Flashcards in Exam 4 Deck (215):
What are the 3 layers of the skin?
Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous
What is the most superficial layer that contains cells, but not blood vessels?
What is the middle layer of skin that is composed of blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, and the accessory organs of skin such as glands and hair follicles?
What is the deepest layer of the skin that is composed of connective tissue?
What are topical skin treatments?
agents applied to a surface; they affect the area to which they are applied
What do systemic skin treatments consist of?
drugs given systemically that affect many areas of the body
What do topical antipruritics do?
provide moderate relief of itching
What are some topical nonsteroidal antipruritics?
Local anesthetics such as lidocaine, tetracaine, benzocaine, and pramoxine
What has soothing and anti-inflammatory effects for the skin?
What are antihistamines?
products containing diphenhydramine calm pain and itching due to allergic reactions and sensitive skin
What are some topical corticosteroids?
hydrocortisone, fluocinolone, triamcinolone, and betamethazone
What is an example of an antiseptic?
What do systemic antipruritics treat?
canine atopy, food allergy dermatitis, flea allergy, contact dermatitis
What are some examples of systemic antipruritics?
cyclosporine and oclacitinib
What is the trade name for cyclosporine?
What is the trade name for oclacitinib?
What is seborrhea characterized by?
abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermis and may be accompanied by increased oil production or not
What is seborrhea accompanied by increased oil production called?
What is seborrhea called when it is not accompanied by oil?
What are keratolytics?
an important group of antiseborrheics
What do keratolytics do?
remove excess keratin and promote loosening of the outer layers of the epidermis
What do keratolytics break down?
the protein structure of the keratin layer, permitting easier removal of this material
What are some examples of topical antiseborrheics?
sulfur, salicylic acid, coal tar, benzoyl peroxide, and selenium sulfide
What are some other agents used to treat skin disorders?
astringents, antiseptics, soaks and dressings, caustics, and fatty acid supplements
What are astringents?
agents that constrict tissues, decrease secretions
What are antiseptics?
substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissue
What are soaks and dressings?
substances applied to areas to draw out fluid or relieve itching
What are caustics?
substances that destroy tissue
What do fatty acid supplements do?
improve condition of skin and hair and reduce pruritus
What is erythropoietin?
a protein made by the kidneys that stimulates the differentiation of bone marrow stem cells
What is erythropoietin used for?
to treat anemia in animals with chronic renal failure
What is sometimes seen with erythropoietin products?
What should you do with erythropoietin products?
refrigerate, do not freeze or shake
What is an example of an erythropoietin product?
What is anemia?
condition in which the blood doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells
What is the cause of anemia?
body doesn't make enough rbc's, loss of blood, body destroys rbc's
What is a treatment for anemia?
iron supplements, blood transfusions
What do anticoagulants do?
inhibit clot formation by inactivating one or more clotting factors
What are anticoagulants used for?
to inhibit clotting in catheters, to prevent blood samples from clotting, to preserve blood transfusions, and to treat emboli
What are some examples of anticoagulants?
heparin, EDTA, coumarin derivatives, aspirin, and blood transfusion anticoagulants
What do anticoagulants not do?
break down existing clots
What anticoagulant is not affective orally?
What is an example of a thrombolytic drug?
What do hemostatic drugs do?
help promote the clotting of blood
How can you administer hemostatic drugs?
parenterally or topically
What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer parenterally?
vitamin K1 and protamine sulfate
What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer topically?
silver nitrate, hemostat powder, gel foam gelatin sponges, thrombogen topical thrombin solution
How do Immunosuppressive drugs work?
by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers
What does Cyclosporine do?
inhibits the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
What is Cyclosporine used for?
managing KCS in dogs and immune-mediated skin disorders
What does Azathioprine do?
affects cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibits T- and B-lymphocytes
What is Azathioprine used for?
mainly in dogs for immune-mediated disease
What does Cyclophosphamide do?
interferes with DNA and RNA replication disrupting nucleic acid function
What is Cyclophosphamide used for?
What are some reasons you would use an immunosuppressive?
2. Atopic dermatitis
3. Pemphigus foliaceus
4. Rhematoid arthritis
5. Excessive allergic response
6. Systemic lupus erythematosus
7. Myasthenia gravis
What is Azathioprine often combined with?
What animal is more likely to develop severe side affects from Azathioprine?
What can you use instead of Azathioprine in cats?
