Exam 4 Flashcards
(215 cards)
1
Q
What are the 3 layers of the skin?
A
Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous
2
Q
What is the most superficial layer that contains cells, but not blood vessels?
A
epidermis
3
Q
What is the middle layer of skin that is composed of blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, and the accessory organs of skin such as glands and hair follicles?
A
dermis
4
Q
What is the deepest layer of the skin that is composed of connective tissue?
A
subcutaneous
5
Q
What are topical skin treatments?
A
agents applied to a surface; they affect the area to which they are applied
6
Q
What do systemic skin treatments consist of?
A
drugs given systemically that affect many areas of the body
7
Q
What do topical antipruritics do?
A
provide moderate relief of itching
8
Q
What are some topical nonsteroidal antipruritics?
A
Local anesthetics such as lidocaine, tetracaine, benzocaine, and pramoxine
9
Q
What has soothing and anti-inflammatory effects for the skin?
A
oatmeal
10
Q
What are antihistamines?
A
products containing diphenhydramine calm pain and itching due to allergic reactions and sensitive skin
11
Q
What are some topical corticosteroids?
A
hydrocortisone, fluocinolone, triamcinolone, and betamethazone
12
Q
What is an example of an antiseptic?
A
chlorhexidine
13
Q
What do systemic antipruritics treat?
A
canine atopy, food allergy dermatitis, flea allergy, contact dermatitis
14
Q
What are some examples of systemic antipruritics?
A
cyclosporine and oclacitinib
15
Q
What is the trade name for cyclosporine?
A
atopica
16
Q
What is the trade name for oclacitinib?
A
apoquel
17
Q
What is seborrhea characterized by?
A
abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermis and may be accompanied by increased oil production or not
18
Q
What is seborrhea accompanied by increased oil production called?
A
seborrhea oleasa
19
Q
What is seborrhea called when it is not accompanied by oil?
A
seborrhea sicca
20
Q
What are keratolytics?
A
an important group of antiseborrheics
21
Q
What do keratolytics do?
A
remove excess keratin and promote loosening of the outer layers of the epidermis
22
Q
What do keratolytics break down?
A
the protein structure of the keratin layer, permitting easier removal of this material
23
Q
What are some examples of topical antiseborrheics?
A
sulfur, salicylic acid, coal tar, benzoyl peroxide, and selenium sulfide
24
Q
What are some other agents used to treat skin disorders?
A
astringents, antiseptics, soaks and dressings, caustics, and fatty acid supplements
25
What are astringents?
agents that constrict tissues, decrease secretions
26
What are antiseptics?
substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissue
27
What are soaks and dressings?
substances applied to areas to draw out fluid or relieve itching
28
What are caustics?
substances that destroy tissue
29
What do fatty acid supplements do?
improve condition of skin and hair and reduce pruritus
30
What is erythropoietin?
a protein made by the kidneys that stimulates the differentiation of bone marrow stem cells
31
What is erythropoietin used for?
to treat anemia in animals with chronic renal failure
32
What is sometimes seen with erythropoietin products?
allergic reactions
33
What should you do with erythropoietin products?
refrigerate, do not freeze or shake
34
What is an example of an erythropoietin product?
epogen
35
What is anemia?
condition in which the blood doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells
36
What is the cause of anemia?
body doesn't make enough rbc's, loss of blood, body destroys rbc's
37
What is a treatment for anemia?
iron supplements, blood transfusions
38
What do anticoagulants do?
inhibit clot formation by inactivating one or more clotting factors
39
What are anticoagulants used for?
to inhibit clotting in catheters, to prevent blood samples from clotting, to preserve blood transfusions, and to treat emboli
40
What are some examples of anticoagulants?
heparin, EDTA, coumarin derivatives, aspirin, and blood transfusion anticoagulants
41
What do anticoagulants not do?
break down existing clots
42
What anticoagulant is not affective orally?
heparin
43
What is an example of a thrombolytic drug?
