Exam 4 Flashcards Preview

Pharmacology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Exam 4 Deck (215):
1

What are the 3 layers of the skin?

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous

2

What is the most superficial layer that contains cells, but not blood vessels?

epidermis

3

What is the middle layer of skin that is composed of blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, and the accessory organs of skin such as glands and hair follicles?

dermis

4

What is the deepest layer of the skin that is composed of connective tissue?

subcutaneous

5

What are topical skin treatments?

agents applied to a surface; they affect the area to which they are applied

6

What do systemic skin treatments consist of?

drugs given systemically that affect many areas of the body

7

What do topical antipruritics do?

provide moderate relief of itching

8

What are some topical nonsteroidal antipruritics?

Local anesthetics such as lidocaine, tetracaine, benzocaine, and pramoxine

9

What has soothing and anti-inflammatory effects for the skin?

oatmeal

10

What are antihistamines?

products containing diphenhydramine calm pain and itching due to allergic reactions and sensitive skin

11

What are some topical corticosteroids?

hydrocortisone, fluocinolone, triamcinolone, and betamethazone

12

What is an example of an antiseptic?

chlorhexidine

13

What do systemic antipruritics treat?

canine atopy, food allergy dermatitis, flea allergy, contact dermatitis

14

What are some examples of systemic antipruritics?

cyclosporine and oclacitinib

15

What is the trade name for cyclosporine?

atopica

16

What is the trade name for oclacitinib?

apoquel

17

What is seborrhea characterized by?

abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermis and may be accompanied by increased oil production or not

18

What is seborrhea accompanied by increased oil production called?

seborrhea oleasa

19

What is seborrhea called when it is not accompanied by oil?

seborrhea sicca

20

What are keratolytics?

an important group of antiseborrheics

21

What do keratolytics do?

remove excess keratin and promote loosening of the outer layers of the epidermis

22

What do keratolytics break down?

the protein structure of the keratin layer, permitting easier removal of this material

23

What are some examples of topical antiseborrheics?

sulfur, salicylic acid, coal tar, benzoyl peroxide, and selenium sulfide

24

What are some other agents used to treat skin disorders?

astringents, antiseptics, soaks and dressings, caustics, and fatty acid supplements

25

What are astringents?

agents that constrict tissues, decrease secretions

26

What are antiseptics?

substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissue

27

What are soaks and dressings?

substances applied to areas to draw out fluid or relieve itching

28

What are caustics?

substances that destroy tissue

29

What do fatty acid supplements do?

improve condition of skin and hair and reduce pruritus

30

What is erythropoietin?

a protein made by the kidneys that stimulates the differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

31

What is erythropoietin used for?

to treat anemia in animals with chronic renal failure

32

What is sometimes seen with erythropoietin products?

allergic reactions

33

What should you do with erythropoietin products?

refrigerate, do not freeze or shake

34

What is an example of an erythropoietin product?

epogen

35

What is anemia?

condition in which the blood doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells

36

What is the cause of anemia?

body doesn't make enough rbc's, loss of blood, body destroys rbc's

37

What is a treatment for anemia?

iron supplements, blood transfusions

38

What do anticoagulants do?

inhibit clot formation by inactivating one or more clotting factors

39

What are anticoagulants used for?

to inhibit clotting in catheters, to prevent blood samples from clotting, to preserve blood transfusions, and to treat emboli

40

What are some examples of anticoagulants?

heparin, EDTA, coumarin derivatives, aspirin, and blood transfusion anticoagulants

41

What do anticoagulants not do?

break down existing clots

42

What anticoagulant is not affective orally?

heparin

43

What is an example of a thrombolytic drug?

streptokinase

44

What do hemostatic drugs do?

help promote the clotting of blood

45

How can you administer hemostatic drugs?

parenterally or topically

46

What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer parenterally?

vitamin K1 and protamine sulfate

47

What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer topically?

