Exam 4 Flashcards
(307 cards)
1
Q
Is peptidolgycan in gram-negative gram-positive or both?
A
both
2
Q
What are the four β-lactam drugs? Cidal or static?
A
penicillin/cephalosporin/monobactams/carbapenems
-cidal
3
Q
What is the main adverse effect of the penicillins?
A
hypersensitivity
4
Q
What is the main β-lactamase inhibitor?
A
Clavulanic acid
5
Q
What two drugs are contained in augmentin?
A
amoxicillin and clavulonic acid
6
Q
What is the main adverse effect of cephalosporins?
A
hypersensitivity
7
Q
Which two antibiotics can have disulfarim effects?
A
metronidazole and cephalosporins
8
Q
Is Aztreonam effective against gram positives or gram negatives?
A
Negative
9
Q
What is the only monobactam? What is notable about this drug? Susceptible to β-lactamase?
A
Aztreonam
enters CSF
no
10
Q
What is the main adverse effect of Aztreonam?
A
hypersensitivity
11
Q
Can Carbapenems penetrate the CNS?
A
yes
12
Q
Which β-lactam is resistant to β-lactamase?
A
Carbapenems
13
Q
What other drug is imipenem administered with? Why?
A
cilastatin
to prevent renal clearance
14
Q
Can carbapenems penetrate the CSF?
A
yes
15
Q
What is the main adverse effect of carbapenems?
A
GI issues
16
Q
What amino acid sequence is vancomycin specific for?
A
D-ala-D-ala
17
Q
What are the three toxicities of vancomycin?
A
oto
nephro
redman
18
Q
What is the MOA of bacitracin? What two types of applications is bacitracin found? Gram negative, positives of both?
A
prevent incorporation of amino acids into cell wall
topical and ophthalmic
both
19
Q
What is the MOA of fosfomycin?
A
prevent synthesis of UDP-N-acetylmuramic acid
20
Q
What condition is fosfomycin commonly used to treat?
A
UTIs
21
Q
What step of protein synthesis do aminoglycosides inhibit?
A
initiation complex
22
Q
What drug class are aminoglycosides often used in combination with? To treat what?
A
β-lactam
gram-negative infections
23
Q
What ribosomal subunit to aminoglycosides bind?
A
30S
24
Q
What are the two most common toxicities of aminoglycosides?
A
nephrotoxic
ototoxic
25
What ribosomal subunit do macrolides bind? What step do they block?
50s
translocation to P-site
26
What are the three macrolides we have to know for this test?
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin
27
What is the main adverse effect of macrolides?
GI issues
28
What ribosomal subunit do tetracyclines bind? What step do they block?
30S
binding of tRNA to A-site
29
What are the two main adverse effects of tetracyclines?
sequester calcium
photosensitivity
30
What is the main use of clindamycin?
soft tissue infections causes by staph or strep
31
What ribosomal subunit does clindamycin bind?
50S
inhibit translocation to P-site
32
What are the two MOAs of clindamycin?
prevent binding to A site
prevent peptide elongation
33
According to Henry, what two serious infections is chloramphenical reserved for?
RMSF and Typhus
34
Which ribosomal subunit does chloramphenicol bind? Which step of protein synthesis is blocked?
50S
blocks peptidyl elogation
35
What are the two toxicities of chloramphenicol? Why?
myelosuppression
Gray Baby Syndrome --> lack of glucoronidation
36
Which ribosomal subunit does Linezolid bind? What is the MOA of linezolid?
50S
prevent formation of bond between ribosome and fMet-tRNA
37
What antibiotic that interferes with protein synthesis is reserved for severe infections?
Linezolid
38
What is the toxicity of Linezolid?
myelosuppression
39
What enzyme do sulfonamides inhibit? What intermediate do they compete with?
Dihydropterate Synthase
PABA
40
What product do sulfonamides interfere with the synthesis of?
Dihydrofolate
41
What is the main adverse effect of sulfonamides? What are the three sulfonamide antibiotics?
photosensitivity
Sulfadiazine/sulfamethoxazole/sulfamethizole
42
What drug functions like trimethoprim? What is the MOA of these drugs?
Pyrimethamine
interfere with bacterial DHFR
43
What are the two main uses for TMP/SMX?
