickening and yellowing of the lens, this is called…
A
senile cataract
25
What is considered an eye emergency
SUDDEN onsent of vision change
26
How is visual acuity assessed?
The Snellen Eye Chart
27
What is the cover test used for?
to test muscle weakness
28
How do you use the opthalmoscope
* remove your own glasses and approach the patients left w/ your left eye
29
The 6 muscles that control eye movement are innervated by which cranial nerves x3
1. III
2. IV
3. VI
30
A person with normal vision would see your moving finger temporally at
90 degrees
31
A person is known to be blind in the **left** eye. What happens to the pupils when the right eye is illuminated by a penlight beam?
**both** pupils constrict
32
While using the ophthalmoscope an interruption of the red reflex occurs when?
there is an *opacity* in the cornea or lens
33
In documentation of an eye examination what does PERRLA
Pupils
Equal
Round
React
Light
Accomodation
34
What causes the red reflex
light reflecting from the retina
35
What is the color of a normal tympanic membrane using an otoscope
pearly gray
36
What could sensorineural hearing loss related to?
gradual nerve degeneration
37
Prior to examining the ear, what should be palpated for tenderness
* pinna
* tragus
* mastoid process
38
For using an otoscope for a younger child, what is the methos
pull the pinna down
39
During the examination of holding the nose and swallowing what should the eardrum do
flutter
40
what is darwins tubercle
a congenital painless nodule at the helix
41
Where are the hearing receptors located
cochlea
42
The sensation of vertigo is the result of
pathology in the semicircular canals
43
What is a common cause of conductive hearing loss
impacted cerumen
44
What findings indicates infection of *acute purulent otitis media?*
* absent light reflex
* reddened drum
* bulging drum
45
A person has a yellow tympanic membrane, what could this indicate?
serum in the middle ear
46
What is one way to reduce risk for acute otitis media
smoking in the house and car
47
Examining a child's hearing (6months), what should the examiner watch for
head turning when saying the child's name
48
A patient with a head injury has clear watery drainage from the ear, what should the examiner asess for
presence of glucose in the drainage
49
What is the neocorte
more than halve in the brain, processing visual info
50
Eye protection
* palpabral fissure
* eye lids
* limbus
* canthus
* caruncle
51
Sebacous glands help with
tears, or lubrication
52
2 Types of Conjuctiva
1. palpebral- lines the lids
2. bulbar- overlays eyeball
53
Lacrimal Apparatus
helps control irrigation of the eye
54
Extraocular Muscles, how many?
* 6 of them
* attach to the eye ball
* causes eye ball to **move**
55
Why babies eyes don't move as much
muscles not developed
56
3 Cranial nerves that control eye
* *help w/ extra occular movement*
* 1) CN 3: Ocular Motor
* 2) CN 4: Trochlear
* 3) CN 6: Abdusins
57
3 Concentric coating of the eye
* *outer fibrous sclera*- cornea (reflex)
* *middle vascular choroid*- iris, pupil, lens, ant/pos chambers
* *inner nervous retina*- optic disc, retinal vessels, macula, fovea centralis
58
What is the pupil controlled by?
Parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systemt
59
Fight or flight pupil
dilate
60
Rest & Digest Pupil
constricts
61
What is the visual receptor of the inner eye
Retina (controller of light)
62
Pupillary Light Reflex is
* when pupils are exposed to light
* *Direct*- light directly in the eye
* *Consensual*- (indirect, other eye constricts too)
63
What is fixation in eye exam
the ability to follow and direct vision (follow my finger)
64
What is accomodation in eye exam
* ability to adapt to near vision
* looking far to looking near
* pupils constrict & converge (eyes are following)
65
What are some problems with accomodation
* squinting
66
EOM
extra occular muscle
67
Big problems with infants vision
* poorly coordinated EOM
* symmetry with eye muscles
* 80% are farsighted improves by 8 yrs
68
Aging adult eye problems
* *presbyopia*-
* *decreased visual acuity*
* *decreased night vision*
* *pupil size decreases*
* *cataracts*
69
Palpebral fissured cultural competency
* asian
* downsyndrome have smaller fissures
70
Dark vs light color eyes
* lighter the eyes increased sensitivity to light
71
Subj Data for eyes
* visual difficulty
* blind spots
* pain
* diplopia, strabismus
* redness
* watery discharge
* history of ocular probs
* glaucoma
* use glasses
* self care
72
What is strabismus?
cross eyed
73
Infants Subj Data
* Vaginal infection from the mother
* STIs from mother
* milestone deficits w/ vision
* routine eye exam at school?
