Exam 4 Flashcards

(111 cards)

1
Q

Which are regulatory proteins and which are small effector molecules?

A

Regulatory= activators and repressors
Small effector=inducers, inhibitors,corepressors

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2
Q

A repressor is a _____ that ______ transcription
A. Small effector, inhibits
B. Small effector, enhances
C. Regulatory protein, inhibits
D. Regulatory protein, enhances

A

C

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3
Q

Which of the following combinations would cause the rate of transcription to increase?
A. A repressor plus an inducer
B. A repressor plus a corepressor
C. An activator plus an inhibitor
D. None of the above

A

A

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4
Q

Which genes are under the control of lac promote

A

Lac Z
Lac Y
Lac A

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5
Q

Under what conditions is lac repressor bound to the lac operon?

A

When allolactose is not bound to the repressor

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6
Q

Transcription of lac operon results in how many different mRNA transcripts?

A

1

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7
Q

The active site of the lac repressor protein is composed of
A. The protein domain that binds to other lac repressors
B. The protein domain that binds to allolactose
C. A glucose binding domain
D. The protein domain that binds to DNA

A

D

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8
Q

Which of the following best describes regulation of the lac operon?
A. Inducible under negative and positive control
B. Repressible under negative and positive control

A

A

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9
Q

If a cell has a mutant lacY gene that produces a nonfunctional product, which statement is true?
A. The lac operon cannot be transcribed by RNA polymerase because of the lacY mutation
B. The lac operon cannot be induced because lactose cannot enter the cell
C. Expression of the lac operon is normal because lacY is not required to produce allolactose
D. The repressor cannot bind to the operator

A

B

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10
Q

A regulatory protein that binds to DNA and inhibits transcription

A

Repressor

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11
Q

A regulatory protein that increases rate of transcription

A

Activator

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12
Q

Small effector molecule that causes transcription to increase

A

Inducer

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13
Q

A group of two or more genes under transcriptional control of a single promoter

A

Operon

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14
Q

A sequence of bases that signals the beginning of transcription

A

Promoter

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15
Q

A sequence of bases that provides a binding site for repressor protein

A

Operator

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16
Q

If an E. coli cell is exposed to glucose, what happens?
A. cAMP levels are decreased which does not allow the CAP protein to bind to its regulatory region
B. cAMP levels are increased and transcription of lac operon is decreased due to lack of CAP protein binding to its regulatory region

A

A

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17
Q

The lac repressor binds to what site within the lac operon?

A

lacO

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18
Q

Which is not a part of the lac operon

A

lacI

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19
Q

The lac repressor is inactivated by what?

A

Allolactose

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20
Q

T or F
The lac repressor is active in the absence of lactose within the cell?

A

True

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21
Q

cAMP is low, CAP does not bind to the activator binding site and transcription is turned off when glucose is or isn’t present?

A

Is present

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22
Q

The lac repressor binds to what? And does what?

A

Binds to operator
Prevents transcription

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23
Q

Is transcription rate high or low when both glucose and lactose are present?

A

Very low

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24
Q

T or F
In absence of glucose, and in presence of lactose, allolactose binds to repressor, allowing RNA polymerase to carry on transcription