silver nitrate, hemostat powder, gel foam gelatin sponges, thrombogen topical thrombin solution

48

How do Immunosuppressive drugs work?

by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers

49

What does Cyclosporine do?

inhibits the proliferation of T-lymphocytes

50

What is Cyclosporine used for?

managing KCS in dogs and immune-mediated skin disorders

51

What does Azathioprine do?

affects cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibits T- and B-lymphocytes

52

What is Azathioprine used for?

mainly in dogs for immune-mediated disease

53

What does Cyclophosphamide do?

interferes with DNA and RNA replication disrupting nucleic acid function

54

What is Cyclophosphamide used for?

immune-mediated diseases

55

What are some reasons you would use an immunosuppressive?

1. Cancer
2. Atopic dermatitis
3. Pemphigus foliaceus
4. Rhematoid arthritis
5. Excessive allergic response
6. Systemic lupus erythematosus
7. Myasthenia gravis

56

What is Azathioprine often combined with?

steroids

57

What animal is more likely to develop severe side affects from Azathioprine?

cats

58

What can you use instead of Azathioprine in cats?

chlorambucil

59

What does Azathioprine cause in cats?

bone marrow suppression and infections

60

What can corticosteroids cause?

GI upset and ulcers

61

What are some serious side effects of cyclophosphamide?

bone marrow suppression, gastroenteritis, hemorrhagic cystitis

62

What are some indications for Cyclosporine?

organ transplants, KCS, Atopic dermatitis, other autoimmune diseases

63

What are some possible adverse effects of Cyclosporine?

vomiting and nephrotox

64

What is the trade name for Oclacitinib?

Apoquel

65

What is Apoquel?

JAK inhibitor

66

What is Apoquel approved for?

K9 allergic dermatitis

67

What is Apoquel an excellent alternative for?

long-term steroids

68

What does nonspecific immunity include?

things such as physical barriers, mucus production, inflammation, fever, and phagocytosis

69

What is nonspecific immunity directed against?

all pathogens

70

What is the initial defense against invading agents?

nonspecific immunity

71

When does specific immunity take over?

when the nonspecific mechanisms fail

72

What is specific immunity targeted for?

a specific antigen

73

What does specific immunity arise from?

B- and T- lymphocytes

74

What happens in cell-mediated immunity?

T-lymphocytes directly attack the invading antigen

75

What is cell-mediated immunity important for?

protecting against intracellular bacterial or viral infections, fungal diseases, and protozoal diseases

76

What happens in antibody-mediated immunity?

B-lymphocytes produce antibodies that react to antigen

77

What is antibody-mediated immunity important for?

extracellular phases of systemic viral and bacterial infections and protection against endotoxin and exotoxin-induced disease

78

When does active immunity arise?

when an animal receives an antigen that activates B- and T-lymphocytes

79

What does active immunity create?

memory

80

When does passive immunity arise?

when an animal receives antibodies from another animal

81

What does passive immunity provide?

immediate onset of immunity, but the animal is protected for a shorter time

82

When is natural immunity acquired?

during normal biological experiences

83

How is artificial immunity acquired?

through medical procedures

84

What is a vaccine?

a suspension of weakened, live, or killed microorganisms administered to prevent, improve, or treat an infectious disease

85

What types of vaccines are there?

inactivated, attenuated, live, recombinant, polynucleotides, antiserum, autogenous, polyvalent, and monovalent

86

What are inactivated(killed) vaccines made from?

microbes, microbe parts, or microbe by-products that have been chemically treated or heated to kill the microbe

87

What do inactivated(killed) contain?

adjuvants

88

What are adjuvants?

substances that enhance the immune response

89

How do adjuvants enhance the immune response?

by increasing the stability of the vaccine in the body

90

What may adjuvants cause?

vaccine reactions

91

What are some advantages of inactivated vaccines?

safe; stable; unlikely to cause disease

92

What are some disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?

need repeated doses; possible reactions

93

What are some examples of inactivated vaccines?