UTI
prostatitis
44
Are fluoroquinolones successful against gram negatives, positives or both?
both
45
What is the MOA of fluoroquinolones?
inhibit topo. II
46
What are the three main side effects of fluoroquinolones?
GI disturbances
QT prolongation
bind divalent cations
47
What is the MOA of daptomycin?
depolarizes bacterial cell membrane
48
Is daptomycin effectvie against gram-positives or gram-negatives?
gram-positives
49
What organ is effected by Daptomycin?
skeletal muscles
50
What is the MOA of polymyxin B?
detergent
51
Is polymyxin B effective against gram positives or gram negatives?
gram negatives
52
What component of the cell membrane does Polymyxin B bind to particularly well?
LPS
53
What two drugs are sued to treat an uncomplicated skin infection? What if there is an allergy?
Penicillin or 1st gen. cephalosporin
vanc. or clindamycin
54
What two drugs are used to treat a skin infection if it is complicated?
penicillin + lactamse inhibitor
55
What three drugs are used to treat MRSA?
Vancomycin
Linezolid
Daptomycin
56
What three drugs are used to treat osteomyelitis empirically?
vancomycin
ceftriaxone
cefepime
57
What is used to treat osteomyelitis in surgeries?
penicillin + lactamse inhibitors
58
What drug is used to treat septic arthritis empirically?
ceftriaxone
59
Which antibiotic works well on adherent bacteria especially in a joint?
Rifampin
60
What drug is used to treat acute sinusitis?
augmentin
61
What two drugs are used to treat pharyngitis?
penicillin or amoxicillin
62
What drug is used to treat community acquired pneumonia?
macrolide
63
What two drugs are used to treat hospital acquired pneumonia?
β-lactam (+) macroldie
64
What two drugs are used to treat MRSA pneumonia?
vancomycin and linezolid
65
What drug is used to treat ventilator associated pneumonia?
ceftriaxone
66
What drug combination is used to treat cystitis?
TMP/SMX
67
What drug combination is used to treat pyelonephritis? In the kidney?
TMP/SMX
Fluroquinolone
68
What drug is used to treat complicated UTI and prostatitis?
Fluroquinolone
69
What two drugs are used to treat intra-abdominal infections?
Ticeracillin and clavulunate
70
What drug combination is used to treat bacterial meningitis?
ceftriaxone/cefotaxime + vanc.
71
What drug combination is used to treat neonatal meningitis?
ampicillin + cephalosporin + gentamicin
72
What drug combination is used to treat sepsis?
cefepime + vancomycin
73
What drug combination is used to treat endocarditis?
ceftriaxone + vancomycin
74
What drug combination is used to treat fever and neutropenia?
ciprofloxacin + augmentin
75
What three drugs are used to treat enterococci?
linezolid
daptomycin
tigecycline
76
What cells does TB reproduce in? Is TB dormant or active inside a granuloma?
macrophages
dormant
77
Is INH cidal or static? What enzyme activates INH?
-cidal
Kat G
78
What cells can INH penetrate?
macrophages
79
Is INH more effective in MTB or MAC?
MTB
80
What is the MOA of INH?
inhibits synthesis of mycolic acid
81
What enzyme activates INH?
KatG
82
What type of people can develop peripheral neuropathy to INH?
slow acetylators
83
Other than peripheral neuropathy, atients taking INH can develop what other side effect? What exacerbates this side effect?
hepatitis
alcohol
84
What is the MOA of rifampin? Via what protein?
inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
85
Is rifampin cidal or static?
-cidal
86
Which anti-TB drug is a potent p450 enzyme inducer?
Rifampin
87
Which anti-TB drug is specifically used in HIV(+) individuals?
Rifabutin
88
Which anti-TB drug is used almost exclusively in combination with other drugs?
Pyrazinamide
89
Which drug is particularly effective in the acidic environment of macrophages?
Pyrazinamide
90
What is the main side effect of Pyrazinamide?
hyperuricemia
91
What is the MOA of ethambutol?
inhibits arabinosyl transferases
92
Which anti-TB drug is used to treat MAC?
Ethambutol
93
Which anti-TB drug can produce red/green color blindness?
Ethambutol
94
Which aminoglycoside can be used against TB?