A

True

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25
T or F When both glucose and lactose are absent the highest rate of transcription occurs?
False
26
T or F The polycistronic mRNA is transcribed from the lac operon when lactose is present in the cell and glucose is not present at
True
27
Regulatory transcription factors can be modulated by A. The binding of small effector proteins B. Protein protein interactions C. Covalent modifications D. All of the above
D
28
What are two ways histone modifications may alter chromatin structure
Interactions between histones and DNA Binding of proteins to chromatin
29
Why is an NFR needed at core promoter for transcription to occur?
So transcription factors can recognize enhancers and pre initiation complex can form
30
Why is histone eviction needed for elongation phase?
Because RNA polymerase 2 can’t transcribe through nucleosomes
31
A chromatin remodeling complex may A. Change location of nucleosomes B. Evict histones from DNA C. Replace standard histones with histone variants D. All of the above
D
32
According to the histone code hypothesis, the pattern of histone modifications acts like a language that A. Influences chromatin structure B. Promotes transcriptional termination C. Inhibits elongation of RNA polymerase D. All of the above
A
33
Which of the following characteristics is typical of eukaryotic gene that can be transcribed A. core promoter is wrapped around a nucleosome B. Core promoter is found in nucleosome free region C. Terminator is wrapped around a nucleosome D. None of the above
B
34
Transcriptional activation of eukaryotic genes involves which of the following events? A. Changes in nucleosome location B. Change in histone composition C. Histone modifications D. All of the above
D
35
Which amino acids are acetylated in histones
Lysine
36
Activators bind to what type of DNA sequence?
Enhancers
37
Which of the following is not a common post-translational modification that occurs in histones? A. Acetylation B. Methylation C. Phosphorylation D. Glycosylation
D
38
Nucleosome-free regions A. Always contain an enhancer B. Are always only associated with genes that are being actively transcribed C. Are found flanking many actively transcribed genes in eukaryotes D. Always contain a transcriptional start site
C
39
What is the result when the core histones are acetylated via histone acetyltransferase A. DNA becomes less associated with the core B. DNA becomes more tightly associated with the core
A
40
The pattern of histone modification acts much like a language or code in specifying alterations in chromatin structure
Histone code hypothesis
41
Enzymes which acetylate the positively charged lysines with the core histone proteins
Histone acetylation
42
Enzyme which attatches a methyl group to the number 5 position of the cytosine base, forming 5-methylcytosine
DNA methylation
43
Proteins which bind methylated sequences
Methyl-CpG-binding proteins
44
The methylation of DNA that was previously unmethylated
De novo methylation
45
Hemimethylated DNA is recognized by DNA methyltransferase which makes it fully methylated
Maintenance methylation
46
Combinatorial control of transcription factors refers to the phenomenon that A. Transcription factors always combine with each other when regulating genes B. Small effector molecules and regulatory transcription factors are found in many different combinations C. Combination of many factors determines the expression of any given gene
C
47
Glucocorticoid hormones activate genes that are involved in which of the following processes? A. Synthesis of glucose B. Mobilization of days C. Breakdown of proteins D. All of the above
D
48
Glucocorticoids are _____ hormones secretes by _____ glands
Steroid Endocrine
49
Arrange the following in the proper order in which they occur during glucocorticoid hormone action 1. Binding of hormone to receptor 2. Release of HSP90 proteins 3. Entry of hormone into nucleus
1,2,3
50
In eukaryotes, methyl groups are added to the ____ residuals
Cytosine
51
The enzymes that add the methyl group are known as
DNA methyltransferases
52
Methylation usually results in the ____ of transcription
Inhibition
53
The residues that precedes the ____ genes are not typically methylated
Housekeeping
54
In DNA replication, the methylation pattern is ____
Heritable
55
The most common form of methylation is ____
Maintenance methylation
56
T or F Glucocorticoid response elements function as enhancers
True
57
T or F The glucocorticoid receptor is active as a dimer
True
58
T or F Frameshift mutations can be read in multiples of 3
False, only multiples of 1 and 2
59
If a mutation occurs in the somatic tissue, approximately how many gametes will carry the mutation?
None
60
Cells that give rise to gametes
Germ line cells
61
Mutation that can be passed onto offspring
Germ line mutation
62
All cells of the body excluding gametes or cells that can give rise to gametes
Somatic cells
63
An individual that has somatic regions that are genotypically different from each other
Genetic mosaic
64
The nucleic acid sequence in mRNA is determined by A. The order of amino acids in proteins B. Nucleotide sequence in DNA C. Nucleotide sequence in tRNA D. All of the above
B
65
