Exam 4 Flashcards
(250 cards)
1
Q
What is the definition of hemostasis
A
Stopping bleeding
2
Q
What is the definition of coagulation
A
Blood changing from liquid to gel
3
Q
What are the functions of platelets
A
Hemostasis, release inflammatory mediators, and phagocytosis
4
Q
What is the first phase of hemostasis
A
Primary hemostasis
5
Q
What is involved w/ primary hemostasis
A
Platelets and von Willebrand factors (vWf)
6
Q
What produces von Willebrand factor
A
Endothelial cells
7
Q
What happens in primary hemostasis
A
When endothelial cells are injured they produce vWf that captures platelets to form a platelet plug at the site of the injury
8
Q
What is the second phase of hemostasis
A
Secondary hemostasis or coagulation
9
Q
What is involved in secondary hemostasis
A
Platelets, coagulation factors, and fibroblast
10
Q
What happens in secondary hemostasis
A
When endothelial injury occurs extrinsic/intrinsic coagulation cascades form cross linked fibrin at the site of the injury to stabilize the platelet plug to stop hemorrhage
11
Q
What is the time of relationship between primary and secondary hemostasis
A
Primary hemostasis occurs simultaneously w/ secondary hemostasis
12
Q
What is thrombin
A
A platelet activator
13
Q
What initiates the extrinsic coagulation cascade
A
Tissue factors produced by fibroblasts that is initiated by vascular injury
14
Q
What does the extrinsic coagulation cascade produce
A
Small amounts of thrombin
15
Q
What does the intrinsic coagulation cascade produce
A
thrombin burst
16
Q
What activates the intrinsic coagulation cascade
A
Thrombin on an activated platelet caused by subendothelial collagen exposure
17
Q
What does thrombin do to fibrinogen
A
Cleaves it into fibrin
18
Q
What is the does the extrinsic pathway include in it
A
Factor 7 and TF that eventually makes factor 10
19
Q
What is eventually turned into thrombin in the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways
A
Factor 10
20
Q
What is involved in the intrinsic coagulation cascade
A
Factor 11, factor 9, and factor 8 that are later converted into factor 10
21
Q
What is phase 3 of hemostasis
A
Fibrinolysis
22
Q
What is involved in fibrinolysis
A
Endothelial cells, plasminogen, and plasmin
23
Q
What happens in fibrinolysis
A
After secondary hemostasis occurs at the endothelial injury plasmin degrades the cross linked fibrin on the surface of the cells to dissolve the fibrin clot
24
Q
What does fibrinolysis prevent
A
A big clot that inhibits blood flow
25
What dissolves the fibrin clot in fibrinolysis
Plasmin
26
What does injured endothelial cells express/release
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
27
What does tPA do in fibrinolysis
Cleaves plasminogen into plasmin on fibrin
28
What is the life span of thrombocytes in dogs
5-7 days
29
What produce thrombopoietin
Hepatocytes, liver endothelial cells, renal tubular epithelial cells, and bone marrow stromal cells
30
What degrades thrombopoietin
Circulating platelets
31
What does thrombopoietin induce
Megakaryocytopoiesis
32
What occurs during megakaryocytopoiesis
Endomitotic cell division that results in polypoid nucleus
33
What is endomitotic cell division
DNA replication w/o cell division
34
Where does thrombopoiesis occur
In the red bone marrow
35
What occurs during thrombopoiesis
The mature megakaryocyte is sheared off by the flow of blood to form proplatelets which fragment further into platelets
36
What is a manual platelet estimate
On a stained blood smear w/ oil immersion in a good read area you count the platelets in 10 fields, find the average, and multiply the average by 15,000
37
What are non-activated platelets
Round, oval, or elongated, clear to pale blue cytoplasm, and may contain small pink to purple granules
38
What are activated platelets
Dendritic proccess on the platelet
39
What is thrombocytosis caused by
Corticosteroids, hyperadrenocorticisim, inflammatory disease processes, neoplasia, iron deficiency anemia, and drugs such as vincristine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine
40
What are the groups of causes of thrombocytopenia
Decreased production, increased use, increased destruction, and sequestration
41
What causes thrombocytopenia from a decrease in production
Viral infections such as canine distemper, neoplasia, chemotherapy, ehrlichia canis, inherited macrothrombocytopenia, and certain breeds
42
What breeds have a lower platelet count
Akitas, shiba inus, greyhounds, and other sighthound breeds
43
What breeds have inherited macrothrombocytopenia
Cavalier king charles spaniels, norfolk terriers, cairn terriers, labs, and poodles
44
What are causes for thrombocytopenia due to increase use
Trauma, anticoagulant rodenticide toxicosis, DIC, and severe sepsis
45
What are causes of thrombocytopenia due to increased destruction
Immune mediated disease, neoplasia, anaplasma platys, ehrlichia spp, methimazole, and sulfonamides
46
What are causes of thrombocytopenia from sequestration
