Exam 3 review questionss Flashcards

1
Q

marine viruses play an important role in what cycle

A

the carbon cycle

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2
Q

what do all viruses contain

A

a capsid and a genome

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3
Q

viroids are _____ agents that affect _____

A

RNA; plants

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4
Q

the baltimore system classifies viruses based predominantly on what feature

A

their means of RNA synthesis

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5
Q

but for a few exceptions, when a bacterial cell is infected by a bacteriophage, the viral capsid…..

A

remains on the outside of the host cell

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6
Q

some bacterial viruses can insert their genome into the chromosome of the host cell. what is the integrated genome called

A

prophage

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7
Q

the primary factor determining the life cycle of an animal virus is the form of its____

A

gemone

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8
Q

in contrast to animal viruses and bacteriophages, plant viruses infect cells by mechanisms that do not involve specific

A

receptors

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9
Q

the period of time when virions are virtually undetectable inside the infected cell is called what

A

the eclipse period

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10
Q

bacteriopage lambda binds to the ____ that is embedded in the outer membrane of E. coli.

A

the maltose porin

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11
Q

the genome of influenza virus consists of ____

A

negative strand segmented RNA

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12
Q

flu pandemics are associated with reassortment of which viral genes

A

hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

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13
Q

what are the characteristics of HIV

A
  • it is an enveloped virus
  • it uses reverse transcriptase
  • it attaches to coreceptors
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14
Q

which virus has been used successfully in gene therapy

A

lentiviruses

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15
Q

what process is sensitive to extracellular DNases?

A

transformation

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16
Q

gene transfer from one bacterium to another by means of a bacteriophage is called _____, whereas _____ involves the transfer of DNA following cell-to cell contact

A

transduction; conjugation

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17
Q

pyrimidine dimers are caused by

A

UV light

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18
Q

error-proof repair pathways include:

A

-base excision repair
-photoreactivation
-nucleotide excision repair

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19
Q

the simplest transposable elements are

A

insertion sequences

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20
Q

phase variation of flagellar proteins in the salmonella enterica involves

A

DNA rearrangments

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21
Q

what is the phenotype of an E. coli strain with a mutation in the lac operator that prevents the lac repressor from binding? assume glucose is absent

A

transcription of the lac operon is very high

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22
Q

transcription initiation of the lac operon is enhanced when ______ interacts with RNA polymerase

A

cAMP receptor protein

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23
Q

attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control the transcription of operons that code for

