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Pharm > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Is peptidolgycan in gram-negative gram-positive or both?

A

both

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2
Q

What are the four β-lactam drugs? Cidal or static?

A

penicillin/cephalosporin/monobactams/carbapenems

-cidal

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3
Q

What is the main adverse effect of the penicillins?

A

hypersensitivity

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4
Q

What is the main β-lactamase inhibitor?

A

Clavulanic acid

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5
Q

What two drugs are contained in augmentin?

A

amoxicillin and clavulonic acid

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6
Q

What is the main adverse effect of cephalosporins?

A

hypersensitivity

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7
Q

Which two antibiotics can have disulfarim effects?

A

metronidazole and cephalosporins

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8
Q

Is Aztreonam effective against gram positives or gram negatives?

A

Negative

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9
Q

What is the only monobactam? What is notable about this drug? Susceptible to β-lactamase?

A

Aztreonam

enters CSF

no

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10
Q

What is the main adverse effect of Aztreonam?

A

hypersensitivity

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11
Q

Can Carbapenems penetrate the CNS?

A

yes

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12
Q

Which β-lactam is resistant to β-lactamase?

A

Carbapenems

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13
Q

What other drug is imipenem administered with? Why?

A

cilastatin

to prevent renal clearance

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14
Q

Can carbapenems penetrate the CSF?

A

yes

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15
Q

What is the main adverse effect of carbapenems?

A

GI issues

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16
Q

What amino acid sequence is vancomycin specific for?

A

D-ala-D-ala

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17
Q

What are the three toxicities of vancomycin?

A

oto

nephro

redman

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18
Q

What is the MOA of bacitracin? What two types of applications is bacitracin found? Gram negative, positives of both?

A

prevent incorporation of amino acids into cell wall

topical and ophthalmic

both

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19
Q

What is the MOA of fosfomycin?

A

prevent synthesis of UDP-N-acetylmuramic acid

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20
Q

What condition is fosfomycin commonly used to treat?

A

UTIs

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21
Q

What step of protein synthesis do aminoglycosides inhibit?

A

initiation complex

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22
Q

What drug class are aminoglycosides often used in combination with? To treat what?

A

β-lactam

gram-negative infections

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23
Q

What ribosomal subunit to aminoglycosides bind?

A

30S

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24
Q

What are the two most common toxicities of aminoglycosides?

A

nephrotoxic

ototoxic

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25
Q

What ribosomal subunit do macrolides bind? What step do they block?

A

50s

translocation to P-site

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26
Q

What are the three macrolides we have to know for this test?

A

Erythromycin

Clarithromycin

Azithromycin

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27
Q

What is the main adverse effect of macrolides?

A

GI issues

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28
Q

What ribosomal subunit do tetracyclines bind? What step do they block?

A

30S

binding of tRNA to A-site

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29
Q

What are the two main adverse effects of tetracyclines?

A

sequester calcium

photosensitivity

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30
Q

What is the main use of clindamycin?

A

soft tissue infections causes by staph or strep

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31
Q

What ribosomal subunit does clindamycin bind?

A

50S

inhibit translocation to P-site

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32
Q

What are the two MOAs of clindamycin?

A

prevent binding to A site

prevent peptide elongation

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33
Q

According to Henry, what two serious infections is chloramphenical reserved for?

A

RMSF and Typhus

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34
Q

Which ribosomal subunit does chloramphenicol bind? Which step of protein synthesis is blocked?

A

50S

blocks peptidyl elogation

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35
Q

What are the two toxicities of chloramphenicol? Why?

A

myelosuppression

Gray Baby Syndrome –> lack of glucoronidation

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36
Q

Which ribosomal subunit does Linezolid bind? What is the MOA of linezolid?

A

50S

prevent formation of bond between ribosome and fMet-tRNA

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37
Q

What antibiotic that interferes with protein synthesis is reserved for severe infections?

A

Linezolid

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38
Q

What is the toxicity of Linezolid?

A

myelosuppression

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39
Q

What enzyme do sulfonamides inhibit? What intermediate do they compete with?

A

Dihydropterate Synthase

PABA

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40
Q

What product do sulfonamides interfere with the synthesis of?