Splenomegaly and endotoxemia involving the lungs, spleen, and or liver
47
What does thrombopathias mean
Abnormal platelet function
48
What are inherited thrombopathias
Canine thrombopathia (abnormal function) and glanzmann thrombasthenia (weak platelet)
49
What breeds are predisposed to canine thrombopathia
Basset hounds and spitz breeds
50
What are clinical signs of canine thrombopathia
Chronic mucosal bleeds, petechiae, aural hematomas, prolonged hemorrhage during estrus, shedding deciduous teeth, and after trauma/sx
51
What are breeds predisposed to glanzmann thrombasthenia
Autosomal recessive in otterhounds, great pyrenees, and quarter horse fillies
52
What are clinical signs of glanzmann thrombasthenia
Improper aggregation resulting in prolonged bleeding times and hematomas at venipuncture/injury sites
53
What are acquired thrombopathias that decrease platelet function
Neoplasia, ehrlichia canis, anaplasma platys, hepatic disease, renal disease, immune mediate thrombocytopenia, DIC, and drugs such as aspirin
54
What are acquired thrombopathias that can increase platelet function
Lymphoma, nephrotic syndrome, and infections such as RMSF, heartworms, and FIP
55
What are clincial signs of thrombocytopenia
Petechiae, ecchymoses, mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, hematemesis, melena, hyphema, hematuria, and prolonged bleeding times after surgery/injury
56
What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder in dogs
von Willebrand disease
57
How many types of von Willebrand disease are there
3
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What is von Willebrand disease type 1
Low concentration, most common, variable severity common in doberman pinschers, pembroke welsh corgis, and german sheperds
59
What is type 2 von Willebrand disease
Abnormal structure/function w/ moderate severity common in german shorthaired/wirehaired pointers
60
What is type 3 von Willebrand disease
It is absent this is always severe and can be inherited or sporadic
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What breeds have a higher chance of present w/ inherited type 3 von Willebrand disease
Chesapeake bay retrievers and scottish terriers
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What breeds have a higher chance of presenting w/ type 3 sporadic von Willebrand disease
Blue heelers, cocker spaniels, and labs
63
What are clinical signs of von Willebrand disease
Can be asymptompatic but can have spontaneous bleeds in the mucus membranes and gingiva and present w/ epistaxis and hematuria, and excessive bleeding after trauma/sx/teething
64
What are treatments of von Willebrand disease
Cryoprecipitate, fresh frozen plasma, fresh whole blood for active bleed, and desmopressin acetate for type 1
65
Which tup is best for a mammal's CBC and blood smear
Purple top
66
What is in a purple top
Na or K EDTA
67
What are green top tubes best used for
Chemical assays and avian/reptilian CBC and blood smear
68
What does green top tubes do in mammalian blood
Causes clumping of WBC and platelets and interferes w/ staining of WBCs
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What is in a green top tube
Na or Li heparin
70
What is a blue top tube good for
Coagulation panels and blood transfusions
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What is in blue top tubes
Na or Li citrate
72
What is a red marble top used for
Serum separator
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What are red top tubes for
It allows the blood to clot for serum evaluation
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What is can a grey top tube contain
Diatomaceous earth for activated clotting times, boric acid for urine preservation for C&S, and fluoride for anticoagulant for a glucose test
75
What is plasma
Fluid portion of whole blood that is 90% water and 10% constituent
76
What is the 10% constituents of plasma comprised of
Proteins, CHOs, vitamins, hormones, enzymes, lipids, waste products, and antibodies
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What is serum
Plasma w/ fibrinogen removed
78
What is higher in serum compared to plasma
Lactate dehydrogenase, potassium, and phosphate that are released from cells during clotting
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What is higher in plasma compared to serum
Protein globins like fibrinogen
80
What can cause artifact hemolysis
Excessive suction, mixed to vigorously, forced through needle when transferring, and frozen whole blood
81
What are sample changes that can cause hemolysis
Elevate potassium, phosphorous, and enzyme levels, that interferes w/ lipase activity and bilirubin determinations
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What chemical contamination can lead to a sample having hemolysis
Filling K EDTA tube first
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What improper handling can lead to a sample having hemolysis
Allowing it to become too warm
84
