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Pharm > Test 5 > Flashcards

Test 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What four antibiotics are used to treat acne?

A

Clindamycin and erythromycin

Metronidazole and sodium sulfacetamide

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2
Q

What are the two MOAs of Azelaic Acid?

A

reduces keratinization

keratolysis

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3
Q

What is the MOA of salicyclic acid?

A

breaks hydrogen bonds in stratum corneum

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4
Q

What is the MOA of tretinoin? What is tretinoin inactivated by?

A

induces mitosis that extrudes acne

benzoyl peroxide

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5
Q

What is the difference between adapalene and tretinoin?

A

adapalene can be complexed with benzoyl peroxide

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6
Q

What is the MOA of accutane?

A

induces apoptosis of sebum producing glands

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7
Q

What is the MOA of tazarotene?

A

reduces inflammation

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8
Q

What is Acitretin used to treat? What increases acitretins half-life?

A

psoriasis

alcohol

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9
Q

What is the MOA of Calcipotriene? Used to treat?

A

inhibits proliferation of keratinocytes

Psoriasis

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10
Q

Is hydrocortisone weak, intermediate or strong?

A

weak

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11
Q

Is Mometasone furoate weak, intermediate or strong?

A

intermediate

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12
Q

Is Clobetasol proprionate weak, intermediate or strong?

A

strong

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13
Q

What are the two UV active compounds?

A

Methoxsalen and Trioxsalen

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14
Q

What drug functions like cromolyn?

A

Nedocromil

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15
Q

What are H1 Antagonists?

A

Inverse agonists

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16
Q

Which anti-histamine can act as a local anesthetic?

A

Promethezine

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17
Q

Which anti-histamine has anti-serotonin properties?

A

Cyproheptadine

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18
Q

Which four antihistamines are used for motion sickness?

A

Diphenhydrimine/hydroxyzine/Promethazine/Meclizine

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19
Q

Which three antihistamines are known for their Highest sedation?

A

Diphenhydramine/promethazine/hydroxyzine

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20
Q

Which two antihistamines are known for their anticholinergic activity?

A

Diphenhydramine/promethazine

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21
Q

Which antihistamine is known for its anti-alpha-adrenergic?

A

Promethazine

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22
Q

Antihistamines can interfere with what other group of drugs? Specifically, what effects?

A

MAOIs

anti-muscarinic effects

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23
Q

Which tricyclic can block histamine receptors? Which isotypes?

A

Doxepin

H1 and H2

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24
Q

What type of antagonist is ketotifen? What other cell type can it stabilize?

A

H1

stabilize basophil and mast cells

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25
Q

What is the function of 11βHSD2? What type of tissues is this enzyme found?

A

convert cortisol into inactive cortisone

mineralocorticoid

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26
Q

What is the function of 11βHSD1?

A

convert cortisone into cortisol

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27
Q

What enzyme does Wauson say ketoconazole can inhibit?

A

17α-hydroxylase

11β-hydroxylase

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28
Q

What drug does Wauson say can inhibit 11β-Hydroxylase?

A

Metyrapone

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29
Q

What are the four inhaled glucocorticoids?

A

Budesonide

Fluticasone

Mometasone

Triamcinolone

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30
Q

What is the relationship between inhaled glucocorticoids and β2 adrenergic receptors?

A

increase the synthesis of each other

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31
Q

Which glucocorticoid has low protein binding?

A

dexamethasone

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32
Q

What are the three thyroid drugs?

A

Levothyroxine/Liothyronine/Liotrix

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33
Q

What is levothyroxine composed of?

A

T4

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34
Q

What is Liothyronine composed of?

A

T3

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35
Q

What is Liotrix composed of?

A

T3/T4 mix

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36
Q

What are the two anti-thyroid agents? MOA?

A

Methimazole and Propylthiouracil

inhibit TPO

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37
Q

Which anti-thyroid is preferred during pregnancy? Why?

A

Propylthiouracil

more protein bound

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38
Q

What are the three anion thyroid inhibitors? MOA?

A

Perchlorate/Pertechtenate/Thiocyanate

inhibit uptake of iodide

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39
Q

Why can propranalol be used to treat hyperthyroidism?

A

inhibit the conversion of T4 into T3

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40
Q

What cell synthesizes tesosterone in men?

A

Leydig

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41
Q

What enzyme is expressed in Leydig cells? What rxn does this enzyme catalyze?

A

17-βHSD

converts androstenedione into testosterone

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42
Q

Is testosterone bound to albumin bioavailable or not bioavailable?

A

bioavailable

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43
Q

Is testosterone bound to SHBG bioavailable or not bioavailable?