Streptomycin
95
Which has greater activity against MAC, rifampin or rifabutin?
rifabutin
96
What is the special enzyme possessed by bacteria and protozoa that render them susceptible to metronidazole?
pyruvate:ferredoxin oxireductase
97
What four drugs are known for their disulfarim like activities?
metronidazole
cephalosporins
griseofulvin
procarbazine
98
Which three specific bugs are primarily treated by metronidazole?
trich and giardia
trophozytes entamoeba histolytica
99
Which two drugs are used to treat the cysts of Entamoeba?
iodoquinol or Paromomycin
100
What type of drug is iodoquinol? Effective against?
halogenated hydroxyquinolone
cysts and trophozites
101
What is the only location where iodoquinol is effective?
lumen
102
What is the toxicity of iodomycin? What population?
optic atrophy
kids
103
What type of drug is paromomycin? Effective against?
aminoglycoside
trophozite and cyst
104
What bug is responsible for diarrhea or HIV?
cryptosporidium parvum
105
What drug is used to treat C. parvum?
Nitazoxanide
106
What is the supposed MOA of Nitazoxanide?
interferes with PFOR
107
What is the Tx for P. jirovecci?
TMP/SMX
108
What drug combination is used for T. gondii?
Pyrimethamine/Sulfadiazine
109
What enzyme do Sulfonamides inhibit? This leads to a decreased production of what compound?
Dihydropterate Synthase
Folate
110
What two drugs belong to the class of Diaminopyrimidines?
trimethoprim and pyrimethamine
111
What is the MOA of pyrimethamine and trimethoprim?
inhibit DHFR
112
What are the two drugs used to treat toxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine
113
What drug combination is used to treat P. jirovecii?
TMP/SMX
114
What are the two most common side effects of quinine? What stage?
Cinchonism and hypoglycemia
erythrocytic
115
Which anti-malarial is effective against all species?
Mefloquine
116
What is primaquine effective against?
liver stages of ovale and vivax
117
Patients being treated with what anti-malarial have to be first screened for G6PDase status?
Primaquine
118
What is the only drug effective against falciparum?
Malarone
119
What is artemisinin used for?
resistant species of falciparum
120
What are the two side effects of Benzimidazoles?
GI and CNS
121
When are benzimidazoles contraindicated?
pregnancy
122
What drug is used to treat Strongyloidiases? What is the MOA of this drug?
Ivermectin
muscle paralysis
123
What three organisms is praziquantel used to treat? MOA of this drug?
cestodes and flukes and cysticercosis
increase Ca2+ permeability
124
Does amphotericin B have good or poor CNS penetration? What is amphotericin B complexed to?
poor
deoxycholic acid
125
What is the main toxicity of amphotericin B?
nephrotoxic
126
Does amphotericin B produce vasodilation or vasoconstriction? Afferent or efferent?
vasoconstriction, afferent
127
What is the MOA of all azoles?
inhibit the enzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol
128
Which azole inhibits p450?
Ketoconazole
129
Which azole has the widest therapeutic index? What bug is fluconazole particularly good at eliminating?
Fluconazole
Candidiasis
130
Which drug has replaced amphotericin B as the drug of choice for disseminated aspergillosis?
Voriconazole
131
Which organism is almost the sole exclusive use for flucytosine?
Cryptococcus
132
What is the main side effect of flucytosine?
bone marrow suppression
133
What is the MOA of echinocandins? Which two fungi are echinocandins used to treat?
inhibit synthesis of β-glucans
Candidia and Aspergillus
134
What is the common suffix for all echinocandins?
-fungin
135
Which two anti-fungals get concentrated in the keratin? What does this mean?
Griseofulvin and terbinafine
prolonged function
136
What is the MOA of all Allyamines?
inhibit activity of squalene epoxidase
137
What class of drug is nystatin?
polyene
138
What enzyme activates acyclovir?
viral thymidine kinase
139
What is the MOA of acyclovir?
inhibits viral DNA synthase
140
What is the MOA of foscarnet? Requires phosphorylation?
occupies pyrophosphate site on HSV DNA polymerase
no
141
When is Foscarnet used?
when resistance to acyclovir is developed in HSV/CMV
142
What ezyme activates gangciclovir?
CMV UL97
143
What is the MOA of Oseltamivir?
inhibits neuroaminidase
144
How old do kids have to be to be given Oseltamivir?
older than 1 yr
145
How old does one have to be to use zanamivir?