What things from the patient can influence the hemolysis of a sample but is not pathologic
Blood glucose and phosphorous elevated after eating, postprandial lipemia, and transient increase in GFR after eating lowering renal values
85
What are types of automated hematology analyzers
Impedance analyzers, quantitative buffy coat analysis, laser flow cytometer, and combo of impedance + laser flow
86
What does the x-axis represent on a histogram
Cell sizes
87
What does the y-axis represent on a histogram
Numbers
88
How does an impedance analyzer work
It uses an electric current that the cells impede the flow of as they pass allowing it to use the cell size to provide a complete analysis of RBCs, WBCs including differentials, and plts
89
What can happen w/ cat samples when using an impedance analyzer
The analysis isn't as accurate due to the similar size of a platelet and RBC
90
How are WBCs counted in impedance analyzers
Based on the nuclei only
91
What is significant about cold blood samples w/ an impedance analyzer
The RBCs can clump and create a false decrease
92
What other things are counted as RBCs in an impedance analyzer
Plt clumps or macrothrombocytes
93
What are errors w/ using the impedance analyzer
Morphologic abnormalities or variation in size
94
How does the quantitative buffy coat system work and what does it find
Differential centrifugation and staining that takes the expanded buffy coat in a specialized microhematocrit tube to estimate a concentration based on a fixed cell volumes providing hematocrit value, estimated leukocyte, and platelet concentration
95
What can go undetected when using a quantitative buffy coat system
Leukocyte abnormalities
96
What is a quantitative buffy coat system best used for
Screening because it uses an estimate rather than an actual cell count
97
What is a laser flow cytometer and what does it do
A focused laser beam that evaluates size and density of solids based on granules, nuclei, shape, and volume, erythrocyte indices, and platelet parameters
98
What are the 3 types of photometry
Spectrophotometers, colorimeter, and reflectometer
99
What does a spectrophotometer measure
The light transmitted by a substance
100
What is a colorimeter
Photometer that uses a filter to select a wavelength
101
What is a reflectometer
Detects light reflected off a test substance rather than transmitted light
102
What are the types of automated chemistry analyzers
End point, kinetic assays, ion-selective electrode, and electrochemical methods
103
What are end point analyzer
Reaction reaches a stable end-point that uses an internal standard to calculate results
104
What does the kinetic assay analyzer do
Primarily used for enzyme assays or when reagent is enzyme based, each specific enzyme catalyzes a reaction of specific substrate and produces a specific product, measures the rate of formation of the product, and is time based since there is no stable end point
105
What is a ion selective electrode analyzer
Electrolytes and ionic components that reference electrodes and sample interacts w/ the second ion specific electrode and creates an electrical potential thats differences can be determined from the concentration of ions in the sample
106
What are electrochemical analyzers
Biosensor reagent strips or cartridges where the sample interacts w/ reagents and creates a measurable current
107
What type of reagents are used for automated chemical analyzers
Liquid reagents, dry reagents, or slides that contain dry reagents
108
What are liquid reagents
Can be bulk or cuvettes which are cost effective for profiles but not configured to run a single test
109
What are dry reagents
Higher priced system, no reagent handling, and are simple to run a single test
110
What is the normal pH of blood
7.35-7.45
111
What is acidemia
Increased H+
112
What is alkalemia
Decreased H+
113
What are the different buffers used for acid base balance
Bicarbonate, potassium, phosphate, proteins, and hemoglobin
114
What does alkalosis and acidosis refere to
Overall in the body
115
What does alkalemia and acidemia refer to
Whats happening in the blood
116
What does bicarbonate do as a buffer
When acidemia occurs HCO3 binds to H+ producing carbonic acid that is broken into H2CO3 + CO2 by carbonic anhydrase
117
What does the kidneys do w/ bicarbonate
Secretes and absorbs it from filtrate as the blood pH needs it
118
What does potassium do as a buffer
Decreased K+ in plasma influences K+ to move from cells to ECF then H+ moves from ECF to cells and vice versa
119
What happens if respiratory rate decreases
CO2 builds up and respiratory acidosis can occur
120
What is hypercapnia/hypercarbia
Increase in CO2 in the blood (PCO2)
121
What happens if the respiratory rate increases
Decrease in CO2 and respiratory alkalosis can occur
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What is hypocapnia/hypocarbia
Decrease in the pressure of CO2 in the blood (PCO2)
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What is metabolic acidosis