A

not bioavailable

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44
Q

What does Testosterone do to blood glucose levels?

A

Lowers

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45
Q

What does Testosterone do to bone?

A

enhances formation

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46
Q

What does estradiol do to epiphysial plates?

A

close them

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47
Q

What is defective during Primary Hypogonadism?

A

testicular defect

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48
Q

Is primary or secondary Hypogonadism hypergonadotropic?

A

primary

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49
Q

Where is the defect in Secondary Hypogonadism?

A

hypothalamus/pituitary

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50
Q

Where are testosterone esters used?

A

replacement in hypogonadal men

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51
Q

What are Alkylated Testosterones used for?

A

anabolic steroids

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52
Q

Do testosterone esters or or alkylated testosterone carry a higher risk for hepatic cancers?

A

Alkylated

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53
Q

What is the MOA of flutamide and bicalutimide?

A

androgen receptor antagonists

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54
Q

In what two situations are flutamide and bicalutimide used?

A

prostate cancer

testosterone surge due to GnRH agonists

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55
Q

What is the main MOA of enzalutimide?

A

androgen receptor antagonist

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56
Q

What are the three additional MOAs of enzalutamide?

A

decrease txn

decrease DNA binding

blocks coactivator

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57
Q

What are the two GnRH agonsits?

A

Leoproldie and Goserelin

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58
Q

What drug should be co-administered with a GnRH analogue? Why?

A

androgen receptor antagonist

prevent testosterone surge

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59
Q

What is the GnRH antagonist?

A

Degarelix

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60
Q

What drug blocks 17α-Hydroxylase? What is the main side-effect? Used to treat?

A

Abiraterone

HTN

Metastatic prostate cancer

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61
Q

What class of drugs are used to treat alopecia?

A

5α-Reductase Inhibitors

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62
Q

What are two side effects of 5α-Reductase Inhibitors?

A

Gynocomastia and Impotence

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63
Q

What two patients dont respond well to Sildenafil?

A

nerve damage (diabetes)

Radical prostatectomy

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64
Q

What is the function of the ethinyl group?

A

increases half-life

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65
Q

What does estrogen do to the blood?

A

increase plasma proteins

decrease anti-thrombin

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66
Q

Why do estrogens cause bloating?

A

loss of intravascular fluid

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67
Q

What is the function of medroxyprogesterone?

A

long acting contraceptive

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68
Q

Why does progesterone cause a decrease in uterine contractions?

A

progesterone causes a decrease in prostaglandin synthesis

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69
Q

Which molecule is responsible for glucose intolerance during pregnancy?

A

progesterone

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70
Q

What has a poor effect on lipids, estrogens or progesterones?

A

progesterones

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71
Q

What is the MOA of clomiphene?

A

estrogen receptor partial agonist

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72
Q

What are two adverse effects of clomiphene?

A

multiple births

hot flashes

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73
Q

Where is tamoxifen an agonist?

A

bone

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74
Q

Where is tamoxifen a partial agonist?

A

endometrium

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75
Q

Where is tamoxifen an antagonist?

A

uterus and HPG

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76
Q

Where is raloxifen an agonist?

A

bone

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77
Q

Where is raloxifene an antagonist?

A

uterus

breast

HPG

78
Q

Why can Danazol cause hirsutism?

A

metabolite is an androgen

79
Q

What are the two uses of danazol?

A

fibrocystic change

endometriosis

80
Q

What are the two aromatase inhibitors?

A

Anastrozole

letrozole

81
Q

What is the MOA of mifepristone? Timeframe?

A

progesterone antagonist

less than 7 weeks

82
Q

What is the MOA of Ulipristal? Timeframe?

A

progesterone partial agonist

less than 5 days

83
Q

What effect do the anti-progesterones have on uterine contractions? Why?

A

decrease uterine contractions

decrease prostaglandin production

84
Q

What GLUT transporter does insulin up-regulate?

A

GLUT 4

85
Q

What is the MOA of metformin? Via what protein?

A

inhibit hepatic output of glucose

AMPK activation

86
Q

What is the main side effect of metformin?

A

diarrhea

87
Q

What are the three sulfonylureas?

A

Glipizide

glyburide

Glimepiride

88
Q

What is the MOA of the sulonylureas?

A

inhibition of ATP sensitive K+ channel resulting in insulin release

89
Q

What are the two Meglitinides?

A

Repaglinide

Nateglinide

90
Q

What is the MOA of Repaglinide and Nateglinide?

A

same as sulfonylureas

91
Q

What are the two disaccharidase inhibitors? What enzyme do they inhibit?