streptokinase
44
What do hemostatic drugs do?
help promote the clotting of blood
45
How can you administer hemostatic drugs?
parenterally or topically
46
What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer parenterally?
vitamin K1 and protamine sulfate
47
What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer topically?
silver nitrate, hemostat powder, gel foam gelatin sponges, thrombogen topical thrombin solution
48
How do Immunosuppressive drugs work?
by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers
49
What does Cyclosporine do?
inhibits the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
50
What is Cyclosporine used for?
managing KCS in dogs and immune-mediated skin disorders
51
What does Azathioprine do?
affects cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibits T- and B-lymphocytes
52
What is Azathioprine used for?
mainly in dogs for immune-mediated disease
53
What does Cyclophosphamide do?
interferes with DNA and RNA replication disrupting nucleic acid function
54
What is Cyclophosphamide used for?
immune-mediated diseases
55
What are some reasons you would use an immunosuppressive?
1. Cancer
2. Atopic dermatitis
3. Pemphigus foliaceus
4. Rhematoid arthritis
5. Excessive allergic response
6. Systemic lupus erythematosus
7. Myasthenia gravis
56
What is Azathioprine often combined with?
steroids
57
What animal is more likely to develop severe side affects from Azathioprine?
cats
58
What can you use instead of Azathioprine in cats?
chlorambucil
59
What does Azathioprine cause in cats?
bone marrow suppression and infections
60
What can corticosteroids cause?
GI upset and ulcers
61
What are some serious side effects of cyclophosphamide?
bone marrow suppression, gastroenteritis, hemorrhagic cystitis
62
What are some indications for Cyclosporine?
organ transplants, KCS, Atopic dermatitis, other autoimmune diseases
63
What are some possible adverse effects of Cyclosporine?
vomiting and nephrotox
64
What is the trade name for Oclacitinib?
Apoquel
65
What is Apoquel?
JAK inhibitor
66
What is Apoquel approved for?
K9 allergic dermatitis
67
What is Apoquel an excellent alternative for?
long-term steroids
68
What does nonspecific immunity include?
things such as physical barriers, mucus production, inflammation, fever, and phagocytosis
69
What is nonspecific immunity directed against?
all pathogens
70
What is the initial defense against invading agents?
nonspecific immunity
71
When does specific immunity take over?
when the nonspecific mechanisms fail
72
What is specific immunity targeted for?
a specific antigen
73
What does specific immunity arise from?
B- and T- lymphocytes
74
What happens in cell-mediated immunity?
T-lymphocytes directly attack the invading antigen
75
What is cell-mediated immunity important for?
protecting against intracellular bacterial or viral infections, fungal diseases, and protozoal diseases
76
What happens in antibody-mediated immunity?
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies that react to antigen
77
What is antibody-mediated immunity important for?
extracellular phases of systemic viral and bacterial infections and protection against endotoxin and exotoxin-induced disease
78
When does active immunity arise?
when an animal receives an antigen that activates B- and T-lymphocytes
79
What does active immunity create?
memory
80
When does passive immunity arise?
when an animal receives antibodies from another animal
81
What does passive immunity provide?
immediate onset of immunity, but the animal is protected for a shorter time
82
When is natural immunity acquired?
during normal biological experiences
83
How is artificial immunity acquired?
through medical procedures
84
What is a vaccine?
a suspension of weakened, live, or killed microorganisms administered to prevent, improve, or treat an infectious disease
85
What types of vaccines are there?
inactivated, attenuated, live, recombinant, polynucleotides, antiserum, autogenous, polyvalent, and monovalent
86
What are inactivated(killed) vaccines made from?
microbes, microbe parts, or microbe by-products that have been chemically treated or heated to kill the microbe
87
What do inactivated(killed) contain?
adjuvants
88
What are adjuvants?
substances that enhance the immune response
89
How do adjuvants enhance the immune response?
by increasing the stability of the vaccine in the body
90
What may adjuvants cause?
vaccine reactions
91
What are some advantages of inactivated vaccines?
safe; stable; unlikely to cause disease
92
What are some disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?
need repeated doses; possible reactions
93
What are some examples of inactivated vaccines?