Any metabolic condition that results in buildup of acids in the body that also results in drop in bicarbonate
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What is metabolic alkalosis
Disorders that alter electrolyte levels resulting in increased bicarbonate
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What is base excess
Amount of strong acid or base required to titrate 1 L of blood to a pH of 7.4 at 37 c while PCO2 is held constant at 40 mmHg
126
What does a BE of <-3 mean
Metabolic acidosis indicating bicarbonate treatment is needed
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What does a BE of >3 indicate
Metabolic alkalosis
128
What is BE calculated from
pH, PCO2, and hemoglobin measurements
129
What are major electrolytes in plasma
Calcium, inorganic phosphorous, magnesium, sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate
130
What type of sample is ideal for measuring the electrolytes in plasma
Arterial
131
What are the major extracellular cation and why
Sodium because it maintains water distribution and the osmotic pressure of body fluids
132
What happens to sodium in the kidneys
Filtered by glomeruli and reabsorbed in exchange for H+
133
What is and are causes of hypernatremia
An increase in sodium is caused by water deprivation, salt consumption in excess of water consumption, hyperventilation, and osmotic diuresis
134
What is and are causes of hyponatremia
Decrease in sodium are caused by GI disorders, ketonuria, hypoadrenocorticism, and congestive heart failure
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What can falsely lower results of sodium
Hemolysis
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What is a major intracellular cation
Potassium
137
What is and are causes for hyperkalemia
High potassium is caused by tissue necrosis, metabolic acidosis, urinary tract obstruction, and renal insufficiency
138
What is and are causes for hypokalemia
Decrease in potassium are anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, ketonuria, and diuresis
139
Why is plasma preferred when measuring potassium
Because K+ is released by platelets during activation
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What is a major extracellular anion and why
Chloride maintains water distribution and osmotic pressure
141
What is and are causes of hyperchloremia
High chloride is caused by dehydration, osmotic diuresis, and renal disease
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What is and are causes of hypochloremia
Decrease in chloride is caused by prolonged storage w/o separating cells, hemolysis, severe vomiting, and displaced abomasum in cattle
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What is the second most common anion in plasma
Bicarbonate
144
What percentage of CO2 in the body is bicarbonate equal to in the body
95%
145
Where in the body is magnesium found
In all body tissues but more than 50% is found in bone
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What can an imbalance of the magnesium calcium ratio result in
Muscular tetany due to the release of acetylcholine
147
What is and are causes of hypermagnesemia
High magnesium is caused muscle necrosis, renal azotemia, and normal in postpartum cows
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What is and are causes for hypomagnesemia
Low magnesium is caused by anorexia, hypoalbuminemia, and cattle and sheep cannot store magnesium
149
What are the jobs of the 1% of calcium that is not located in bones
Maintenance of neuromuscular excitability and tone and facilitation of blood coagulation
150
What is and are causes of hypercalcemia
High calcium is caused by neoplasia, hypoadrenocorticism, hyperparathyroidism, and chronic renal failure
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What is and are causes of hypocalcemia
Low calcium is caused by hypoalbuminemia, hemolysis, hypoparathyroidism, and hyperadrenocorticism
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What does the 20% of inorganic phosphorous that is not in our bones do
Energy storage/release/transfer, CHO metabolism, and composition of substances such as nucleic acids and phospholipids
153
How is calcium related to inorganic phosphorous
Inversely
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What is and are causes of hyperphosphatemia
High phosphorous is caused by hemolysis, postprandial, diet, renal or post renal azotemia, and dehydration in ruminants
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What is and are causes of hypophosphatemia
Low phosphorous is caused by hyperparathyroidism, renal disease, hyperadrenocorticism, and urolithiasis in ruminants
156
What is the anion gap equation
(Na + K) - (Cl and HCO3)
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What is the anion gap
Total number of positive charged equals number of negaitive charges normally
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What is a normal anion gap in dogs and cats