* parents aware with safety
* sharp objects
74
Adult Subj Data Eye
* last test for glaucoma
* history of cataracts
* burning dryness
* decrease in usual activities (reading/sewing)
75
Obj Data Eyes
* position
* snellen eye chart
* handhel visual screener
* opaque card
* pen light
* applicator stick
* opthalmascope
76
What is the Snellen Chart, (20/20)
* 20 ft away, what typical person can see from 20 ft away
* Test it with their glasses ON
77
How do you know they met the requirements of the Snellen Chart
can read more than 50% of the row
78
How do you test near vision?
* Read a magazine/newspaper
* Jaeger card
* handheld vision screener
* norm is 14/14
79
What is the confrontation test
* compare persons's peripheral vision with yours
* Gross meausre of peripheral vision
* make sure you put your finger somewhere you can BOTH see
80
OD (eye)
dominant (right)
81
OS (eye)
*left* sinister
82
OU
unite- both eyes
83
How do you inspect Extraocular Muscle Function
1. *Corneal Light Reflex, "Hischberg*"- symmetrical light reflects
2. *Diagnostic positions test*- cardinal directions, go clockwise
3. *Cover Test*- cover one eye with paper, no deviation
84
What is an eye test used when intoxicated?
diagnostic test,
85
Nystagmus
eye twitching, when they're drunk
86
How do you inspect external ocular structures
* external to inward
* eyebrows
* eyelids and eye lashes
* eyeballs
* conjuctiva and sclera
* lacrimal apparatus
87
What is Arcus Senilis
* gray white arc around cornea, due to lipid deposits.
* seen in older adults
88
Anisocoria
unequal pupil size
89
How do you inspect ocular fundus
* Internal surface of retina
* Use Ophtalmoscope
* Red reflex
90
Developmental Competency w/ visoscreening tests
* *E Chart*
* *Picture chart*, 3-6 yrs
* *Color Vision* only affects Boys, red/green most common
* *Ischihara plates*
* *must catch EOM before 6 yrs*
91
Aging Adult Competence
* visual acuity
* color vision
* ocular structure may appear sunken
* tear production decrease
* cornea may look cloudy
* pupils can be smaller
92
Abnormal Findings in the Eye
* *Strabismus*
* *Esotropia* (inward turning of eye)
* *Exotropia*
* *Paralysis*
* *Periorbital Edema*
* *Exophtalmos*, protruding eye
* *Enopthalmus*
* *Ectroption*, rolling out
* *Entropion*, rolling in
93
What causes Exophtalmos
* bulging eyes
* people with thyroid problems
94
What is miosis
constricted and fixed pupils
95
What is mydriasis
dilated and fixed pupils
96
What is the sensory organ for hearing
ear
97
External Ear Structure
* Auricle or Pinna
* External Auditory Canal (kids more narrow, adult s curve)
* Tympanic membrane (ear drum)
* separates middle and external
98
Eustachian tubes
* allows passage of air
* goes into middle air
* helps with pressure
* tympanic membrane could burst
99
Structure of Middle Ear
* Malleus, incus, stapes
* eustachian tube
100
Functions of Middle Ear
* Sounds vibrations from out to in
* helps with air pressure
101
Inner Ear Structure
* Vestibule and semicircul canals
* cochlea
102
3 levels of Auditory System
* Peripheral- sound waves become electrical impulses
* Brainstem- locates & identifies sound
* cerebral cortex- interprets meaning
103
What are the 2 pathways of hearing
* *Air conduction*, used more often
* *Bone conduction*, vibration of sound, like being under water, ear infection
104
Anything obstruction transmission of sound impairs hearing
hearing loss
105
involves a mechanical dysfunction of external or middle ear
conductive
106
pathology of inner ear, cranial nerve VII or audiotory areas
sensorineural
107
This is degeneration of auditory nerve
presbycusis
108
Mixed hearling loss
combination of conductive and senroineural types in same ear
109
Equilibrium for hearing
vertigo
110
What are problems for adults ears
* more likley to have ceremun (more ear wax)
* conductive hearing loss (cerumen gets dry/clogged)
* presbycusis
111
Otitis Media
Obstruction of eustachian tube or passage of nasopharyngeal secretions middle ear. VERY COMMON
112
How is cerumen determined
* Genetically
* different from person to person
113
Subj Data for Ears
* Infections earaches
* discharge, odor?