A

Dihydrofolate

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41
Q

What is the main adverse effect of sulfonamides? What are the three sulfonamide antibiotics?

A

photosensitivity

Sulfadiazine/sulfamethoxazole/sulfamethizole

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42
Q

What drug functions like trimethoprim? What is the MOA of these drugs?

A

Pyrimethamine

interfere with bacterial DHFR

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43
Q

What are the two main uses for TMP/SMX?

A

UTI

prostatitis

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44
Q

Are fluoroquinolones successful against gram negatives, positives or both?

A

both

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45
Q

What is the MOA of fluoroquinolones?

A

inhibit topo. II

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46
Q

What are the three main side effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

GI disturbances

QT prolongation

bind divalent cations

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47
Q

What is the MOA of daptomycin?

A

depolarizes bacterial cell membrane

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48
Q

Is daptomycin effectvie against gram-positives or gram-negatives?

A

gram-positives

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49
Q

What organ is effected by Daptomycin?

A

skeletal muscles

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50
Q

What is the MOA of polymyxin B?

A

detergent

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51
Q

Is polymyxin B effective against gram positives or gram negatives?

A

gram negatives

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52
Q

What component of the cell membrane does Polymyxin B bind to particularly well?

A

LPS

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53
Q

What two drugs are sued to treat an uncomplicated skin infection? What if there is an allergy?

A

Penicillin or 1st gen. cephalosporin

vanc. or clindamycin

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54
Q

What two drugs are used to treat a skin infection if it is complicated?

A

penicillin + lactamse inhibitor

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55
Q

What three drugs are used to treat MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

Linezolid

Daptomycin

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56
Q

What three drugs are used to treat osteomyelitis empirically?

A

vancomycin

ceftriaxone

cefepime

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57
Q

What is used to treat osteomyelitis in surgeries?

A

penicillin + lactamse inhibitors

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58
Q

What drug is used to treat septic arthritis empirically?

A

ceftriaxone

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59
Q

Which antibiotic works well on adherent bacteria especially in a joint?

A

Rifampin

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60
Q

What drug is used to treat acute sinusitis?

A

augmentin

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61
Q

What two drugs are used to treat pharyngitis?

A

penicillin or amoxicillin

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62
Q

What drug is used to treat community acquired pneumonia?

A

macrolide

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63
Q

What two drugs are used to treat hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

β-lactam (+) macroldie

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64
Q

What two drugs are used to treat MRSA pneumonia?

A

vancomycin and linezolid

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65
Q

What drug is used to treat ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

ceftriaxone

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66
Q

What drug combination is used to treat cystitis?

A

TMP/SMX

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67
Q

What drug combination is used to treat pyelonephritis? In the kidney?

A

TMP/SMX

Fluroquinolone

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68
Q

What drug is used to treat complicated UTI and prostatitis?

A

Fluroquinolone

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69
Q

What two drugs are used to treat intra-abdominal infections?

A

Ticeracillin and clavulunate

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70
Q

What drug combination is used to treat bacterial meningitis?

A

ceftriaxone/cefotaxime + vanc.

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71
Q

What drug combination is used to treat neonatal meningitis?

A

ampicillin + cephalosporin + gentamicin

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72
Q

What drug combination is used to treat sepsis?

A

cefepime + vancomycin

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73
Q

What drug combination is used to treat endocarditis?

A

ceftriaxone + vancomycin

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74
Q

What drug combination is used to treat fever and neutropenia?

A

ciprofloxacin + augmentin

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75
Q

What three drugs are used to treat enterococci?

A

linezolid

daptomycin

tigecycline

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76
Q

What cells does TB reproduce in? Is TB dormant or active inside a granuloma?

A

macrophages

dormant

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77
Q

Is INH cidal or static? What enzyme activates INH?

A

-cidal

Kat G

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78
Q

What cells can INH penetrate?

A

macrophages

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79
Q

Is INH more effective in MTB or MAC?

A

MTB

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80
Q

What is the MOA of INH?

A

inhibits synthesis of mycolic acid

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81
Q

What enzyme activates INH?

A

KatG

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82
Q

What type of people can develop peripheral neuropathy to INH?