A

amino acid biosynthesis

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24
Q

what processes are used to control sigma factors

A

-proteolysis
-anti-sigma factors
- anti-anti-sigma factors

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25
the lac operon, RNA polymerase binds to the _______ which is_______ the structural genes
promoter; upstream
26
some repressible operons are also regulated by attenuation. what is true regarding attenuation
-occurs after translation has started -involves synthesis of a leader peptide -loops form in the mRNA
27
a mutation to resistance to two antibiotics might occur at the rate of
10E-16
28
____ bind(s) to the target sequence in a PCR reaction
primiers
29
how does RNA- polymerase make mRNA
from DNA template
30
how does DNA polymerase make a molecule of DNA
from a DNA template
31
what does transposase do
insert DNA segments into DNA
32
true or false: a virion may or may not have an envelope
true
33
true or false: the Baltimore virus classification is based on how a virus makes dsRNA
true
34
true or false: a lysogenic bacterium can initiate the lytic cycle
true
35
true or false: a phage plaque is a zone of lysis
true
36
true or false: in bacterial replication, DnaA-ATP recognizes multiple sites on the bacterial chromosome
false
37
true or false: some bacterial DNA ligases use NQAD while some use ATP
false DNA ligases use NAD
38
true or false: ParM filaments segregate plasmids
true
39
true or false: the influenza receptor is a sialic acid glycoprotein
true
40
true or false: the influenza virus does not need a "cap"
false it steals cap from host mRNA
41
true or false: if a riboswitch ligan sequesters a ribosome binding site, transcription is prevented
false translation is prevented
42
true or false: ppGpp synthesis results in rRNA and tRNA synthesis
false
43
20. Gram-negative microbes are surrounded by two layers of __________, between which lies __________.
membrane; periplasmic space and peptidoglycan
44
21. In order to transfer, an F factor must have which of the following?
oriT and tra genes
45
22. Interrupted mating involves breaking __________ bridges using a blender.
conjugation
46
23. A derivative F plasmid that contains host DNA is called an:
F' plasmid
47
24. Agrobacterium can transfer DNA to __________ using its __________.
plants; Ti plasmid
48
25. The transfer of F factor in E. coli from one donor cell to a __________ cell results in two __________ cells.
recipient; donor
49
26. The difference between generalized and specialized transduction is
that in generalized transduction, any DNA can be moved, but with specialized transduction, only certain DNA near the phage site can be moved
50
27. Bacteria have developed a “Halt! Who goes there?” approach to gene exchange to prevent unrestricted incorporation of DNA into the cell. It is called __________ and __________.
restriction; modification
51
28. Large regions of sequence homology are required when recombining DNA molecules by __________ recombination.
general
52
29. Ames used his reversion test with Salmonella to screen compounds for:
mutagenicity
53
30. Which of the following forms of DNA repair is error-prone? a. base excision d. nucleotide excision b. methyl mismatch e. photoreactivation c. SOS repair
C
54
31. A(n) __________ phage may integrate its genome into that of the host cell.
temperate
55
32. .A spacer is a(n):
piece of phage DNA
56
33. What happens to the virus protein coat when a bacterial cell is infected?
It remains on the outside of the host cell.
57
34. When __________ interacts with RNA polymerase, it increases the rate of transcription initiation of the lac operon.
cAMP receptor protein
58
35. Which of the following is the favored carbon source of Escherichia coli?
glucose
59
36. What occurs when an inducer is added to a medium containing an organism with a metabolic pathway controlled by a repressor?
The inducer combines with the repressor and inactivates the repressor.
60
37. Transcriptional attenuation is a common regulatory strategy used to control many operons that code for what?
amino acid biosynthesis
61
38. You might say that the role of a leader sequence is to: (read carefully)
determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon
62
39. __________ RNAs bind to complementary sequences of target transcripts and may act to prevent translation and other effects.
Antisense
63
40. Which of the following is a second messenger that helps to regulate biofilm production.
cdiGMP
64
41. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) DNA polymerase — makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template B) RNA polymerase — makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template C) DNA ligase — joins segments of DNA D) transposase — insertion of DNA segments into DNA E) DNA gyrase — coils and twists DNA
B
65
42. Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order? 1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands; 2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis; 3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization. A) 1, 2, 3 B) 3, 2, 1 C) 1, 3, 2 D) 2; 1; 3 E) 3; 1; 2
C
66
43. what is pBR322
a plasmid vector
67
44. taq dna polymerase is
heat stable
68
45. primers are how many base pairs
20 base pairs
69
46. EcoR1 is a
restriction enzyme
70
47. what is used to make cDNA
reverse transcriptase
71
48. what covalently closes the plasmid vector after cutting and insertion of the “foreign” gene.
DNA ligase
72
49. The Ames test utilizes bacterial strains of what genus?______________
Salmonella
73
50-51. Mutagenicity is rated based upon the number of
reversions to the prototroph
74
52. The Ames test strains are deficient in ______________repair
DNA
75
53. The Ames test strains are _________________auxotrophs.
Histidine
76
54-55. In Figure (above), which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine- Requiring? In Table (above), what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2?
1) 4 and 8 2) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+
77
56. originate MAR plasmids _________
Transposition
78
57. Electroporation_________
transformation (natural or artificial)
79
58. Hfr (donor) ___________
Conjugation
80
59. spread of MAR plasmids __________
Conjugation
81
60. lysogeny __________
transduction
82
61. Calcium heat-shock _________
transformation (natural or artificial)
83
62. sex pilus _________
Conjugation
84
63. generalized or specialized ___________
transduction
85
64. cell-free DNA ___________
transformation (natural or artificial)
86
65. In the figure above, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and on then plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will
form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
87
66. true or false Bacteria are protected from their own restriction certain bases in the target sequence.
true
88
67. "rho" is a .......
bacterial transcription terminator protein