* hearing loss
* environmental noise (live concerts)
* tinnitus, ringing of the ear
* vertigo
* self-care behavior- qtips
114
What is vertigo
a sensation of whirling and loss of balance, associated particularly with looking down from a great height, or caused by disease affecting the inner ear or the vestibular nerve; giddiness.
115
Infant Children Subj Data Hearing
* ear infections
* anyone smoke in household
* childcare outside the home
* meeting childhood hearing milestones
116
Obj Data for Ears
* Inspect Palpate
* Size/Shape
* Skin Condition
* Tenderness
* External Auditory meatus
117
Normal size of ear
4-10 cm
118
Microtia
small ears
119
Otoscope Examination
* Tympanic Membrane
* shiny, translucent, pearly gray
120
Light Reflex for the Ears
* Anterior/Inferior Quadrant
* 5'oclock for right
* 7'oclock for left
121
How do you test hearing acuity
* *conversational*
* *whispered voice test* (3 random #s & letters, both sides)
* *tuning fork tests*
* weber, feel vibration hear sound
* rinne
122
If they have conductive/sensory hearing loss is it bilateral?
not necessarily
123
What is vestibular appartus help with?
* balance
124
Developmental obj data for infants and children EARS
* external alignment is 10 degrees
* otoscopic exam
* hearing acuity, moro or startle reflex, loud noise and blinking
125
Aging Adult Obj data EARS
* pendulous ear lobe
* ear drum may be wider
* more opaque
* high tone frequency loss
* people are mumbling
126
4 Cranial Bones
* frontal
* occiptal
* parietal
* temporal
127
What are the sutures
immovable bones that join the bones
128
Facial muscles
* expressions
* CN 7
* symmetrical
129
CN 7
**forming** of facial expressions
130
Pain and Sensation nerve
Trigeminal
131
What are the 3 main sailivary gland
parotid, submandibular, sublingual
132
Where is the temporal artery
palpable anterior to the ear
133
what is the function of the neck
a conduit
134
2 major neck muscles
trapezius, sternomastoid
135
They is an extensive vessel system, with major part of immune system
lymphatic system
136
Practice feeling for lymph nodes
137
Nodes and Glands are not the same
138
Drainage patterns of lymph nodes
proximal to where node is because lymph node may be swollen. Coming from somewhere else having a problem.
139
Fontanels
* where sutures
* intersect,
* soft spots
* 2 of them
140
What happens to pregnant women to head
thyroid gland enlarges, b/c of hyperplasia of tissue
141
Aging adult face
skin sags
142
Subj Data Head
* headache
* head injury, consciousness
* dizziness
* neck pain, limit of motion
* lumps or swelling
* histor of head or neck surgery
143
What is a follow up question of lumps or swelling in neck
* have you been sick?
* difficulty swallowing
* smoking/drinking?
144
Cranial Nerve Mneumonic:
Oh Oh Oh To Touch and Feel Very Good Velvet Ah!