A

slow acetylators

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83
Q

Other than peripheral neuropathy, atients taking INH can develop what other side effect? What exacerbates this side effect?

A

hepatitis

alcohol

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84
Q

What is the MOA of rifampin? Via what protein?

A

inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

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85
Q

Is rifampin cidal or static?

A

-cidal

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86
Q

Which anti-TB drug is a potent p450 enzyme inducer?

A

Rifampin

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87
Q

Which anti-TB drug is specifically used in HIV(+) individuals?

A

Rifabutin

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88
Q

Which anti-TB drug is used almost exclusively in combination with other drugs?

A

Pyrazinamide

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89
Q

Which drug is particularly effective in the acidic environment of macrophages?

A

Pyrazinamide

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90
Q

What is the main side effect of Pyrazinamide?

A

hyperuricemia

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91
Q

What is the MOA of ethambutol?

A

inhibits arabinosyl transferases

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92
Q

Which anti-TB drug is used to treat MAC?

A

Ethambutol

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93
Q

Which anti-TB drug can produce red/green color blindness?

A

Ethambutol

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94
Q

Which aminoglycoside can be used against TB?

A

Streptomycin

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95
Q

Which has greater activity against MAC, rifampin or rifabutin?

A

rifabutin

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96
Q

What is the special enzyme possessed by bacteria and protozoa that render them susceptible to metronidazole?

A

pyruvate:ferredoxin oxireductase

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97
Q

What four drugs are known for their disulfarim like activities?

A

metronidazole

cephalosporins

griseofulvin

procarbazine

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98
Q

Which three specific bugs are primarily treated by metronidazole?

A

trich and giardia

trophozytes entamoeba histolytica

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99
Q

Which two drugs are used to treat the cysts of Entamoeba?

A

iodoquinol or Paromomycin

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100
Q

What type of drug is iodoquinol? Effective against?

A

halogenated hydroxyquinolone

cysts and trophozites

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101
Q

What is the only location where iodoquinol is effective?

A

lumen

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102
Q

What is the toxicity of iodomycin? What population?

A

optic atrophy

kids

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103
Q

What type of drug is paromomycin? Effective against?

A

aminoglycoside

trophozite and cyst

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104
Q

What bug is responsible for diarrhea or HIV?

A

cryptosporidium parvum

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105
Q

What drug is used to treat C. parvum?

A

Nitazoxanide

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106
Q

What is the supposed MOA of Nitazoxanide?

A

interferes with PFOR

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107
Q

What is the Tx for P. jirovecci?

A

TMP/SMX

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108
Q

What drug combination is used for T. gondii?

A

Pyrimethamine/Sulfadiazine

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109
Q

What enzyme do Sulfonamides inhibit? This leads to a decreased production of what compound?

A

Dihydropterate Synthase

Folate

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110
Q

What two drugs belong to the class of Diaminopyrimidines?

A

trimethoprim and pyrimethamine

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111
Q

What is the MOA of pyrimethamine and trimethoprim?

A

inhibit DHFR

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112
Q

What are the two drugs used to treat toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine

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113
Q

What drug combination is used to treat P. jirovecii?

A

TMP/SMX

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114
Q

What are the two most common side effects of quinine? What stage?

A

Cinchonism and hypoglycemia

erythrocytic

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115
Q

Which anti-malarial is effective against all species?

A

Mefloquine

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116
Q

What is primaquine effective against?

A

liver stages of ovale and vivax

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117
Q

Patients being treated with what anti-malarial have to be first screened for G6PDase status?

A

Primaquine

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118
Q

What is the only drug effective against falciparum?

A

Malarone

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119
Q

What is artemisinin used for?

A

resistant species of falciparum

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120
Q

What are the two side effects of Benzimidazoles?

A

GI and CNS

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121
Q

When are benzimidazoles contraindicated?

A

pregnancy

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122
Q

What drug is used to treat Strongyloidiases? What is the MOA of this drug?

A

Ivermectin

muscle paralysis

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123
Q

What three organisms is praziquantel used to treat? MOA of this drug?

A

cestodes and flukes and cysticercosis

increase Ca2+ permeability

124
Q

Does amphotericin B have good or poor CNS penetration? What is amphotericin B complexed to?

