Exam 4 Flashcards
(98 cards)
1
Q
What is a MDRO?
A
Multi Drug Resistant Organism
2
Q
____ describes microorganisms once susceptible to an action of an antibiotic but is no longer affected by the drug.
A
Resistance
3
Q
Are the majority of antibiotics/antibacterial drugs bacteriostatic or bactericidal?
A
Bacteriostatic
4
Q
____ is a condition in which the body’s immune system responds to foreign substance?
A
Allergy
5
Q
Name some contributing factors to antibacterial drug resistance?
A
Unnecessary prescriptions
Unfinished prescriptions
Globalization
Antibiotics in animal feed
6
Q
What are the 4 mechanisms of resistance?
A
- Inactivation of the antibiotic
- Efflux pumping of the antibiotic
- Modification of the antibiotic target
- Alteration of the pathway
7
Q
Name some ways antibacterial drug resistance can be limited.
A
- Restricting antibiotics to essential use only
- Using synergism
- Maintaining high levels of antibiotics long enough to kill the bacteria
8
Q
____ is the additive effect when two antibiotics are administered at the same time?
A
Synergism
9
Q
____ is when some drugs are less effective when used in combination than when used alone?
A
Antagonism
10
Q
What percentage of antibiotics are used in animal feed?
A
40% - 50%
11
Q
How much money is estimated to be spent on antibiotic resistance annually?
A
$100 million to $30 billion
12
Q
____ is the only organism recognized as a common cause of antibiotic-associated colitis?
A
Clostridium difficile
13
Q
An MDRO is also known as a ____.
A
Superbug
14
Q
____ is the scientific study of the cause of a disease?
A
Etiology
15
Q
____ is any change in the function of a cell/tissue/organ system?
A
Disease
16
Q
____ occurs when a pathogen gets in or on a host and colonies are established?
A
Infection
17
Q
____ is the strength or potency of a pathogen?
A
Virulence
18
Q
____ are the microorganisms that are always present on the external and internal surfaces of the body without producing harmful effects?
A
Resident Microbiota
19
Q
____ are microorganisms that only occasionally inhabit the body; microbes that are present under certain conditions?
A
Transient Microbiota
20
Q
____ implies that microbial growth has become established on or within the host.
A
Colonization
21
Q
3 conditions that create opportunities for normal microflora to cause disease?
A
- Failure to the host’s normal defenses (immunocompromised)
- Introduction of the Organisms into unusual body sites
- Disturbances of the normal microflora (microbial antagonism)
22
Q
____ any organism that harbors another organism.
A
Host
23
Q
____ describes interactions that occur between different organisms that live close together.
A
Symbiosis
24
Q
3 types of symbiosis?
A
Commensalism
Mutualism
Parasitism
25
____ is an association in which one partner benefits but the other remains unaffected. (on skin)
Commensalism
26
____ is an association in which both partners benefit. (in the colon)
Mutualism
27
____ is an association when one organism "the parasite" benefits at the expense of the other organism "the host."
Parasitism
28
____ is a set of criteria for determining the cause of infectious diseases, established by Robert Koch.
Koch's Postulates
29
List Koch's postualtes.
1. Suspected pathogen must be present in ever case of the disease.
2. That pathogen must be isolated and grown in pure culture.
3. The cultured pathogen must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible host.
4. The same pathogen must be reisolated from the deceased experimental host.
30
List some exceptions to Koch's postulates.
1. Ethical considerations
2. No single cause established
3. Pathogens are ignored
4. Some pathogens cannot be cultured in a lab
31
Name 4 types of portals of entry.
Skin
Mucous membranes
Placenta
Parenteral rout
32
Name some specific portals of entry.
```
Eyes
Nose
Mouth
Urethra
Anus
Placenta
```
33
____ is a mechanism pathogens have and use to stick to the host tissue.
Adhesion
34
Name 5 types of portals of exits.
```
Secretions
Skin
Blood
Vaginal Secretions/Semen
Excreted body wastes
```
35
Name some specific portals of exit.
```
Eyes (tears)
Needles
Bites
Wounds
Sweat
Feces
```
36
____ is subjective and felt by the patient
Symptom
37
____ is objective and is observable or measured by others
Signs
38
____ is a group of signs & symptoms that collectively characterize a particular disease.
Syndrome
39
____ is the after effects of an infection.
Sequelae
40
____ is an infectious disease that is transmitted from one host to the next. (influenza, herpes)
Communicable disease
41
____ is an infectious disease that is "easily" transmitted from on host to the next. (measles, chicken pox)
Contagious disease
42
____ is a disease that arises from outside of the host or from normal microflora and is not spread from host to host. (tooth decay, tetanus, acne)
Noncommunicable disease
43
____ is a disease in which the symptoms develop rapidly and that runs its course quickly."quick quick or fast fast" (measles, cold)
Acute disease
44
____ is a disease in which the symptoms develop slowly and the disease is slow to disappear. "slow slow" (tuberculosis)
Chronic disease
45
____ is a disease with intermediate symptoms.
Subacute disease
46
____ is an infection with mild or no symptoms and can go unnoticed. (polio virus or hepatitis A virus)
Inapparent (subclinical)
47
____ is a disease that occurs when viruses or microorganisms live in host tissues, often within host cells, for years without causing any symptoms.