What does Azathioprine cause in cats?
bone marrow suppression and infections
What can corticosteroids cause?
GI upset and ulcers
What are some serious side effects of cyclophosphamide?
bone marrow suppression, gastroenteritis, hemorrhagic cystitis
What are some indications for Cyclosporine?
organ transplants, KCS, Atopic dermatitis, other autoimmune diseases
What are some possible adverse effects of Cyclosporine?
vomiting and nephrotox
What is the trade name for Oclacitinib?
What is Apoquel?
What is Apoquel approved for?
K9 allergic dermatitis
What is Apoquel an excellent alternative for?
What does nonspecific immunity include?
things such as physical barriers, mucus production, inflammation, fever, and phagocytosis
What is nonspecific immunity directed against?
What is the initial defense against invading agents?
When does specific immunity take over?
when the nonspecific mechanisms fail
What is specific immunity targeted for?
a specific antigen
What does specific immunity arise from?
B- and T- lymphocytes
What happens in cell-mediated immunity?
T-lymphocytes directly attack the invading antigen
What is cell-mediated immunity important for?
protecting against intracellular bacterial or viral infections, fungal diseases, and protozoal diseases
What happens in antibody-mediated immunity?
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies that react to antigen
What is antibody-mediated immunity important for?
extracellular phases of systemic viral and bacterial infections and protection against endotoxin and exotoxin-induced disease
When does active immunity arise?
when an animal receives an antigen that activates B- and T-lymphocytes
What does active immunity create?
When does passive immunity arise?
when an animal receives antibodies from another animal
What does passive immunity provide?
immediate onset of immunity, but the animal is protected for a shorter time
When is natural immunity acquired?
during normal biological experiences
How is artificial immunity acquired?
through medical procedures
What is a vaccine?
a suspension of weakened, live, or killed microorganisms administered to prevent, improve, or treat an infectious disease
What types of vaccines are there?
inactivated, attenuated, live, recombinant, polynucleotides, antiserum, autogenous, polyvalent, and monovalent
What are inactivated(killed) vaccines made from?
microbes, microbe parts, or microbe by-products that have been chemically treated or heated to kill the microbe
What do inactivated(killed) contain?
What are adjuvants?
substances that enhance the immune response
How do adjuvants enhance the immune response?
by increasing the stability of the vaccine in the body
What may adjuvants cause?
What are some advantages of inactivated vaccines?
safe; stable; unlikely to cause disease
What are some disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?
need repeated doses; possible reactions
What are some examples of inactivated vaccines?
FeLV and Rabies
What happens in attenuated(modified-live) vaccines?
microorganisms go through a process of losing their virulence, but must be able to replicate within the patient to provide immunity
What are some advantages of attenuated vaccines?
immunity lasts longer; has better efficacy and quicker stimulation of cell-mediated immunity than killed vaccines
What are some disadvantages of attenuated vaccines?
possible abortion; can produce mild forms of the disease; can shed into the environment; proper handling/ storage is critical
What are some examples of attenuated vaccines?
FVR/C/P, Bovine resp.
What are live vaccines made from?
live microorganisms that may be fully virulent
What are some advantages of live vaccines?
fewer doses needed; last longer; inexpensive; adjuvants not needed
What are some disadvantages of live vaccines?
residual virulence that requires carefully handling
What are some examples of live vaccines?
What are recombinant vaccines?
a gene or part of a microorganism is removed from one organism and inserted into another microorganism
What are some advantages of recombinant vaccines?
fewer side effects; effective immunity; varied routes or administration
What are some disadvantages of recombinant vaccines?
What are some examples of recombinant vaccines?
Lyme, Newcastle/ fowl pox
What are polynucleotides?
DNA vaccines injects DNA that encodes for foreign antigens
What are some advantages of polynucleotides?
that it is possible to select only the genes for the antigen of interest
What are antiserum vaccines?
antibody-rich serum obtained from a hyper sensitized or actually infected animal
What are some advantages of antiserum vaccines?
provides quick protection against a microorganism
What are some disadvantages of antiserum vaccines?
shorter duration of effectiveness; may contain adjuvants
What are autogenous vaccines?
vaccine produced for a specific disease in a specific area from a sick animal
What are some advantages of autogenous vaccines?
provides protection against the specific organism in a specific area
What are some disadvantages of autogenous vaccines?
may contain endotoxin and other by-products found in the culture
What are polyvalent vaccines?