* Olfactory
* Optic
* Oculomotor
* Trochlear
* Trigeminal
* Abducens
* Facial
* Vestibulocochlear
* Glossopharyngeal
* Vagus
* Accessory
* Hypoglossal
145
Cranial Nerve Mnemonic: Sensory, Motor, or Both
1.Some 2.Say 3.Marry 4.Money 5.But 6.My 7.Brother 8.Says 9.Bad 10.Business 11.Marry 12.Money
146
The pharmacist states that the patient’s biotransformation of a drug was altered.
metabolism has affected the drug.
147
The nurse recognizes that the administration of a drug influences cell physiology. What is the term for this concept?
Pharmacodynamics
148
the study of what the body does to the drug
Pharmacokinetics
149
he nurse realizes that a drug administered by which route will require the most immediate evaluation of therapeutic effect?
intravenous
150
The nurse administers 650 mg of aspirin at 7 PM. The drug has a half-life of 3 hours. The nurse interprets this information to mean that 325 mg of the medication will have been eliminated from the patient’s system by what time?
10 pm
151
What is the half-life (t½) of a drug
the time it takes for one-half of the drug concentration to be eliminated
152
What organ is responsible for the majority of drug excretion
kidneys
153
If excretion is impaired what risks are there for medication?
toxicity
154
What type of food decreases the absorption rate of enteric coated medications?
high fat
155
Which factors will influence the absorption of oral medications?
1. presence of food in the stomach
2. pH of the stomach
3. form of drug preparation
4. pain
156
Schedule I Drug
high abuse, no current medical use
157
Schedule II Drug
potential for abuse both physiological and psychological. Ritalin
158
Schedule III Drug
moderate or low physical dependence.
159
Causes platelet dysfunction and inhibits prostaglandin mediated mucus production of the gastric mucosal
Aspirin
160
has an antagonistic effect with warfarin and will inhibit its effects.
Vitamin K
161
has been known to produce a reddish-brown skin tone as one of its side effects.
Pyrazinamide
162
increases the risk of bleeding and should not be taken before surgery.
Dong quai
163
reportedly decrease high cholesterol and may help a patient with a cardiac history
Garlic
164
herbal supplement used to help patients diagnosed with dementia
gingko
165
herbal supplement that helps decrease the risk of vomiting in nausea.
Ginger
166
This herbal supplement has been shown to produce anxiety, headache, and gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to produce muscle aches, insomnia, or dry eyes.
Valerian
167
herbal supplement known to produce hypotension
hawthorn
168
Herbal supplement known to produce both flatulence and heartburn.
Garlic
169
The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a newly diagnosed adult male patient with hypertension. The patient has many questions about his diagnosis and medication. Which nursing diagnosis would be the most appropriate for this patient?
Risk for ineffective therapeutic regimen management related to new diagnosis
170
The nurse is preparing to teach a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus how to inject insulin. Which principle(s) will the nurse include when providing patient teaching?
1. family or friend in teaching process
2. simple written materials individual for patient needs
3. Contact information how to reach healthcare provider
171
The nurse is uncertain regarding directions for preparing a medication. For clarification, who should the nurse contact?
that facility pharmacy
172
How many agents are available for individual drugs?
30,000
173
What is the most frequent malpractice claim against hospitals?
* Medication error
* usually a systems error
174
What are the rules for writing out a medication?
Do not use abbreviations
175
Nurses rights
* have policies that guide safe drug admin
* identify sys problems
* access to info
176
Additions rights for med administration
right assessment, ed, evalutation, right to refuse
177
Factors that modfiy drug response
* Absorption, metabolism, excretion
* age, body weight
* genetics
* route, time
* emotional factors
* pre-existing disease, drug history
* tolerance
178
Pregnancy Categories
* *Category A-Y*
* A= no risk
* C= risk for animals, not known for humans
* D= outweigh benefit vs risk
* X=Accutane
179
Who guides the drug approval process?