Latent disease
48
____ is an infection confined to a small region of the body (boil, bladder)
Local infection
49
____ is an infection in a confined region from which pathogens travel to other regions of the body. (abscessed tooth)
Focal infection
50
____ is an infectious agent spreads throughout the body (measles)
Systemic
51
____ is the presence but not multiplication of viruses in the blood.
Viremia
52
____ is the presence but not multiplication of bacteria in the blood.
Bacteremia
53
____ is the presence and "multiplication" of pathogens in the blood (blood poisoning)
Septicemia
54
____ is the presence of toxins in the blood (botulism, tetanus)
Toxemia
55
____ is the initial infection in a previously healthy person.
Primary infection
56
____ is an infection that immediately follows a primary infection
Secondary infection
57
____ is a secondary infection that results from the destruction of normal microflora. (Often follows use of a broad-spectrum antimicrobial drug)
Superinfection
58
____ is an infection caused by two or more pathogens (periodontal disease)
Mixed infection
59
List the 5 stages of infectious diseases.
1. Incubation period
2. Prodromal period
3. Illness
4. Decline
5. Convalescence
60
____ is the time between infection and appearance of signs or symptoms
Incubation period
61
____ is the period of time with vague symptoms
Prodromal period
62
____ is the period of time when symptoms and signs are most severe.
Illness/Invasive phase
63
____ is the period of time with the immune system responds or medical treatment works, and the symptoms/signs subside.
Decline phase
64
____ is the period of the when the patient recovers, the tissues and systems are repaired and everything returns to normal.
Convalescence phase
65
____ is the point when all signs and symptoms are at peak intensity, the signs and symptoms are fully developed.
Acme
66
Name 4 predisposing factors for disease.
```
Virulence
Infective dose
State of Health
Nature of the pathogen
Generation time of the pathogen
```
67
____ is the study of factors and mechanisms involved in the frequency and spread of diseases and other health-related problems within populations of humans, other animals, or plants.
Epidemiology
68
The ____ of a disease is the "number of new cases" contracted within a set populations during a specific time period. (# of new cases/ # of people at risk)
Incidence
69
The ____ of a disease is the "total number" of people infected within the population at any time. (old + new cases)
Prevalence
70
____ is the number of individuals with a disease during a set period of time divided by the total population.
Morbidity rate
71
____ is the number of deaths due to a specific disease during a specific period of time divided by the total population.
Mortality rate
72
____ is a disease that normally occurs at a relatively stable frequency within a given population or geographic area.
Endemic
73
____ is a disease that appears as a few scattered cases within a population or geographic area.
Sporadic
74
____ is a disease that occurs with a greater than usual frequency within an area or population
Epidemic
75
____ is when an epidemic occurs on one or more continents at the same time.
Pandemic
76
____ is a type of epidemic that arises from contact with contaminated substances.
Common source outbreak/epidemic
77
____ is a type of epidemic that is an amplification of an infection as a result of person-to-person contact.
Propagated epidemic
78
____ are sites where pathogens exist and are maintained as a source of infection, once they leave the host.
Reservoirs of infection
79
Name the 3 types of Reservoirs of infection.
Animal reservoirs
Human carriers
Nonliving reservoirs
80
____ are diseases spread from animal host to humans.
Zoonotic disease
81
3 examples of nonliving reservoirs.
Soil
Food
Water
82
3 modes of infections disease transmission.
Contact transmission
Vehicle transmission
Vector transmission
83
3 types of contact transmission.
Direct contact
Indirect contact
Droplet transmission
84
Describe direct contact.
Person-to-person
Placental
*"Fecal-oral"*
85
Describe indirect contact.
```
Fomites
Nonliving
Toilet seat
Money
Gloves
```
86
Describe droplet transmission.
Spit
Snot
Airborne transmission
Mucous droplets
87
____ are inanimate objects that inadvertently transmit pathogens.
Fomites
88
____ is the transmission of disease agents by water, food or air, body fluids, IV fluids
Vehicle Transmission
89
3 types of vehicle transmission.
Waterborne
Food-borne
Airborne
90
____ is the type of vehicle transmission that is spread by water contaminated with untreated sewage,
Waterborne
91
____ is the type of vehicle transmission when the pathogen is transmitted in or on food that has been improperly prepared, cooked, or stored.
Food-borne
92
____ is the type of vehicle transmission that is the spread of agents in aerosol droplets that travel "more than 1 meter" from reservoir to host
Airborne
93
____ is the mode of infectious disease transmission.
Vector Transmission
94
2 types of vectors.
Biological Vectors
| Mechanical Vectors
95
____ are animals that carry pathogens from one host to another; typically arthropods
Vectors
96
____ is the passive transport of pathogens on insects feet or other body parts.
Mechanical Transmission
97
____ is a vector such as an insect carrying a pathogen inside its body and infects/transmits the pathogen to a host when it bits the host.
Biological Transmission
98
____ is a proportion of individuals in a community or population who are immune to a particular disease.
Herd Immunity