What do polyvalent vaccines contain?
a mixture of different antigens and are more convenient to administer because fewer injection are needed
What increases in polyvalent vaccines as the number of antigens increases?
To be approved, polyvalent vaccines must show what?
that each part of the polyvalent vaccine induces the same level of immunity as does the single-antigen vaccine
What are monovalent vaccines?
vaccines with only a single antigen present
What may occur in using several monovalent vaccines?
may expose the animal to higher levels of adjuvants
What are maternally derived antibodies?
antibodies that offspring receive passively from their mothers, either from colostrum or via the placenta
How long do maternally derived antibodies give the offspring disease resistance?
for a few days
How long do maternally derived antibodies provide variable antibody levels?
up to nine weeks
What must happen in order to enhance the protection of maternally derived antibodies?
young animals receive vaccinations and booster vaccinations to ensure appropriate immunity
Why are booster vaccines needed?
because effective vaccination varies among individuals, because of variable levels or maternal antibodies
What do booster vaccines also allow?
antibody levels to rise to satisfactory levels
What can occur even though vaccines are considered safe?
What must be done with all vaccine reactions?
recorded in the medical record
What are some typical vaccine reactions?
Location reactions at the injection site, fever, lethargy, vomiting, salivation, difficulty breathing, vaccine- associated sarcomas in cats, autoimmune hemolytic anemia in dogs
What is an antibody titer?
a serum test that reveals the level of antibody to a particular antigen in a particular individual
How are antibody titers expressed?
as 1:2, 1:4, etc. a ratio that represents the dilution at which the immune response is still adequate
What is recommended for all individual animals?
What is recommended only for individual animals deemed to be at high risk for contact with the organism?
What are some vaccine protocols for dogs?
distemper, parvovirus, rabies vaccine, adenovirus, infection tacheobronchitis, leptospirosis, coronavirus, giardia, lyme borreliosis
What are some vaccine protocols for horses?
tetanus, rhinopneumonitis, influenza, strangles, viral arteritis, potomac horse fever, anthrax, west nile virus, rabies
What are some vaccine protocols for cats?
panleukopenia, viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, rabies, chlamoydophila, leukemia virus, immunodeficiency virus, infection peritonitis
What are some vaccine protocols for cattle?
bovine resp. disease complex, clostridial vaccines, brucella, trich, anthrax, moraxella
What are some vaccine protocols for pigs?
erysipelas, lepto, TGE, porcine rotavirus, C. perfringens, PRRS, Colibacillosis
What is fluid overload?
a condition in which the administration of fluid occurs at a greater rate than the rate at which the body can use or eliminate the fluid
What is fluid overload condition associated with?
fluids administered via the parenteral route
What are some signs of fluid overload?
respiratory changes, fluid deposition in the SQ space, or weight gain
What are colloid solutions?
fluids with large molecules that enhance the oncotic force of blood
What does colloid solutions cause?
fluid to move from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the vascular space
What are some natural colloid solutions?
plasma, albumin, and whole blood
What are some synthetic colloid solutions?
dextrans and hydroxyethyl starch
What can be supplemented to crystalloid solutions?
When administering additives, it is important to remember what?
to withdraw and discard an amount of fluid equal to the amount of additive being supplemented
What are some types of additives?
50% dextrose, potassium, sodium bicarbonate, calcium, vitamins
Must consider that animals require fluids for what?
rehydration, maintenance, ongoing fluid loss
When calculating fluid volumes what must you make sure are the same?
units of measure
Rate of fluid replacement parallels what?
the severity of dehydrations
When are fluids given ideally?
over a 24- hour period
How are fluids stored and given?
fluid bags or bottles attached to administration sets
How are fluids administered for adult administration?
set that delivers 15gtt/ml
How are fluids administered for pediatric administration?
set that delivers 60gtt/ml
What must the drug label contain?
1. drug names
2. drug concentration and quantity
3. name and address of manufacturer
4. manufacturers control or lot number
5. expiration date of drug
6. withdrawal time
7. controlled substance status of drug
What is a prescription?
an order to a pharmacist, written by a licensed veterinarian, to prepare the prescribed medicine, to affix the directions, and to sell the preparation to the client
The label on the prescription should be complete and contain what?