A

poor

deoxycholic acid

125
Q

What is the main toxicity of amphotericin B?

A

nephrotoxic

126
Q

Does amphotericin B produce vasodilation or vasoconstriction? Afferent or efferent?

A

vasoconstriction, afferent

127
Q

What is the MOA of all azoles?

A

inhibit the enzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol

128
Q

Which azole inhibits p450?

A

Ketoconazole

129
Q

Which azole has the widest therapeutic index? What bug is fluconazole particularly good at eliminating?

A

Fluconazole

Candidiasis

130
Q

Which drug has replaced amphotericin B as the drug of choice for disseminated aspergillosis?

A

Voriconazole

131
Q

Which organism is almost the sole exclusive use for flucytosine?

A

Cryptococcus

132
Q

What is the main side effect of flucytosine?

A

bone marrow suppression

133
Q

What is the MOA of echinocandins? Which two fungi are echinocandins used to treat?

A

inhibit synthesis of β-glucans

Candidia and Aspergillus

134
Q

What is the common suffix for all echinocandins?

A

-fungin

135
Q

Which two anti-fungals get concentrated in the keratin? What does this mean?

A

Griseofulvin and terbinafine

prolonged function

136
Q

What is the MOA of all Allyamines?

A

inhibit activity of squalene epoxidase

137
Q

What class of drug is nystatin?

A

polyene

138
Q

What enzyme activates acyclovir?

A

viral thymidine kinase

139
Q

What is the MOA of acyclovir?

A

inhibits viral DNA synthase

140
Q

What is the MOA of foscarnet? Requires phosphorylation?

A

occupies pyrophosphate site on HSV DNA polymerase

no

141
Q

When is Foscarnet used?

A

when resistance to acyclovir is developed in HSV/CMV

142
Q

What ezyme activates gangciclovir?

A

CMV UL97

143
Q

What is the MOA of Oseltamivir?

A

inhibits neuroaminidase

144
Q

How old do kids have to be to be given Oseltamivir?

A

older than 1 yr

145
Q

How old does one have to be to use zanamivir?

A

7 years

146
Q

How is zanamivir administered?

A

inhalation

147
Q

How is Peramivir administered? MOA?

A

IV

Neuroaminidase inhbitor

148
Q

What protein is inhibited by Amantidine and Rinantadine?

A

Influenza A M2

149
Q

What is the function of Influenza A M2?

A

nucleocapsid release

150
Q

What drug is used to treat RSV and HCV?

A

Ribavirin

151
Q

What is ribavirin an analogue of?

A

Guanosine

152
Q

What is the MOA of paritaprevir? What is the name of this protein?

A

inhibits HCV protease

NS3/4A

153
Q

What is the MOA of Ledipasvir? What drug is Ledispavir coadministered with?

A

inhibits NS5A protein of HCV

Sofosbuvir

154
Q

What is the MOA of ombitasvir? What two drugs is Ombitasvir combined with to treat HCV?

A

inhibits NS5A protein of HCV

Paritaprevir and Ritonavir

155
Q

What is the MAO of sofosbuvir?

A

HCV RNA polymerase inhibitor

156
Q

What is the MOA of dasabuvir?

A

non-nucleoside inhibitor of RNA polymerase

157
Q

Which NRTI is associated with a life-threating allergic rxn and must be screened? What is the haplotype being screened?

A

Abacavir

HLA-B5707

158
Q

What is Lamivudine an analogue of? How is lamivudine administered?

A

Cytosine

orally

159
Q

What is Emtricitabine? How is emtricitabine administered?

A

fluorinated analogue of lamivudine

orally

160
Q

What are the two advantages of Emtricitabine over Lamivudine?

A

increase half-life

increase bioavailability

161
Q

In which four conditions is Emtricitabine contraindicated?

A

preg/kids/liver/renal

162
Q

What is Tenofovir an analogue of? Administered?

A

adenosine

orally

163
Q

What is Zimovudine an analogue of?

A

deoxythymidine

164
Q

What are the two NNRTIs?

A

Nevirapine and Efavirenz

165
Q

What is the most severe rxn of NNRTIs?

A

Steven Johnson Syndrome

166
Q

How is Efavirenz administered?