Dogs 12-24 mEg/L and cats 13-27 mEg/L
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What does an increase in anion gap indicate
Lactic acidosis, renal failure, and diabetic ketoacidosis
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What does a decrease in the anion gap indicate
Hypoalbuminemia
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What can bicarb be replaced w/ in the anion gap equation
TCO2
162
What are functions of plasma proteins
Structural matrix of cells, maintain osmotic pressure, enzymes for biochemical reactions, buffers in acid-base balance, blood coagulation, defend against pathogenic organisms, and serve as transport/carrier molecules
163
What does hyperproteinemia mean
Dehydration when referring to TP
164
What is hypoproteinemia
Overhydration when referring to TP
165
What is TP a good screening test for
Edema, cavitary effusion, weight loos, diarrhea, hepatic and renal disease, and blood clotting problems
166
What are the 2 testing methods for TP
Refractometer and biuret method
167
What is the biuret method of measuring TP
Labaratory analytic insturments that evaluates peptide bonds
168
What protein comprises 35-50% of total plasma protein
Albumin
169
What are functions of albumin
Major binding/transport protein and maintains plasma osmotic pressure
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What is any significant state of hypoproteinemia likely due to
Albumin loss
171
What cells synthesize albumin
Hepatocytes
172
What can lead to hypoalbuminemia
Liver disease, renal disease, dietary intake, intestinal absorption, and inflammation
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What is a cause of hyperalbuminemia
Dehyrdation
174
What are alpha globulins
High density lipoproteins and very low density lipoproteins
175
What are beta globulins
C3, C4, transferrin, and ferritin
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What are functions of beta globulins
Iron transport, heme binding, fibrin formation, and lysis
177
What are gamma globulins
Immunoglobulins
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How do you find the quantity of globulins in the plasma
TP - albumin
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What is the first indication of protein abnormality
Albumin globulin ratio
180
What is the normal albumin globulin ratio in common species
Dogs, horses, sheep, and goats is >1 while cattle, pigs, and cats should be <1
181
What percentage of TP is fibrinogen
3-6%
182
What makes fibrinogen
Hepatocytes
183
What can hypofibrinogenemia cause
Unstable clots or no clots forming
184
What can lead to hyperfibrinogenemia
Inflammation or tissue damage
185
How can fibrinogen be measured
Using the heat precipitation method and some automated machines measure it
186
What does a plasma protein assay measure
TP, albumin, globulins, albumin globulin ratio, and fibrinogen
187
What does a hepatobiliary assay measure
ALT, AST, ALP, GGT, bilirubin, and bile acids
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What are functions of the liver
Metabolism of AA, CHO, and lipids, synthesis of albumin, cholesterol, plasma proteins, and clotting factors, digestion and absorption of nutrients related to bile formation, secretion of bilirubin and bile, and detoxification and catabolism of drugs
189
What are indicators of hepatobiliary disease
Icterus, hypoalbuminemia, problems w/ hemostasis, hypoglycemia, hyperlipoproteinemia, and hepatic encephalopathy
190
What values indicate hepatocellular damage
Alanine transaminase (ALT), aspartate transaminase (AST), and iditol dehydrogenase
191
What is cholestasis
No movement of bile
192
What values indicate cholestasis
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)
193
What are values indicate hepatocyte function
Bilirubin and bile acids
194
What are foundational values that are seen on every chemistry
ALT and ALP
195
What is bilirubin
Insoluble molecule from breakdown of hemoglobin by splenic macrophages
196
What is conjugated bilirubin
Direct bilirubin
197
How do you find the value for unconjugated bilirubin
Total bilirubin - conjugated bilirubin
198
Why does albumin transport bilirubin to the liver
So the hepatic cells can metabolizes and conjugates the bilirubin
199
What system gets rid of conjugated bilirubin
The biliary system
200
Why does bilirubinuria come before bilirubinemia
Because conjugated bilirubin is water soluble
201
What happens w/ bilirubin when hemolytic anemia occurs
There is an increase in unconjugated bilirubin in the blood due to an increase in hemolysis that the hepatocytes can't keep up with
202
What happens w/ bilirubin when cholestasis occurs
Conjugated bilirubin is not sent to the GIT via the biliary system so there is an increase in conjugated bilirubin in the blood resulting in bilirubinuria
203
What happens w/ bilirubin if there is cholestasis and hemolytic anemia