1. the name and address of the dispenser
2. the clients names
3. the animals name and species
4. the drug name, strength and quantity
5. the date of the order
6. directions for use
7. any refill information
When you transfer a chemical to another container, you transfer it into a what?
What do anticancer drugs do?
stop the cancerous activity of malignant cells
What are anticancer drugs also called?
antineoplastic agents or chemotherapeutic agents
What are some characteristics of malignant cells?
rapid cell division and growth, different rates of cellular drug uptake, and increased cellular response to selected anticancer drugs
What are some factors that are found in malignant cells that can also be found in normal cells?
rapid cell division and growth occur in cells of the GI tract, bone marrow, reproductive organs, and hair follicles
What are neoplasms?
cancer cells that can spread from the site of origin to other areas of the body that are favorable for cell growth
What are the 5 phases of the cell cycle?
G1, S, G2, M, and G0
What happens in the G1 phase?
enzymes needed for DNA synthesis are produced
What happens in the S phase?
DNA synthesis and replication
What happens in the G2 phase?
RNA and protein synthesis
What happens in the M phase?
What happens in the G0 phase?
What is a growth fraction?
percentage of cancer cells that are actively dividing
When does a high growth fraction occur?
when cells are dividing rapidly
What happens when tumors age and enlarge?
their growth fraction decreases
What is combination therapy?
when antineoplastic agents are administered in various protocols
Calculation of antineoplastic drugs doses are based on what?
body surface area in square meters
When administering antineoplastic agents IV you should do what to ensure that antineoplastic drug residues do not remain on the equipment?
infuse unmedicated IV solution before and after administration of the drug
OSHA recommends antineoplastics be prepared under what?
a vertical laminar flow hood
What does a vertical laminar flow hood provide?
both product and operator protection by filtering incoming and exhaust air through a high efficiency air filter
What is pulse dosing?
a method of delivering some types of chemotherapeutic agents
What does pulse dosing produce?
escalating levels of drugs early in the dose followed by a dose free interval
What are some therapeutic advantages of pulse dosing?
reduced dose frequency and greater compliance
What is the preferred way to administer some chemotherapeutic agents?
What happens in cell-cycle nonspecicf?
alkylating agents cross-link DNA to inhibit its replication
What are some examples of cell-cycle nonspecific?
cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, and chlorambucil
What do antitumor antibiotics inhibit?
DNA, RNA and protein synthesis
What are some examples of anti tumor antibiotics?
doxorubicin, dactinomycin, and mitoxantrone
Steroid drugs have what effects?
anti-inflammatory, suppress bone marrow cells, reduce edema, and suppress tumor growth
What are some examples of steroid drugs?
corticosteroids, estrogens, progestins, and androgens
What do antimetabolites affect?
the S phase involving DNA synthesis
What are some examples of antimetabolites?
methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil, and azathioprine
What do antitubulins do?
stop cancer cell division
What are some examples of antitubulins?
vincristine and vinblastine
What are biologic response modifiers used for?
to enhance the bodys immune system
What are interferons?
a group of proteins that have anti tumor and antiviral effects
What are interferons used for?
to treat tumors and viral infections in cats
What are the 3 types of interferon?
alpha, beta, and gamma
What do colony stimulating factors do?
stimulate the growth, maturation, and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells
What has colony stimulating factors been used to treat?
neutropenia in dogs and cats
What is an example of a colony stimulating factor?
What are interleukins?
a group of chemicals that play various roles in the immune system
What is acemannan?
a potents stimulator of macrophage activity
What is acemannan used to treat?
fibrosarcomas and mast cells in dogs and cats
What do monoclonal antibodies do?
have cytotoxic effects on tumor cells
How do immunosuppressive drugs work?
by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers
What does cyclosporine inhibit?
the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
What does azathioprine affect?
cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibit T- and B-lymphocytes
What does cyclophosphamide interfere with?
DNA and RNA replication
What is L-asparaginase?
an example of an enzyme used in the treatment of cancer
How does L-asparaginase work?
by hydrolyzing asparagine into aspartic acid and ammonia
What do cancer cells need for survival?
an exogenous source of asparagine
What are side effects of L-asparaginase?
pain at injection site, hypotension, and diarrhea
What do enzyme inhibitors offer?
another approach to treating tumor cells by controlling their growth
What is toceranib?
a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat mast cell tumors in dogs
What do interleukins promote?
the replication of antigen-specific T cells
What are biologic response modifiers used in conjunction with?