FeLV and Rabies
94
What happens in attenuated(modified-live) vaccines?
microorganisms go through a process of losing their virulence, but must be able to replicate within the patient to provide immunity
95
What are some advantages of attenuated vaccines?
immunity lasts longer; has better efficacy and quicker stimulation of cell-mediated immunity than killed vaccines
96
What are some disadvantages of attenuated vaccines?
possible abortion; can produce mild forms of the disease; can shed into the environment; proper handling/ storage is critical
97
What are some examples of attenuated vaccines?
FVR/C/P, Bovine resp.
98
What are live vaccines made from?
live microorganisms that may be fully virulent
99
What are some advantages of live vaccines?
fewer doses needed; last longer; inexpensive; adjuvants not needed
100
What are some disadvantages of live vaccines?
residual virulence that requires carefully handling
101
What are some examples of live vaccines?
Brucella, Orf
102
What are recombinant vaccines?
a gene or part of a microorganism is removed from one organism and inserted into another microorganism
103
What are some advantages of recombinant vaccines?
fewer side effects; effective immunity; varied routes or administration
104
What are some disadvantages of recombinant vaccines?
increased cost
105
What are some examples of recombinant vaccines?
Lyme, Newcastle/ fowl pox
106
What are polynucleotides?
DNA vaccines injects DNA that encodes for foreign antigens
107
What are some advantages of polynucleotides?
that it is possible to select only the genes for the antigen of interest
108
What are antiserum vaccines?
antibody-rich serum obtained from a hyper sensitized or actually infected animal
109
What are some advantages of antiserum vaccines?
provides quick protection against a microorganism
110
What are some disadvantages of antiserum vaccines?
shorter duration of effectiveness; may contain adjuvants
111
What are autogenous vaccines?
vaccine produced for a specific disease in a specific area from a sick animal
112
What are some advantages of autogenous vaccines?
provides protection against the specific organism in a specific area
113
What are some disadvantages of autogenous vaccines?
may contain endotoxin and other by-products found in the culture
114
What are polyvalent vaccines?
multiple-antigen vaccines
115
What do polyvalent vaccines contain?
a mixture of different antigens and are more convenient to administer because fewer injection are needed
116
What increases in polyvalent vaccines as the number of antigens increases?
adverse reaction
117
To be approved, polyvalent vaccines must show what?
that each part of the polyvalent vaccine induces the same level of immunity as does the single-antigen vaccine
118
What are monovalent vaccines?
vaccines with only a single antigen present
119
What may occur in using several monovalent vaccines?
may expose the animal to higher levels of adjuvants
120
What are maternally derived antibodies?
antibodies that offspring receive passively from their mothers, either from colostrum or via the placenta
121
How long do maternally derived antibodies give the offspring disease resistance?
for a few days
122
How long do maternally derived antibodies provide variable antibody levels?
up to nine weeks
123
What must happen in order to enhance the protection of maternally derived antibodies?
young animals receive vaccinations and booster vaccinations to ensure appropriate immunity
124
Why are booster vaccines needed?
because effective vaccination varies among individuals, because of variable levels or maternal antibodies
125
What do booster vaccines also allow?
antibody levels to rise to satisfactory levels
126
What can occur even though vaccines are considered safe?
vaccine reactions
127
What must be done with all vaccine reactions?
recorded in the medical record
128
What are some typical vaccine reactions?