A

orally

167
Q

Which NNRTI induces p450?

A

Efavirenz

168
Q

Which protease inhibitors p450?

A

Atazanavir and Rotinavir

169
Q

Which protease inhibitor is used as a booster? Which requires acid for absorption?

A

ritonavir

Atazanavir

170
Q

When is Darunavir used? Route of administration?

A

protease resistant viruses

oral

171
Q

What is the MOA of maraviroc? Route of administration? Screening required?

A

CCR5 antagonist

oral

CCR5 tropism

172
Q

What is the MOA of Enfuvirtide?

A

fusion inhibitor

173
Q

What is the only anti-retro viral administered parenterally?

A

Enfuvirtide

174
Q

When are the two indications for the use of Enfurvitide?

A

experienced patients

patients with HIV replication in the presence of ART

175
Q

What is the MOA of Raltegravir?

A

integrase inhibitor

176
Q

What is the MOA of Elvitegravir? What drug does this need to be coadministered with?

A

integrase inhibitor

cobicistat

177
Q

What is the MOA of Dolutegravir?

A

integrase inhibitor

178
Q

What are the two combinations of ARV therapies?

A

one integrase inhibitor + two NRTIs

one protease inhibitor + two NRTIs

179
Q

How is resistance to daptomycin generated? Which amino acid?

A

addition of positive charge to membrane

Lysine

180
Q

How is resistance to tetracyclines generated?

A

efflux pump

181
Q

How is resistance against metronidazole generated?

A

mutations in activating enzyme

182
Q

How is resistance generated against aminoglycosides?

A

chemical modification of the antibiotic

183
Q

Which two classes of drugs are susceptible to β-lactamases?

A

penicillins and cephalosporins

184
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by TMP?

A

DHFR

185
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by Sulfonamides?

A

Dihydropterate Synthase

186
Q

What is high dose aspirin used for?

A

anti-inflammatory

187
Q

What is low dose aspirin used for?

A

anti-pyretic

analgesic

188
Q

What property does acetominophen not possess?

A

anti-inflammatory

189
Q

What two properties does acetominophen possess?

A

anti-pyretic and analgesic

190
Q

What receptor does Capsaicin activate?

A

Vanilloid

191
Q

What does prolonged activation of the vanilloid receptor cause?

A

decrease release of substance P

192
Q

What drug do NSAIDs inhibit the activity of?

A

diuretics

193
Q

Which NSAID is used to treat gout?

A

indomethacin

194
Q

How does colchicine aid in the treatment of gout?

A

inhibits Neutrophil migration

195
Q

What is the most severe side-effect of colchicine?

A

diarrhea

196
Q

What are the two Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors?

A

Allopurinol

Febuxostat

197
Q

What drug acts like probenecid?

A

Sulfipyrazone

198
Q

What generations of cephalosporin enters the CNS?

A

3rd and 4th

199
Q

What antibiotic does not penetrate the CNS?

A

vancomycin

200
Q

Are aminoglycosides cidal at low or high concentrations?

A

high

201
Q

What drug class does Amikacin belong to?

A

Aminoglycoside

202
Q

What two species are found in MAC?

A

avium and intracellularle

203
Q

How is MAC transmitted?

A

ingestion of contaminated food or water

204
Q

Which form of TB is Isoniazid not particularly useful for?

A

MAC

205
Q

What other bug is Rifampin useful for?

A

Chlamydia

206
Q

What is pyrayinamide an analogue of?

A

nicotinamide

207
Q

What does Brittingham say the toxicity of Ethambutol is?

A

hyperuricemia

208
Q

What three drugs are used to treat MAC?

A

Macrolide

Rifampin

Ethambutol

209
Q

What two drugs are used for MAC prophylaxis in HIV patients?

A

clathiromycin or azithromycin

210
Q

What three drugs are used to treat Leprosy?

A

dapsone

rifampin

clofazime

211
Q

What is dapsone an analogue of? What does dapsone inhibit the synthesis of?

A

PABA

folate

212
Q

Which anti-TB drug can exacerbate the hemolytic anemia of G6PDase deficiency?

A

Dapsone

213
Q

Which antibiotic is effective against malaria? What is the side effect of the drug?