A

Acarbose and Miglitol

Glucosidase

92
Q

What are the two Thiazolidinediones?

A

Pioglitazone

Rosiglitazone

93
Q

What is the MOA of Pioglitazone and Rosiglitazone? Via what protein?

A

increase expression of GLUT4

activation of PPAR

94
Q

What is the MOA of pramlintide?

A

inhibit glucagon release

95
Q

What are the two incretins? MOA?

A

Exanetide and Liraglutide

promote secretion of insulin

96
Q

What is the MOA for all Dipeptidyl Peptidase inhibitors?

A

inhibit incretin degradation

97
Q

What is the common suffix for all Dipeptidyl Peptidase inhibitors?

A

-Gliptin

98
Q

What is the MOA of the -gliptins?

A

Inhibit incretin degradation

99
Q

What property of ADME is least effected by aging?

A

absorption

100
Q

Is phase I or Phase II metabolism more effected in elderly? Increase or decrease?

A

Phase I

decrease

101
Q

Does anything happen to the maintenance dose of Phase II drugs?

A

no

102
Q

Does anything happen to the maintenance dose of Phase I drugs?

A

decrease

103
Q

What is the purpose for the Cockroft-Gault equation?

A

account for the decreasing muscle mass in elderly

104
Q

Are elderly more sensitive or less sensitive to opioids?

A

more sensitive

105
Q

What is the MOA of isotretinoin?

A

induces apoptosis of sebum producing cells

106
Q

What is the IgE receptor?

A

Fc-Gamma-R1

107
Q

Which histamine receptor mediates itch?

A

H1

108
Q

Which histamine receptor mediates bronchoconstriction?

A

H1

109
Q

Which histamine receptor is found in the heart?

A

H2

110
Q

Which selectin does histamine up-regulate?

A

P-selectin

111
Q

What type of drug is Chlorpheniramine?

A

H1 antagonist

112
Q

What type of drug is pyrilamine?

A

H1 antagonist

113
Q

Which anti-histamine can act as a local anesthetic?

A

Promethazine

114
Q

Which anti-histamine can block the D2 receptor?

A

Promethazine

115
Q

Where is the defect during Primary Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

adrenal

116
Q

Where is the defect during Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

decreased ACTH

117
Q

Does dexamethasone bind the MR?

A

no

118
Q

What does high [Iodide] do to thryoid hormone synthesis?

A

high = inhibits

119
Q

What does low [Iodide] do to thryoid hormone synthesis?

A

low = activates

120
Q

What does thyroid hormone do to β-adrenergic receptor levels?

A

increase

121
Q

What does thyroid hormone do to α-adrenergic receptor levels?

A

decrease

122
Q

Which is preferred for thyroid storm, methimazole or propylthiouracil?

A

propylthiouracil

123
Q

What are the two causes of Hypergonadotropic Hypogonadism?

A

Klinefelters and Cryptorchidism

124
Q

What are the two 5α Reductase Inhibitors?

A

Finasteride and Dutasteride

125
Q

Does estrogen or progesterone cause hirsutism?

A

progesteorne

126
Q

Does estrogen or progesterone cause acne?

A

progesterone

127
Q

Does estrogen or progesterone cause poor lipid metabolism?

A

progesterone

128
Q

What is the use of clomiphene?

A

fertility drug

129
Q

What two tissues express GLUT4?

A

muscle and adipocytes

130
Q

What is the legal definition of a poison?

A

LD50 less than 50 mg/Kg

131
Q

What are the two emetics?

A

Apomorphine and Ipecac

132
Q

What two drugs are administered to treat acetylcholine OD?

A

2-PAM and atropine

133
Q

What three drugs are administered to treat cyanide poisoning?

A

sodium nitrite

amyl nitrite

sodium thiosulfate

134
Q

What is the Tx for botulinum toxin?

A

ABC antibodies

135
Q

What is the difference betwen naloxone and naltrexone?

A

naltrexone is longer lasting

136
Q

Exposure of hemoglobin to what two substances can result in methemoglobinemia?

A

nitrites and sulfa drugs

137
Q

What is the Tx for methemoglobinemia?

A

methylene blue

138
Q

Which opiate can cause convulsions? What is the active metabolite responsible for this?

A

Demerol

Meperidine

139
Q

Which layer of the epidermis can act as a reservoir?

A

stratum corneum

140
Q

What is the rationale to use barbiturates to treat hyperthyroidism?

A

increase metabolism of T4

141
Q

What is the rationale to use Bile Acid Sequestrans to treat hyperthyroidism?