Location reactions at the injection site, fever, lethargy, vomiting, salivation, difficulty breathing, vaccine- associated sarcomas in cats, autoimmune hemolytic anemia in dogs
129
What is an antibody titer?
a serum test that reveals the level of antibody to a particular antigen in a particular individual
130
How are antibody titers expressed?
as 1:2, 1:4, etc. a ratio that represents the dilution at which the immune response is still adequate
131
What is recommended for all individual animals?
core vaccines
132
What is recommended only for individual animals deemed to be at high risk for contact with the organism?
noncore vaccines
133
What are some vaccine protocols for dogs?
distemper, parvovirus, rabies vaccine, adenovirus, infection tacheobronchitis, leptospirosis, coronavirus, giardia, lyme borreliosis
134
What are some vaccine protocols for horses?
tetanus, rhinopneumonitis, influenza, strangles, viral arteritis, potomac horse fever, anthrax, west nile virus, rabies
135
What are some vaccine protocols for cats?
panleukopenia, viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, rabies, chlamoydophila, leukemia virus, immunodeficiency virus, infection peritonitis
136
What are some vaccine protocols for cattle?
bovine resp. disease complex, clostridial vaccines, brucella, trich, anthrax, moraxella
137
What are some vaccine protocols for pigs?
erysipelas, lepto, TGE, porcine rotavirus, C. perfringens, PRRS, Colibacillosis
138
What is fluid overload?
a condition in which the administration of fluid occurs at a greater rate than the rate at which the body can use or eliminate the fluid
139
What is fluid overload condition associated with?
fluids administered via the parenteral route
140
What are some signs of fluid overload?
respiratory changes, fluid deposition in the SQ space, or weight gain
141
What are colloid solutions?
fluids with large molecules that enhance the oncotic force of blood
142
What does colloid solutions cause?
fluid to move from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the vascular space
143
What are some natural colloid solutions?
plasma, albumin, and whole blood
144
What are some synthetic colloid solutions?
dextrans and hydroxyethyl starch
145
What can be supplemented to crystalloid solutions?
special additives
146
When administering additives, it is important to remember what?
to withdraw and discard an amount of fluid equal to the amount of additive being supplemented
147
What are some types of additives?
50% dextrose, potassium, sodium bicarbonate, calcium, vitamins
148
Must consider that animals require fluids for what?
rehydration, maintenance, ongoing fluid loss
149
When calculating fluid volumes what must you make sure are the same?
units of measure
150
Rate of fluid replacement parallels what?
the severity of dehydrations
151
When are fluids given ideally?
over a 24- hour period
152
How are fluids stored and given?
fluid bags or bottles attached to administration sets
153
How are fluids administered for adult administration?
set that delivers 15gtt/ml
154
How are fluids administered for pediatric administration?
set that delivers 60gtt/ml
155
What must the drug label contain?
1. drug names
2. drug concentration and quantity
3. name and address of manufacturer
4. manufacturers control or lot number
5. expiration date of drug
6. withdrawal time
7. controlled substance status of drug
156
What is a prescription?
an order to a pharmacist, written by a licensed veterinarian, to prepare the prescribed medicine, to affix the directions, and to sell the preparation to the client
157
The label on the prescription should be complete and contain what?
1. the name and address of the dispenser
2. the clients names
3. the animals name and species
4. the drug name, strength and quantity
5. the date of the order
6. directions for use
7. any refill information
158
When you transfer a chemical to another container, you transfer it into a what?
secondary container
159
What do anticancer drugs do?
stop the cancerous activity of malignant cells
160
What are anticancer drugs also called?
antineoplastic agents or chemotherapeutic agents
161
What are some characteristics of malignant cells?
rapid cell division and growth, different rates of cellular drug uptake, and increased cellular response to selected anticancer drugs
162
What are some factors that are found in malignant cells that can also be found in normal cells?
rapid cell division and growth occur in cells of the GI tract, bone marrow, reproductive organs, and hair follicles
163
What are neoplasms?
cancer cells that can spread from the site of origin to other areas of the body that are favorable for cell growth
164
What are the 5 phases of the cell cycle?
G1, S, G2, M, and G0
165
What happens in the G1 phase?
enzymes needed for DNA synthesis are produced
166
What happens in the S phase?