FeLV and Rabies

94

What happens in attenuated(modified-live) vaccines?

microorganisms go through a process of losing their virulence, but must be able to replicate within the patient to provide immunity

95

What are some advantages of attenuated vaccines?

immunity lasts longer; has better efficacy and quicker stimulation of cell-mediated immunity than killed vaccines

96

What are some disadvantages of attenuated vaccines?

possible abortion; can produce mild forms of the disease; can shed into the environment; proper handling/ storage is critical

97

What are some examples of attenuated vaccines?

FVR/C/P, Bovine resp.

98

What are live vaccines made from?

live microorganisms that may be fully virulent

99

What are some advantages of live vaccines?

fewer doses needed; last longer; inexpensive; adjuvants not needed

100

What are some disadvantages of live vaccines?

residual virulence that requires carefully handling

101

What are some examples of live vaccines?

Brucella, Orf

102

What are recombinant vaccines?

a gene or part of a microorganism is removed from one organism and inserted into another microorganism

103

What are some advantages of recombinant vaccines?

fewer side effects; effective immunity; varied routes or administration

104

What are some disadvantages of recombinant vaccines?

increased cost

105

What are some examples of recombinant vaccines?

Lyme, Newcastle/ fowl pox

106

What are polynucleotides?

DNA vaccines injects DNA that encodes for foreign antigens

107

What are some advantages of polynucleotides?

that it is possible to select only the genes for the antigen of interest

108

What are antiserum vaccines?

antibody-rich serum obtained from a hyper sensitized or actually infected animal

109

What are some advantages of antiserum vaccines?

provides quick protection against a microorganism

110

What are some disadvantages of antiserum vaccines?

shorter duration of effectiveness; may contain adjuvants

111

What are autogenous vaccines?

vaccine produced for a specific disease in a specific area from a sick animal

112

What are some advantages of autogenous vaccines?

provides protection against the specific organism in a specific area

113

What are some disadvantages of autogenous vaccines?

may contain endotoxin and other by-products found in the culture

114

What are polyvalent vaccines?

multiple-antigen vaccines

115

What do polyvalent vaccines contain?

a mixture of different antigens and are more convenient to administer because fewer injection are needed

116

What increases in polyvalent vaccines as the number of antigens increases?

adverse reaction

117

To be approved, polyvalent vaccines must show what?

that each part of the polyvalent vaccine induces the same level of immunity as does the single-antigen vaccine

118

What are monovalent vaccines?

vaccines with only a single antigen present

119

What may occur in using several monovalent vaccines?

may expose the animal to higher levels of adjuvants

120

What are maternally derived antibodies?

antibodies that offspring receive passively from their mothers, either from colostrum or via the placenta

121

How long do maternally derived antibodies give the offspring disease resistance?

for a few days

122

How long do maternally derived antibodies provide variable antibody levels?

up to nine weeks

123

What must happen in order to enhance the protection of maternally derived antibodies?

young animals receive vaccinations and booster vaccinations to ensure appropriate immunity

124

Why are booster vaccines needed?

because effective vaccination varies among individuals, because of variable levels or maternal antibodies

125

What do booster vaccines also allow?

antibody levels to rise to satisfactory levels

126

What can occur even though vaccines are considered safe?

vaccine reactions

127

What must be done with all vaccine reactions?

recorded in the medical record

128

What are some typical vaccine reactions?