7 years
146
How is zanamivir administered?
inhalation
147
How is Peramivir administered? MOA?
IV
Neuroaminidase inhbitor
148
What protein is inhibited by Amantidine and Rinantadine?
Influenza A M2
149
What is the function of Influenza A M2?
nucleocapsid release
150
What drug is used to treat RSV and HCV?
Ribavirin
151
What is ribavirin an analogue of?
Guanosine
152
What is the MOA of paritaprevir? What is the name of this protein?
inhibits HCV protease
NS3/4A
153
What is the MOA of Ledipasvir? What drug is Ledispavir coadministered with?
inhibits NS5A protein of HCV
Sofosbuvir
154
What is the MOA of ombitasvir? What two drugs is Ombitasvir combined with to treat HCV?
inhibits NS5A protein of HCV
Paritaprevir and Ritonavir
155
What is the MAO of sofosbuvir?
HCV RNA polymerase inhibitor
156
What is the MOA of dasabuvir?
non-nucleoside inhibitor of RNA polymerase
157
Which NRTI is associated with a life-threating allergic rxn and must be screened? What is the haplotype being screened?
Abacavir
HLA-B5707
158
What is Lamivudine an analogue of? How is lamivudine administered?
Cytosine
orally
159
What is Emtricitabine? How is emtricitabine administered?
fluorinated analogue of lamivudine
orally
160
What are the two advantages of Emtricitabine over Lamivudine?
increase half-life
increase bioavailability
161
In which four conditions is Emtricitabine contraindicated?
preg/kids/liver/renal
162
What is Tenofovir an analogue of? Administered?
adenosine
orally
163
What is Zimovudine an analogue of?
deoxythymidine
164
What are the two NNRTIs?
Nevirapine and Efavirenz
165
What is the most severe rxn of NNRTIs?
Steven Johnson Syndrome
166
How is Efavirenz administered?
orally
167
Which NNRTI induces p450?
Efavirenz
168
Which protease inhibitors p450?
Atazanavir and Rotinavir
169
Which protease inhibitor is used as a booster? Which requires acid for absorption?
ritonavir
Atazanavir
170
When is Darunavir used? Route of administration?
protease resistant viruses
oral
171
What is the MOA of maraviroc? Route of administration? Screening required?
CCR5 antagonist
oral
CCR5 tropism
172
What is the MOA of Enfuvirtide?
fusion inhibitor
173
What is the only anti-retro viral administered parenterally?
Enfuvirtide
174
When are the two indications for the use of Enfurvitide?
experienced patients
patients with HIV replication in the presence of ART
175
What is the MOA of Raltegravir?
integrase inhibitor
176
What is the MOA of Elvitegravir? What drug does this need to be coadministered with?
integrase inhibitor
cobicistat
177
What is the MOA of Dolutegravir?
integrase inhibitor
178
What are the two combinations of ARV therapies?
one integrase inhibitor + two NRTIs
one protease inhibitor + two NRTIs
179
How is resistance to daptomycin generated? Which amino acid?
addition of positive charge to membrane
Lysine
180
How is resistance to tetracyclines generated?
efflux pump
181
How is resistance against metronidazole generated?
mutations in activating enzyme
182
How is resistance generated against aminoglycosides?
chemical modification of the antibiotic
183
Which two classes of drugs are susceptible to β-lactamases?
penicillins and cephalosporins
184
What enzyme is inhibited by TMP?
DHFR
185
What enzyme is inhibited by Sulfonamides?
Dihydropterate Synthase
186
What is high dose aspirin used for?
anti-inflammatory
187
What is low dose aspirin used for?
anti-pyretic
analgesic
188
What property does acetominophen not possess?
anti-inflammatory
189
What two properties does acetominophen possess?
anti-pyretic and analgesic
190
What receptor does Capsaicin activate?
Vanilloid
191
What does prolonged activation of the vanilloid receptor cause?
decrease release of substance P
192
What drug do NSAIDs inhibit the activity of?
diuretics
193
Which NSAID is used to treat gout?
indomethacin
194
How does colchicine aid in the treatment of gout?
inhibits Neutrophil migration
195
What is the most severe side-effect of colchicine?
diarrhea
196
What are the two Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors?