DNA synthesis and replication
167
What happens in the G2 phase?
RNA and protein synthesis
168
What happens in the M phase?
mitosis phase
169
What happens in the G0 phase?
resting phase
170
What is a growth fraction?
percentage of cancer cells that are actively dividing
171
When does a high growth fraction occur?
when cells are dividing rapidly
172
What happens when tumors age and enlarge?
their growth fraction decreases
173
What is combination therapy?
when antineoplastic agents are administered in various protocols
174
Calculation of antineoplastic drugs doses are based on what?
body surface area in square meters
175
When administering antineoplastic agents IV you should do what to ensure that antineoplastic drug residues do not remain on the equipment?
infuse unmedicated IV solution before and after administration of the drug
176
OSHA recommends antineoplastics be prepared under what?
a vertical laminar flow hood
177
What does a vertical laminar flow hood provide?
both product and operator protection by filtering incoming and exhaust air through a high efficiency air filter
178
What is pulse dosing?
a method of delivering some types of chemotherapeutic agents
179
What does pulse dosing produce?
escalating levels of drugs early in the dose followed by a dose free interval
180
What are some therapeutic advantages of pulse dosing?
reduced dose frequency and greater compliance
181
What is the preferred way to administer some chemotherapeutic agents?
pulse dosing
182
What happens in cell-cycle nonspecicf?
alkylating agents cross-link DNA to inhibit its replication
183
What are some examples of cell-cycle nonspecific?
cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, and chlorambucil
184
What do antitumor antibiotics inhibit?
DNA, RNA and protein synthesis
185
What are some examples of anti tumor antibiotics?
doxorubicin, dactinomycin, and mitoxantrone
186
Steroid drugs have what effects?
anti-inflammatory, suppress bone marrow cells, reduce edema, and suppress tumor growth
187
What are some examples of steroid drugs?
corticosteroids, estrogens, progestins, and androgens
188
What do antimetabolites affect?
the S phase involving DNA synthesis
189
What are some examples of antimetabolites?
methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil, and azathioprine
190
What do antitubulins do?
stop cancer cell division
191
What are some examples of antitubulins?
vincristine and vinblastine
192
What are biologic response modifiers used for?
to enhance the bodys immune system
193
What are interferons?
a group of proteins that have anti tumor and antiviral effects
194
What are interferons used for?
to treat tumors and viral infections in cats
195
What are the 3 types of interferon?
alpha, beta, and gamma
196
What do colony stimulating factors do?
stimulate the growth, maturation, and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells
197
What has colony stimulating factors been used to treat?
neutropenia in dogs and cats
198
What is an example of a colony stimulating factor?
filgrastim
199
What are interleukins?
a group of chemicals that play various roles in the immune system
200
What is acemannan?
a potents stimulator of macrophage activity
201
What is acemannan used to treat?
fibrosarcomas and mast cells in dogs and cats
202
What do monoclonal antibodies do?
have cytotoxic effects on tumor cells
203
How do immunosuppressive drugs work?
by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers
204
What does cyclosporine inhibit?
the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
205
What does azathioprine affect?
cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibit T- and B-lymphocytes
206
What does cyclophosphamide interfere with?
DNA and RNA replication
207
What is L-asparaginase?
an example of an enzyme used in the treatment of cancer
208
How does L-asparaginase work?
by hydrolyzing asparagine into aspartic acid and ammonia
209
What do cancer cells need for survival?
an exogenous source of asparagine
210
What are side effects of L-asparaginase?
pain at injection site, hypotension, and diarrhea
211
What do enzyme inhibitors offer?
another approach to treating tumor cells by controlling their growth
212
What is toceranib?
a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat mast cell tumors in dogs
213
What do interleukins promote?
the replication of antigen-specific T cells
214
What are biologic response modifiers used in conjunction with?
antineoplastic protocols
215
What are monoclonal antibodies used in conjunction with?
other antineoplastic agents