Location reactions at the injection site, fever, lethargy, vomiting, salivation, difficulty breathing, vaccine- associated sarcomas in cats, autoimmune hemolytic anemia in dogs

129

What is an antibody titer?

a serum test that reveals the level of antibody to a particular antigen in a particular individual

130

How are antibody titers expressed?

as 1:2, 1:4, etc. a ratio that represents the dilution at which the immune response is still adequate

131

What is recommended for all individual animals?

core vaccines

132

What is recommended only for individual animals deemed to be at high risk for contact with the organism?

noncore vaccines

133

What are some vaccine protocols for dogs?

distemper, parvovirus, rabies vaccine, adenovirus, infection tacheobronchitis, leptospirosis, coronavirus, giardia, lyme borreliosis

134

What are some vaccine protocols for horses?

tetanus, rhinopneumonitis, influenza, strangles, viral arteritis, potomac horse fever, anthrax, west nile virus, rabies

135

What are some vaccine protocols for cats?

panleukopenia, viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, rabies, chlamoydophila, leukemia virus, immunodeficiency virus, infection peritonitis

136

What are some vaccine protocols for cattle?

bovine resp. disease complex, clostridial vaccines, brucella, trich, anthrax, moraxella

137

What are some vaccine protocols for pigs?

erysipelas, lepto, TGE, porcine rotavirus, C. perfringens, PRRS, Colibacillosis

138

What is fluid overload?

a condition in which the administration of fluid occurs at a greater rate than the rate at which the body can use or eliminate the fluid

139

What is fluid overload condition associated with?

fluids administered via the parenteral route

140

What are some signs of fluid overload?

respiratory changes, fluid deposition in the SQ space, or weight gain

141

What are colloid solutions?

fluids with large molecules that enhance the oncotic force of blood

142

What does colloid solutions cause?

fluid to move from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the vascular space

143

What are some natural colloid solutions?

plasma, albumin, and whole blood

144

What are some synthetic colloid solutions?

dextrans and hydroxyethyl starch

145

What can be supplemented to crystalloid solutions?

special additives

146

When administering additives, it is important to remember what?

to withdraw and discard an amount of fluid equal to the amount of additive being supplemented

147

What are some types of additives?

50% dextrose, potassium, sodium bicarbonate, calcium, vitamins

148

Must consider that animals require fluids for what?

rehydration, maintenance, ongoing fluid loss

149

When calculating fluid volumes what must you make sure are the same?

units of measure

150

Rate of fluid replacement parallels what?

the severity of dehydrations

151

When are fluids given ideally?

over a 24- hour period

152

How are fluids stored and given?

fluid bags or bottles attached to administration sets

153

How are fluids administered for adult administration?

set that delivers 15gtt/ml

154

How are fluids administered for pediatric administration?

set that delivers 60gtt/ml

155

What must the drug label contain?

1. drug names
2. drug concentration and quantity
3. name and address of manufacturer
4. manufacturers control or lot number
5. expiration date of drug
6. withdrawal time
7. controlled substance status of drug

156

What is a prescription?

an order to a pharmacist, written by a licensed veterinarian, to prepare the prescribed medicine, to affix the directions, and to sell the preparation to the client

157

The label on the prescription should be complete and contain what?

1. the name and address of the dispenser
2. the clients names
3. the animals name and species
4. the drug name, strength and quantity
5. the date of the order
6. directions for use
7. any refill information

158

When you transfer a chemical to another container, you transfer it into a what?

secondary container

159

What do anticancer drugs do?

stop the cancerous activity of malignant cells

160

What are anticancer drugs also called?

antineoplastic agents or chemotherapeutic agents

161

What are some characteristics of malignant cells?

rapid cell division and growth, different rates of cellular drug uptake, and increased cellular response to selected anticancer drugs

162

What are some factors that are found in malignant cells that can also be found in normal cells?

rapid cell division and growth occur in cells of the GI tract, bone marrow, reproductive organs, and hair follicles

163

What are neoplasms?

cancer cells that can spread from the site of origin to other areas of the body that are favorable for cell growth

164

What are the 5 phases of the cell cycle?

G1, S, G2, M, and G0

165

What happens in the G1 phase?

enzymes needed for DNA synthesis are produced

166

What happens in the S phase?

DNA synthesis and replication

167

What happens in the G2 phase?