If a gram shift mutation causes a stop codon to be inserted into the coding region of the DNA sequence, then… A. The resulting protein will be lengthened by one amino acid but will likely retain its original function B. The resulting protein will be shortened and is often nonfunctional C. The phenotype will change but not the genotype D. The resulting protein will not be affected
B
66
A nucleotide deletion in DNA replication… A. Causes one amino acid of the protein to be incorrect B. Has no effect on resulting protein C. Causes amino acid downstream from deletion to be incorrect D. Causes all of amino acids of protein to be incorrect
C
67
T or F The addition of a single nucleotide to the DNA sequence causes a frameshift mutation
True
68
T or F In a frameshift mutation all of the amino acids before the shift are changed
False
69
Effect of mutation May increase or decrease rate of transcription
Promoter
70
Effect of mutation May disrupt the ability of the gene to be properly regulated
Operator
71
Effect of mutation May alter the ability of mRNA to be translated or alter its stability
5’-UTR/ 3’-UTR
72
Effect of mutation May alter ability of pre-mRNA to be properly spliced
Splice site
73
A ____ is a change in a single base pair within the DNA
Point mutation
74
What features of this pedigree indicate autosomal recessive inheritance
Neither parent affected by disease but offspring is
75
What features of pedigree indicate autosomal dominant inheritance?
Both/ one parent affected by disease
76
What features of pedigree indicate X-linked recessive inheritance?
All affected individuals are male
77
A mutant gene that promotes cancer when it is over expressed is called A. A tumor suppressor gene B. An oncogene C. Both a and b
B
78
An unaffected couple has two children, one normal and one with CF. What is the probability that the normal child is a carrier?
2/3
79
A phenotypically normal individual with a sibling that has CF married a known carrier of the CF mutation. What’s probability their child will have CF?
1/6
80
A _____ is a normal cellular gene that through a _____ mutation becomes an oncogene
Proto-oncogene Gain of function
81
Mutated forms of the Rb protein A. Bind to E2F have no effect on cell division B. Bind to E2F thereby inhibiting cell division C. Do not bind to the E2F thereby promoting uncontrolled cell division D. Do not bind to E2F thereby inhibiting cell division
C
82
The protein ____ checks for damaged DNA thereby acting as quality control for the cell
p53
83
The term locus heterogeneity refers to disease that can be caused by mutations in _____
More than one gene
84
Locus heterogeneity may make it _____ to interpret pedigrees
More difficult
85
A loss of function mutation in what type of gene can lead to cancer?
Tumor suppressor
86
Silencing of tumor suppressor genes by DNA methylation in cancer is an example of what kind of change
Epigenetic
87
T or F The protein p21 keeps cyclin and cyclin-dependent kinase from binding to each other
True
88
What features of pedigree indicate x-linked dominant?
Only females exhibit trait since it’s lethal to males
89
T or F Methylation can inhibit the binding of activator proteins
True
90
How are operon different from regular genes?
Expression is done as a single unit
91
Encodes enzyme B-galatosidase (cleave galactose and glucose). Also converts small amount of lactose into allolactose
LacZ
92
Encodes lactose permease, the membrane protein required for active transport of lactose into cytoplasm of bacterium
LacY
93
Encodes galactoside transactelyate, an enzyme that covalently modify a lactose and prevents lactose analog buildup
LacA
94
Responsible for transcription of lacY, Z, A gene as a single unit
LacP (lac promoter)
95
Sequence of DNA that is recognized by activator protein CAP
CAP site
96
Sequence of bases that provides a binding site for repressor protein
LacO (operator site)
97
Encodes lac repressor and isn’t part of lac operon
LacL
98
Binds to repressor which prevents it from binding to operator site so RNA polymerase 2 can transcribe operon
Allolactose
99
What are the negative control mechanisms for gene regulation in bacteria
Repressor protein= (lacI) Effector molecule= allolactose
100
Positive control mechanism for gene regulation in bacteria
Activator protein= CAP effector molecule= cAMP
101
What if there is no lactose, is glucose? Rate of transcription? Effector molecule lactose and cAMP present?
Very low Lactose and cAMP not present
102
What if lactose and glucose present? Rate of transcription? Effector molecule lactose or cAMP present?
Low Lactose present, cAMP not
103
What if no lactose, no glucose? Rate of transcription? Are effector molecules lactose and cAMP present?
Very low Lactose not present cAMP present
104
What if lactose present, glucose not? Rate of transcription? Effector molecules lactose and cAMP present?
High transcription Both present
105
Does acetylation increase or decrease transcription?
Increade
106
Does methylation increase or decrease transcription?
Increase OR decrease
107
Does phosphorylation increase or decrease transcription?
Increase
108
Base substitutions where amino acid does change, can have huge affect on phenotype and cause serious diseases
Missense mutation (neutral mutation)
109
A change from one codon that specifies an amino acid to a stop codon which terminates translation earlier than normal
Nonsense mutation
110
Don’t alter amino acid sequence even though bar has changed
Silent mutation
111
Addition of deletion of number of nucleotides that is not divisible by 3
Frameshift mutation