A

Doxycycline

photosensitivity

214
Q

What is the drug of choice for pinworm? MOA of this drug?

A

Pyrantel Pamoate

nAchR depolarizing agent

215
Q

Where does Sporotrix schenkii come from?

A

rose bushes

216
Q

According to Brittingham, what are the four dimorphic fungi?

A

Histoplasma

Blastomycoses

Coccidiodes

Sporotrix

217
Q

What are the two polyenes?

A

Amphotericin B

Nystatin

218
Q

What is the common suffix for all azoles?

A

-conazole

219
Q

What is the common suffix for all echinocandins?

A

-fungin

220
Q

What does Amphotericin B bind?

A

ergosterol

221
Q

Which fungi is posaconazole particularly effective at treating?

A

Aspergillus

222
Q

What are the two allyamines?

A

Terbiniafine

naftifine

223
Q

Which yeast branches at 45 degrees?

A

Aspergillus

224
Q

How is acyclovir administered? Used for?

A

oral or IV

herpes or VZV

225
Q

What is the organ toxicity of acyclovir?

A

nephrotoxic

226
Q

What is valcyclovir a prodrug of? What is the benefit?

A

acyclovir

more bioavailable

227
Q

What is the route of administration of foscarnet?

A

IV only

228
Q

What is the toxicity of foscarnet?

A

nephrotoxic

229
Q

Which virus is gangcyclovir particularly useful for?

A

CMV

230
Q

How is gangcyclovir administered?

A

IV and then orally

231
Q

What is the prodrug of gangciclovir? What is its advantage?

A

Valgangciclovir

more bioavailable

232
Q

Is influenza RNA or DNA?

A

RNA

233
Q

Which influenza isotypes is oseltamivir effective against?

A

A and B

234
Q

When is Zanamivir contraindicated?

A

respiratory issues

235
Q

What enzyme activates Ribavirin?

A

Adenosine Kinase

236
Q

How is Ribavirin administered for RSV?

A

aerosolized

237
Q

What is the MOA of Simeprevir?

A

inhibits HCV NS3/4A of HCV

238
Q

What is the function of NS5A of HCV?

A

required for viral RNA replication

239
Q

Which is the common suffix for all Protease Inhibitors?

A

-Navir

240
Q

What is the common suffix for all Integrase Inhibitors?

A

-Gravir

241
Q

What other virus may NRTIs be useful in treating?

A

HBV

242
Q

What is the administration route of Abacavir?

A

oral

243
Q

What is Zidovudine an analogue of? Administered?

A

Deoxythymidine

orally

244
Q

What are the two uses for indomethacin?

A

Gout and ankylosing spondylitis

245
Q

What does SPOK stand for?

A

Sulindac

Piroxicam

Oxaprozin

Ketorolac

246
Q

How does methotrexate improve the symptoms of RA?

A

inhibits Tcell activation

247
Q

Why is cyclosporine used to treat RA?

A

inhibits production of IL1 and IL2

248
Q

Why is leflunomide used to treat RA? Which enzyme?

A

inhibits ribonucleotide production

Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase

249
Q

Which two antimalarials are used to treat RA?

A

chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine

250
Q

What are the two anti-TNF drugs used for RA?

A

Etanercept and infliximab

251
Q

What is the MOA of anakinra?

A

IL1 inhibitor

252
Q

Which two β-blockers are used to treat migraines?

A

Propranalol and metoprolol

253
Q

Which TCA is used to treat a migraine?

A

Amitriptyline

254
Q

Which two anti-epileptics are used to treat migraines?

A

valproate and topiramate

255
Q

Which three anti-emetics are used to treat migraines?

A

Metochlopromide

Chlorpromazine

Prochlorperazine

256
Q

Which two ergot derivatives are used for migraines?

A

Ergotamine

Dihydroergotamine

257
Q

What is the MOA that ergotamine and dihydroergotamine can improve the symptoms of a migraine? Via what receptor? What nerve afferents?

A

vasoconstriction

5HT1D

Trigeminal

258
Q

Which class of drugs with a common suffix is used to treat migraines? Via which receptors?