RNA and protein synthesis

168

What happens in the M phase?

mitosis phase

169

What happens in the G0 phase?

resting phase

170

What is a growth fraction?

percentage of cancer cells that are actively dividing

171

When does a high growth fraction occur?

when cells are dividing rapidly

172

What happens when tumors age and enlarge?

their growth fraction decreases

173

What is combination therapy?

when antineoplastic agents are administered in various protocols

174

Calculation of antineoplastic drugs doses are based on what?

body surface area in square meters

175

When administering antineoplastic agents IV you should do what to ensure that antineoplastic drug residues do not remain on the equipment?

infuse unmedicated IV solution before and after administration of the drug

176

OSHA recommends antineoplastics be prepared under what?

a vertical laminar flow hood

177

What does a vertical laminar flow hood provide?

both product and operator protection by filtering incoming and exhaust air through a high efficiency air filter

178

What is pulse dosing?

a method of delivering some types of chemotherapeutic agents

179

What does pulse dosing produce?

escalating levels of drugs early in the dose followed by a dose free interval

180

What are some therapeutic advantages of pulse dosing?

reduced dose frequency and greater compliance

181

What is the preferred way to administer some chemotherapeutic agents?

pulse dosing

182

What happens in cell-cycle nonspecicf?

alkylating agents cross-link DNA to inhibit its replication

183

What are some examples of cell-cycle nonspecific?

cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, and chlorambucil

184

What do antitumor antibiotics inhibit?

DNA, RNA and protein synthesis

185

What are some examples of anti tumor antibiotics?

doxorubicin, dactinomycin, and mitoxantrone

186

Steroid drugs have what effects?

anti-inflammatory, suppress bone marrow cells, reduce edema, and suppress tumor growth

187

What are some examples of steroid drugs?

corticosteroids, estrogens, progestins, and androgens

188

What do antimetabolites affect?

the S phase involving DNA synthesis

189

What are some examples of antimetabolites?

methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil, and azathioprine

190

What do antitubulins do?

stop cancer cell division

191

What are some examples of antitubulins?

vincristine and vinblastine

192

What are biologic response modifiers used for?

to enhance the bodys immune system

193

What are interferons?

a group of proteins that have anti tumor and antiviral effects

194

What are interferons used for?

to treat tumors and viral infections in cats

195

What are the 3 types of interferon?

alpha, beta, and gamma

196

What do colony stimulating factors do?

stimulate the growth, maturation, and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

197

What has colony stimulating factors been used to treat?

neutropenia in dogs and cats

198

What is an example of a colony stimulating factor?

filgrastim

199

What are interleukins?

a group of chemicals that play various roles in the immune system

200

What is acemannan?

a potents stimulator of macrophage activity

201

What is acemannan used to treat?

fibrosarcomas and mast cells in dogs and cats

202

What do monoclonal antibodies do?

have cytotoxic effects on tumor cells

203

How do immunosuppressive drugs work?

by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers

204

What does cyclosporine inhibit?

the proliferation of T-lymphocytes

205

What does azathioprine affect?

cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibit T- and B-lymphocytes

206

What does cyclophosphamide interfere with?

DNA and RNA replication

207

What is L-asparaginase?

an example of an enzyme used in the treatment of cancer

208

How does L-asparaginase work?

by hydrolyzing asparagine into aspartic acid and ammonia

209

What do cancer cells need for survival?

an exogenous source of asparagine

210

What are side effects of L-asparaginase?

pain at injection site, hypotension, and diarrhea

211

What do enzyme inhibitors offer?

another approach to treating tumor cells by controlling their growth

212

What is toceranib?

a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat mast cell tumors in dogs

213

What do interleukins promote?

the replication of antigen-specific T cells

214

What are biologic response modifiers used in conjunction with?

antineoplastic protocols

215

What are monoclonal antibodies used in conjunction with?

other antineoplastic agents