There is an increase in unconjugated bilirubin due to a rapid increase in hemolysis that the hepatocytes can't keep up w/ but there is also an increase in conjugated bilirubin in the blood because the biliary system is not sending bile to the GIT leading to bilirubinuria
204
What is the function of bile acids
Emulsify fat and facilitate nutrient absorption in the SI
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What synthesizes bile acids
Hepatocytes from cholesterol
206
What does the liver conjugates bile acids w/
Glycine or taurine
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What is the gall bladders role w/ bile acids
It stores bile acids until contraction associated w/ feeding comes from the duodenum resulting in bile being exreted
208
What happens to bile acids when they reach the ileum
Transported back to the liver via enterohepatic circulation where 90% is reabsorbed as conjugated bilirubin
209
What is cholesterol
Plasma lipoprotein produced by the liver and ingested from food
210
What conditions can increase cholesterol
Cholestasis, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, and hyperadrenocorticism
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What is an important concept to remember when measuring cholesterol
Do not overinterpret postprandial samples
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What other types of cells can produce ALT and alter the level on a chemistry
Renal cells, cardiac cells, skeletal muscle, and pancreas
213
What can elevate ALT
Hepatocellular damage, other cellular damage, and administration of corticosteroids or anticonvulsants
214
Does ALT indicate hepatic disease
No, only damage to the hepatocytes
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What cells make aspartate transaminase (AST)
Hepatocytes, erythrocytes, cardiac and skeletal muscle, kidneys, and pancreas
216
What things increase AST
Non-specific liver damage, strenuous exercise, IM injection, and hemolysis
217
What should be checked if AST is elevated
Hemolysis and creatine kinase
218
What does iditol dehydrogenase (ID) be useful in determining
Assessing liver damage in large animals
219
What does glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH) indicate
Hepatocyte damage in cattle, sheep, and goats
220
What makes alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Hepatobiliary cells, osteoblasts, chondroblasts, intestine, and placenta
221
What is ALP in most young animals
The bone isoenzyme and a higher concentration than adults
222
Where does most ALP from in adults
From the liver
223
What can increase alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Corticosteroid exogenous or endogenous
224
What makes gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)
Hepatobiliary cells, renal epithelium, mammary epithelium, pancreas, and intestine
225
What elevates blood levels of gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)
Obstructive liver disease
226
What does lipemia falsely increase
Hgb, MCH, MCHC, TP, plt count, and bilirubin
227
What does lipemia falsely decrease
Na, Cl, and K
228
What can hemolysis falsely decrease
HCT, PCV, RBC, Na, Cl, and Ca
229
What does hemolysis falsely increase
MCH, MCHC, plt count, and MPV
230
What does hemolysis do to TP in the refractometer
Makes TP difficult to read
231
What can icterus fasley decrease
Creatinine and TP
232
What is corticotropin releasing factor (CRH) secreted from
Hypothalamus
233
What secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Adenohypophysis
234
What is hyperadrenocorticism
Cushing's disease
235
What are causes of cushing's disease
Pituitary tumor leading to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or functional adrenal neoplasia
236
What can lead to exogenous glucocorticoids lead to
Atrophied adrenal glands
237
What can sudden withdrawal of exogenous glucocorticoids lead to
Iatrogenic hypofunction of the adrenal gland
238
What does mineralcorticoids help maintain
Na and K
239
What is hypoadrenocorticism
Addison's disease
240
What is atypical addison's
Glucocorticoid deficiency only
241
What is typical addison's
Mineralcorticoid and glucocorticoid deficiency
242
What is the ACTH stimulation test
Evaluates degree of response to administration of exogenous ACTH
243
What does an exaggerated ACTH stimulation test reponse indicate
Hyperplastic adrenal glands
244
What does diminished ACTH stimulation reponse indicate
Hypoplastic adrenal glands
245
What is the only test that can be used to diagnose Addison's
ACTH stimulation test
246
What can a LDDST confirm
Hyperadrenocorticism by showing no change in cortisol production
247
Can can HDDST differentiate
Pituitary cortisol levels fall off vs adrenal no change in cortisol hyperadrenocorticism
248
What are the 2 main thyroid assays that are used to diagnosis hypo/hyper thyroidism
Total T4 and free T4
249
What can total T4 be used for
Diagnosing hypothyroidism in dogs, horses, ruminants, and swine and hyperthyroidism in cats
250
What is the recommended test for hypo/hyper thyroidism
Free T4