* Federal Legislation
* protect the public
* costly process
180
Stages of Approval for FDA
* *Preclinical Investigation*- lab research, animal testing
* *Clinical*- healthy volunteers(I), select groups w/ disease (II)
* *Release for general Use* (IV), survey harmful effects
181
What makes pediatric pharmacology difficult
* have not been tests
* not approved by the FDA
* hard to get a good sample size
* smaller profit margin
182
Limitations of Clinical Trials
* women might be pregnant?
* little drug testing done in women
* failure to detect adverse effects
* effects take a long time to develop
183
Controlled Substances
* has to have a DEA #
* Act
* Defines categories, Schedule I,II, III
184
Drug Names
* Chemcial (composition)
* Generic (acetominophine)
* Trade/Brande (Tylenol)
185
How long does it take to get a patent
* 17 years for generic
* Considered equivalent if serum concentration w/in 80% and 125% of the brand drug
186
Dietary supplement act requires
clear labeling
187
3 Phases of Drug Action
* *Pharmacoceutic*- oral meds, has to dissolve
* *Pharmacokinetic*- absorption, distribution (blood brain barrier), metabolism, excretion
* *Pharmacodynamic*- effects on the body. Primary/Secondary
188
What is the enteric coating for?
less GI upset, absorbs directly in small intestine
189
3 ways to cross cell membrane
1. pass thru channels
2. pass with the aid of transport sys
3. direct penetration of membrane
190
lipid soluble drugs can
directly penetrate membranes
191
What do water soluble drugs need?
a carrier to get across the cell membrane
192
What is the charge (electrical) of a drug dependent on?
pH
193
What percent is bioavailable for *oral* drugs
Always less than 100%. Needs to be 3-5x larger than IV dose
194
Factors that affect absorption
* good blood flow
* IV arleady there
* subq- less blood flow
* recta, and sublingual fast
* if they're exercising, decrease absorption
195
DRugs that can be destroyed by digestive sys
insuline
196
What is sutained release prep
tablet or capsules filled in tiny sphere that contain the drugs. Coatings that dissovle at variable rates
197
What happens after absorption
* distribution
198
what is the first pass effect
* must pass first thru the liver via the portal vein
* warafin, morphine
* liver disease (higher than expected level)
199
How does abscess and solid tumors affect distribution
no blood supply to inner mass of an abscess. No supply to the core of the tumor
200
What does a drug need to be distributed
a protein binder
201
What drug is not bound
free drug
202
What happens as the free drug is metabolized/excreted?
the protein bound drug is released into the blood stream
203
What percent of the drugs is active (free)
5%
| (95% is binding)
204
Decreased albumin level is expected with
elderly, newborns, liver disease, malnutrition
205
Anatomical Barriers for distribution
* blood brain barier
* brain and placenta
* fetal-placental
206
What is another name for metabolism
biotransformation
207
Where does biotransformation occur
* liver- cytochrome P450 enzymes
* a *group* of enzymes responsible for drug metabolism
208
When drugs are metabolizes the effect are:
* drug inactivation
* accelerated renal excretion of drugs
* increases therapeutic action
* activation of pro drugs
* increased toxicity
209
How are drugs inactives
liver
210
can kidneys excrete lipid soluble drugs
no
211
what happens when drugs are transformed into active metabolites
increased phamacologic response
212
Steps in Renal Drug Excretion
1. Glomerular Filtration
2. Passive Tubular Reabsorption
3. Active Tubular Secretion
213
Understand half life
214
If patient has altered kidney or liver function?
reduce dose
215
Side Effect Characteristisc
* Predictable= secondary, benadryl drowzy
* Toxic: overdose
* idiosyncratic- unpredictable
* allergic-immune response
216
Common Allergic Sympzoms
* Urticaria- hives
* Eczema- rash
* Prurits
* Rhinitis
* Wheezing
217
Onset of Action
how long does it take to kick in
218
Where do you want your onset to be?