Allopurinol
Febuxostat
197
What drug acts like probenecid?
Sulfipyrazone
198
What generations of cephalosporin enters the CNS?
3rd and 4th
199
What antibiotic does not penetrate the CNS?
vancomycin
200
Are aminoglycosides cidal at low or high concentrations?
high
201
What drug class does Amikacin belong to?
Aminoglycoside
202
What two species are found in MAC?
avium and intracellularle
203
How is MAC transmitted?
ingestion of contaminated food or water
204
Which form of TB is Isoniazid not particularly useful for?
MAC
205
What other bug is Rifampin useful for?
Chlamydia
206
What is pyrayinamide an analogue of?
nicotinamide
207
What does Brittingham say the toxicity of Ethambutol is?
hyperuricemia
208
What three drugs are used to treat MAC?
Macrolide
Rifampin
Ethambutol
209
What two drugs are used for MAC prophylaxis in HIV patients?
clathiromycin or azithromycin
210
What three drugs are used to treat Leprosy?
dapsone
rifampin
clofazime
211
What is dapsone an analogue of? What does dapsone inhibit the synthesis of?
PABA
folate
212
Which anti-TB drug can exacerbate the hemolytic anemia of G6PDase deficiency?
Dapsone
213
Which antibiotic is effective against malaria? What is the side effect of the drug?
Doxycycline
photosensitivity
214
What is the drug of choice for pinworm? MOA of this drug?
Pyrantel Pamoate
nAchR depolarizing agent
215
Where does Sporotrix schenkii come from?
rose bushes
216
According to Brittingham, what are the four dimorphic fungi?
Histoplasma
Blastomycoses
Coccidiodes
Sporotrix
217
What are the two polyenes?
Amphotericin B
Nystatin
218
What is the common suffix for all azoles?
-conazole
219
What is the common suffix for all echinocandins?
-fungin
220
What does Amphotericin B bind?
ergosterol
221
Which fungi is posaconazole particularly effective at treating?
Aspergillus
222
What are the two allyamines?
Terbiniafine
naftifine
223
Which yeast branches at 45 degrees?
Aspergillus
224
How is acyclovir administered? Used for?
oral or IV
herpes or VZV
225
What is the organ toxicity of acyclovir?
nephrotoxic
226
What is valcyclovir a prodrug of? What is the benefit?
acyclovir
more bioavailable
227
What is the route of administration of foscarnet?
IV only
228
What is the toxicity of foscarnet?
nephrotoxic
229
Which virus is gangcyclovir particularly useful for?
CMV
230
How is gangcyclovir administered?
IV and then orally
231
What is the prodrug of gangciclovir? What is its advantage?
Valgangciclovir
more bioavailable
232
Is influenza RNA or DNA?
RNA
233
Which influenza isotypes is oseltamivir effective against?
A and B
234
When is Zanamivir contraindicated?
respiratory issues
235
What enzyme activates Ribavirin?
Adenosine Kinase
236
How is Ribavirin administered for RSV?
aerosolized
237
What is the MOA of Simeprevir?
inhibits HCV NS3/4A of HCV
238
What is the function of NS5A of HCV?
required for viral RNA replication
239
Which is the common suffix for all Protease Inhibitors?
-Navir
240
What is the common suffix for all Integrase Inhibitors?
-Gravir
241
What other virus may NRTIs be useful in treating?
HBV
242
What is the administration route of Abacavir?
oral
243
What is Zidovudine an analogue of? Administered?
Deoxythymidine
orally
244
What are the two uses for indomethacin?
Gout and ankylosing spondylitis
245
What does SPOK stand for?
Sulindac
Piroxicam
Oxaprozin
Ketorolac
246
How does methotrexate improve the symptoms of RA?
inhibits Tcell activation
247
Why is cyclosporine used to treat RA?
inhibits production of IL1 and IL2
248
Why is leflunomide used to treat RA? Which enzyme?
inhibits ribonucleotide production
Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase
249
Which two antimalarials are used to treat RA?
chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
250
What are the two anti-TNF drugs used for RA?
Etanercept and infliximab
251
What is the MOA of anakinra?
IL1 inhibitor
252
Which two β-blockers are used to treat migraines?
Propranalol and metoprolol
253
Which TCA is used to treat a migraine?