A

-Triptans

5HT1B and 5HT1D

259
Q

Which two viruses can Ribivarin treat?

A

HCV and RSV

260
Q

Which azole requires acid for absorption?

A

Itraconazole

261
Q

What specific interleukin molecule is downregulated by steroids?

A

IL2

262
Q

Do glucocorticoids downregulate Bcells or Tcells more?

A

Bcells

263
Q

What is considered low dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A
264
Q

What is considered medium dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A

7.5 - 30 mg

265
Q

What is considered high dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A

30-100

266
Q

What is considered very high dose glucocorticoid therapy?

A

> 100

267
Q

What is considered a glucocorticoid pulse?

A

> 250

268
Q

What does cyclosporin bind? What does this form a complex with?

A

cyclophilin

calcineurin

269
Q

Which interleukin is not produced because of cyclosporines actions?

A

IL2

270
Q

What is the MOA of tacrolimus?

A

same as cyclosporine

271
Q

What drug is easier to moniter the blood levels of, tacrolimus or cyclosporine?

A

tacrolimus

272
Q

What does azathioprine get converted into?

A

6MP

273
Q

What are the two MOAs of azathioprine as an immunosuppressant?

A

inhibit lymphocyte DNA

inhibit de novo purine synthesis

274
Q

What two viruses pop up during azathioprine use?

A

HSV and VZV

275
Q

Mycophenolate inhibits the activity of what enzyme?

A

IMP dehydrogenase

276
Q

Mycophenolate inhibits the production of what nucleoside?

A

guanine

277
Q

What virus pops up during the use of mycophenolate?

A

CMV

278
Q

When is mycophenolate contraindicated?

A

pregnancy

279
Q

Which immunosuppressant binds mTOR? Which cell cycle progression checkpoint is blocked?

A

Sirolimus

G1/S

280
Q

What are the two mechanisms by which Antithymocyte Globulin suppresses the immune system?

A

complement mediated

sequestering thymocyte surface receptors

281
Q

What is the main side-effect of thymocyte globulin? How is this suppressed?

A

cytokine storm

glucocorticoids

282
Q

Which cells express CD3?

A

Bcells

Tcells

283
Q

What drug is a CD3 antibody?

A

Muromonab

284
Q

What is the function of Muromonab?

A

to treat glucocorticoid resistant rejection

285
Q

What are the three anti-TNF agents?

A

Inflixamab

Etanercept

Adalimumab

286
Q

Which anti-TNF agent is a human and mouse chimera?

A

infliximab

287
Q

Which anti-TNF agent is a recombinant human IgG?

A

Adalimumab

288
Q

Which anti-TNF agent contains the human anti-TNF and Fc IgG?

A

Etanercept

289
Q

What are albendazole and mebendazole effective against?

A

all worms

290
Q

Can Oseltamivir be used for H1N1?

A

yes

291
Q

What are oseltamivir and zanamivir analogues of?

A

sialic acid

292
Q

What is the function of NS3/4A?

A

cleavage of polypeptides required for viral infection

293
Q

What is the function of IL2?

A

Tcell growth factor

294
Q

Which Immunosuppressant can produce hirsutism?

A

cyclosporine

295
Q

What is the function of echinacea? Whe should echinacea not be used?

A

improve immune function

not used = immune dysfunction

296
Q

What is the function of gingko biloba? Via what receptor?

A

improve memory function

5HT1A

297
Q

What are the two main side effects of ginko biloba?

A

anti-platelet

seizures

298
Q

What are the three main uses of garlic?

A

HTN

cholesterol

athesclerosis

299
Q

What is the main side effect of garlic?

A

increased bleeding risk

300
Q

What are the two uses of ginseng?

A

boost stamina and boost immune system

301
Q

What is the use of milk thistle?

A

liver cirrhosis

302
Q

What is the use of St. Johns WOrt?

A

anti-depressant

303
Q

What is the use of saw palmetto?

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

304
Q

When should melatonin not be used?

A

those trying to conceive

305
Q

What is the use of butterbur and feverfew?

A

migraines

306
Q

What is the use of CoQ10?

A

statin induced myopathy

307
Q

What vitamin does CoQ10 resemble?

A

Vitamin K

Pharm (12 decks)

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