where it works but not toxic for as long as possible
219
What is the lock and key theory
drug attaches to its receptor in a specific manner
220
What is the thearapeutic index/Range/Window
* margin of safety of a drug
* you want a **wide** window- when its effective to when its toxic
221
Peak levels
highest plasma concentration. Blood sample is draw at peak time
222
Trough level
* lowest plasma concetration
* blood is drawn *before* the next dose
223
What happens if peak is too high
patient becomes toxic
224
If the trough level is too low
the patient is not getting a constant therapeutic level of the drug
225
What can happen with drug interaction
* additive
* synergistic
* or antagonistic
226
Drug interaction related to metabolism
* toxicity is likely
227
MAO inhibitor should not be taken with
tyramine rich foods
228
What fruit can affect metabolism of certain drugs
grapefruit juice, can last up to 3 days after last glass
229
more than 90% of all ilness are treated with
Over the counter medications
230
What is a concern for herbal supplements?
* very little testing
* multi-billion dollar industry
231
Which adipose fat is worse?
* *the kind that covers the organs*
* caused by stress
232
Solid viscera organs
* fud, deeper tone
* pancreas,
* adrenal glands,
* stomach,
* spleen,
* kidneys,
* ovaries,
* uterus
233
Hollow viscera organs
* tympanic sound
* stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, colon, bladder
234
Where does kidney sit in reference to each other
left kidneys is higher than right
235
What are the 4 quadrants
RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, LLQ
236
RUQ Organs
237
LUQ Organs
238
RLQ Organs
239
LLQ Organs
240
What are women more susceptible for Gi wise?
appendicitis
241
What are gallstones?
* more common as we age
* hard crystalline mass formed abnormally in the gallbladder or bile ducts from bile pigments, cholesterol, and calcium salts. Gallstones can cause severe pain and blockage of the bile duct.
242
Subjective Data GI
* appetite
* dsyphagia
* food intolerance
* ab pain
* nausea/vomiting
* bowel habits
* pas ab history
* medication
* nutritional assessment
243
adolescents subjective data GI
* what do you eat at regular meals?
* Breakfast?
* Wha do you eat for snack
* Excercise Pattern
* Weight management
244
Subj Data for Older Adults GI
* How do you acquire your groceries
245
What do you palpate last during phys examination of abdomen?
painful areas last
246
Inspection of abdomen
* symmetry
* flat vs rounded vs protruded
* umbilicus (inny, outy?)
* scars
* color, striae
* pulsation or movement
* hair distribution
* demeanor
247
248
Know bowel sounds
start at RLQ, listen for 5 minutes
249
Should you hear anything in the abdomen?
no
250
Percussion of the abdomen
* general tympany
* liver span
* costovertebral angle
* Fluid waves
251
CVA Tenderness
* tests a UTI
* percussion of lower back
* hurts if you are infection
* kidney inflammation
252
Ascites Test
* Fluid waves
* dull thud sound
253
Where is the spleen usually felt
* around 9-11 Intercostal space
254
Where is a pap smear done
squamocolumnar junction
255
average age a women will start getting menopause
51.2 yrs
256
How long is pre-menopausal period
5-7 years
257
What happens when you no longer have estrogen
* breasts sag
* vaginal vault less moist
* vaginal pH becomes more alkaline
* decreased vaginal secretion
258
Lithotomy
position for getting a pelvic exam
259
Aging what to expect w/ vaginal vault
260
Prostate exam at what age
50-55
261
Scrotum what do you feal for
262
How does the Rugae feel
* on scrotal sac
* will have wrinkles
263
Male are more prone to this because of heavy lifting
hernia
264
When do testes discend in infants
not until their born. Should by 3-6 months of age.
265
What would be a concern for infants if testes did not discend
heat
266
Tanner Stage
267
What health issue would lead to sexual expression later in life
cardiac
268
dysuria
pain when peeing
269
Men getting up in the middle of the night to pee
prostate
270
Should you retract the foreskin in an infant
NO
271
Rectal Exam for men DRE
Betwen 50-55
272
When placing a foley catheter how do you know you're in
when you see urine
273
Why would you need a foley in a patient
* Surgery
* Mobility
* Unresolved UTI
274
How soon should a person be able to void after catheter removal
4 - 6 hours