A

increase biliary secretion of T4

142
Q

Long term use of what anti-diabetic drug can deplete B12?

A

Metformin

143
Q

What is the MOA of Benzoyl Peroxide?

A

releases O2 that kills anaerobes

144
Q

What are the three MOAs of all retinoids?

A

decrease cohesiveness of epithelial cells

induces mitotic activity

reduces keratinization

145
Q

What two interleukin molecules does Calcipotriene inhibit?

A

IL2 and IL6

146
Q

What type of drug is fludricortisone?

A

mineralocorticoid

147
Q

What does Mifepristone act like at a high dose?

A

glucocorticoid antagonist

148
Q

What can a large dose of glucocorticoids stimulate the synthesis of?

A

gastric acid

149
Q

What can too much thyroid hormone do to the bones in the elderly?

A

osteoporosis

150
Q

What organ can be adversely effected by propylthiouracil?

A

hepatitis

151
Q

What is the side-effect of perchlorate?

A

aplastic anemia

152
Q

What drug is used in combination with Abiraterone?

A

Prednisone

153
Q

Other than erections, what can sildenafil be used for?

A

pulmonary HTN

154
Q

Would estrogen increase or decrease available testosterone? Why?

A

decrease

increase hepatic SHBG levels

155
Q

What is the function of incretins?

A

promote insulin secretion

156
Q

What is the function of the Dipeptidyl Peptidase Inhibitors?

A

breakdown incretins

157
Q

What does capacity limited mean?

A

clearance is a reflection of liver enzyme function

158
Q

What does Flow Limited mean?

A

only dependent on amount of blood reaching liver

159
Q

Would the elderly have an increased or decreased response to β-blockers?

A

decreased

160
Q

According to Wauson, which two drugs have the highest anti-cholinergic activity in the elderly?

A

Tricyclics and Paroxetine

161
Q

What is a synonymous SNP?

A

amino acid is not changed

162
Q

What is a nonsynonymous SNP?

A

amino acid is changed

163
Q

What is CNV?

A

deletion or duplication of a gene

164
Q

What is a population polymorphism?

A

polymorphism that changes across races

165
Q

What is a cosmopolitan polymorphism?

A

polymorphism that changes across populations

166
Q

What three drugs are metabolized by CYP2D6?

A

codeine

paroxetine

tamoxifen

167
Q

Does 2D6 inactivate or activate tamoxifen?

A

Activate

168
Q

Does 2D6 inactivate or activate CODEINE?

A

activate

169
Q

Does 2D6 inactivate or activate paroxetine?

A

inactivate

170
Q

What three drugs are acted on by 2C19?

A

Clopidogrel

omeprazole/Lansoprazole

171
Q

Does 2C19 activate or inactivate Clopidogrel?

A

activate

172
Q

Does 2C19 activate or inactivate Omeprazole?

A

inactivate

173
Q

What Cytp450 acts on warfarin? Activate or Inactivate?

A

2C9

inactivate

174
Q

What two drugs does act on EGFR?

A

Erlotinib and Cetuximab

175
Q

Is 5FU activated or inactivated by DPD?

A

inactivated

176
Q

What does TMPT do to 6MP?

A

inactivate

177
Q

What protein clears simvistatin?

A

SLC01B1

178
Q

What did the ER mutation do during HRT? Kinetics or dynamics?

A

increased HDL increase

dynamics

179
Q

What do ADRB2 mutations produce? Kinetics or dynamics?

A

lesser affinity for albuterol

dynamics

180
Q

Which IL molecule has a poor response to IFN-α?

A

IL28

181
Q

Do mutations in TS effect the pharmacodynamics or pharmacokinetics of 5FU?

A

dynamics

182
Q

Which topical agent can inhibit neutrophils?

A

benzoyl peroxide

183
Q

Which topical agent can inhibit lymphocytes?

A

Calcipotriene

184
Q

What are the two drawbacks to using iodide to suppress thyroid function?

A

only 2-8 weeks suppression

rebound thyrotoxicosis

185
Q

What are the two MOAs of iodide inhibiting thyroid function?

A

inhibit proteolysis of TGB

inhibit organification

186
Q

Which emergency contraceptive is more effective, combined or progestin only?

A

progestin only

187
Q

What are the three 1st generations sulfonylureas?

A

Tolbutamide

Chlorpropramide

Tolazamide

188
Q

What population cant receive Glucosidase Inhibitors?

A

people with GI diseases

189
Q

What is the adverse effect of the -litazones?

A

cardiovascular

190
Q

What is the toxicity of Exenatide and Liraglutide?

A

acute pancreatitis

Pharm (12 decks)

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