Amitriptyline
254
Which two anti-epileptics are used to treat migraines?
valproate and topiramate
255
Which three anti-emetics are used to treat migraines?
Metochlopromide
Chlorpromazine
Prochlorperazine
256
Which two ergot derivatives are used for migraines?
Ergotamine
Dihydroergotamine
257
What is the MOA that ergotamine and dihydroergotamine can improve the symptoms of a migraine? Via what receptor? What nerve afferents?
vasoconstriction
5HT1D
Trigeminal
258
Which class of drugs with a common suffix is used to treat migraines? Via which receptors?
-Triptans
5HT1B and 5HT1D
259
Which two viruses can Ribivarin treat?
HCV and RSV
260
Which azole requires acid for absorption?
Itraconazole
261
What specific interleukin molecule is downregulated by steroids?
IL2
262
Do glucocorticoids downregulate Bcells or Tcells more?
Bcells
263
What is considered low dose glucocorticoid therapy?
264
What is considered medium dose glucocorticoid therapy?
7.5 - 30 mg
265
What is considered high dose glucocorticoid therapy?
30-100
266
What is considered very high dose glucocorticoid therapy?
>100
267
What is considered a glucocorticoid pulse?
>250
268
What does cyclosporin bind? What does this form a complex with?
cyclophilin
calcineurin
269
Which interleukin is not produced because of cyclosporines actions?
IL2
270
What is the MOA of tacrolimus?
same as cyclosporine
271
What drug is easier to moniter the blood levels of, tacrolimus or cyclosporine?
tacrolimus
272
What does azathioprine get converted into?
6MP
273
What are the two MOAs of azathioprine as an immunosuppressant?
inhibit lymphocyte DNA
inhibit de novo purine synthesis
274
What two viruses pop up during azathioprine use?
HSV and VZV
275
Mycophenolate inhibits the activity of what enzyme?
IMP dehydrogenase
276
Mycophenolate inhibits the production of what nucleoside?
guanine
277
What virus pops up during the use of mycophenolate?
CMV
278
When is mycophenolate contraindicated?
pregnancy
279
Which immunosuppressant binds mTOR? Which cell cycle progression checkpoint is blocked?
Sirolimus
G1/S
280
What are the two mechanisms by which Antithymocyte Globulin suppresses the immune system?
complement mediated
sequestering thymocyte surface receptors
281
What is the main side-effect of thymocyte globulin? How is this suppressed?
cytokine storm
glucocorticoids
282
Which cells express CD3?
Bcells
Tcells
283
What drug is a CD3 antibody?
Muromonab
284
What is the function of Muromonab?
to treat glucocorticoid resistant rejection
285
What are the three anti-TNF agents?
Inflixamab
Etanercept
Adalimumab
286
Which anti-TNF agent is a human and mouse chimera?
infliximab
287
Which anti-TNF agent is a recombinant human IgG?
Adalimumab
288
Which anti-TNF agent contains the human anti-TNF and Fc IgG?
Etanercept
289
What are albendazole and mebendazole effective against?
all worms
290
Can Oseltamivir be used for H1N1?
yes
291
What are oseltamivir and zanamivir analogues of?
sialic acid
292
What is the function of NS3/4A?
cleavage of polypeptides required for viral infection
293
What is the function of IL2?
Tcell growth factor
294
Which Immunosuppressant can produce hirsutism?
cyclosporine
295
What is the function of echinacea? Whe should echinacea not be used?
improve immune function
not used = immune dysfunction
296
What is the function of gingko biloba? Via what receptor?
improve memory function
5HT1A
297
What are the two main side effects of ginko biloba?
anti-platelet
seizures
298
What are the three main uses of garlic?
HTN
cholesterol
athesclerosis
299
What is the main side effect of garlic?
increased bleeding risk
300
What are the two uses of ginseng?
boost stamina and boost immune system
301
What is the use of milk thistle?
liver cirrhosis
302
What is the use of St. Johns WOrt?
anti-depressant
303
What is the use of saw palmetto?
benign prostatic hyperplasia
304
When should melatonin not be used?
those trying to conceive
305
What is the use of butterbur and feverfew?
migraines
306
What is the use of CoQ10?
statin induced myopathy
307
What vitamin does CoQ10 resemble?
Vitamin K
