exam3 Flashcards Preview

Pharmacology > exam3 > Flashcards

Flashcards in exam3 Deck (270):
1

Who is the manufacturer for Advantage II for cats?

Bayer

2

How frequent do you apply Advantage II for cats?

monthly topical

3

Does Advantage II for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

4

Does Advantage II for cats kill flea eggs?

yes

5

Does Advantage II for cats kill ticks?

no

6

Does Advantage II for cats repel mosquitos?

no

7

Does Advantage II for cats kill lice?

no

8

Does Advantage II for cats repel flies?

no

9

What the earliest age for use of Advantage II for cats?

8 weeks

10

Whats the active ingredient in Advantage II for cats?

Imidacloprid + Pyriproxyfen

11

Who is the manufacturer for Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

Farnam

12

How frequent do you apply Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

monthly topical

13

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill adult fleas?

yes

14

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill flea eggs?

yes

15

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill ticks?

yes

16

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats repel mosquitos?

yes

17

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill lice?

no

18

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats repel flies?

no

19

What is the earliest age for use of Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

12 weeks

20

What are the active ingredients in Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

Etofenprox + (s)Methoprene

21

Who is the manufacturer for FiproGuard for cats?

Sentry/Sergeant's

22

How frequent do you apply FiproGuard for cats?

monthly topical

23

Does FiproGuard for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

24

Does FiproGuard for cats kill flea eggs?

no

25

Does FiproGuard for cats kill ticks?

yes

26

Does FiproGuard for cats repel mosquitos?

no

27

Does FiproGuard for cats kill lice?

yes

28

Does FiproGuard for cats repel flies?

no

29

What the earliest age for use of FiproGuard for cats?

8 weeks

30

What are the active ingredients in FiproGuard for cats?

Fipronil

31

Who is the manufacturer for Frontline plus for cats?

merial

32

How frequent do you apply Frontline plus for cats?

monthly topical

33

Does Frontline plus for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

34

Does Frontline plus for cats kill flea eggs?

yes

35

Does Frontline plus for cats kill ticks?

yes

36

Does Frontline plus for cats repel mosquitos?

no

37

Does Frontline plus for cats kill lice?

yes

38

Does Frontline plus for cats repel flies?

no

39

What is the earliest age for use of Frontline plus for cats?

8 weeks

40

What are the active ingredients in Frontline plus for cats?

Fipronil + (s)Methoprene

41

Who is the manufacturer for Frontline Top Spot for cats?

Merial

42

How frequent do you apply Frontline Top Spot for cats?

monthly topical

43

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

44

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill flea eggs?

no

45

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill ticks?

yes

46

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats repel mosquitos?

no

47

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill lice?

yes

48

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats repel flies?

no

49

What the earliest age for use of Frontline Top Spot for cats?

8 weeks

50

What are the active ingredients in Frontline Top Spot for cats?

Finopril

51

Who is the manufacturer for Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

Sentry/Sergeant's

52

How frequent do you apply Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

monthly topical

53

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

54

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill flea eggs?

no

55

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill ticks?

yes

56

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats repel mosquitos?

yes

57

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill lice?

no

58

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats repel flies?

no

59

Whats the earliest age of use of Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

12 weeks

60

What are the active ingredients in Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

Natural Botanical Oils

61

Who is the manufacturer for PetArmor for cats?

Sentry/Sergeant's

62

How frequent do you apply PetArmor for cats?

monthly topical

63

Does PetArmor for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

64

Does PetArmor for cats kill flea eggs?

no

65

Does PetArmor for cats kill ticks?

yes

66

Does PetArmor for cats repel mosquitos?

no

67

Does PetArmor for cats kill lice?

yes

68

Does PetArmor for cats repel flies?

no

69

Whats the earliest age of use for PetArmor for cats?

8 weeks

70

What are the active ingredients in PetArmor for cats?

Fipronil

71

Who is the manufacturer for Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

Sergeant's

72

How frequent do you apply Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

monthly topical

73

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

74

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill flea eggs?

no

75

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill ticks?

yes

76

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats repel mosquitos?

no

77

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill lice?

yes

78

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats repel flies?

no

79

Whats the earliest age of use for Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

12 weeks

80

What are the active ingredients in Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

Firpronil + Etofenprox

81

Who is the manufacturer for SpectraSure Plus for cats?

Durvet

82

How frequent do you apply SpectraSure Plus for cats?

monthly topical

83

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

84

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill flea eggs?

no

85

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill ticks?

yes

86

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats repel mosquitos?

no

87

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill lice?

yes

88

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats repel flies?

no

89

What is the earliest age of use for SpectraSure Plus for cats?

12 weeks

90

What are the active ingredients in SpectraSure Plus for cats?

Fipronil + Etofenprox

91

Who is the manufacturer for Vectra for cats?

Ceva

92

How frequent do you apply Vectra for cats?

monthly topical

93

Does Vectra for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

94

Does Vectra for cats kill flea eggs?

no

95

Does Vectra for cats kill ticks?

no

96

Does Vectra for cats repel mosquitos?

no

97

Does Vectra for cats kill lice?

no

98

Does Vectra for cats repel flies?

no

99

Whats the earliest age of use for Vectra for cats?

8 weeks

100

Whats the active ingredient in Vectra for cats?

Dinotefuran + Pyriproxyfen

101

Who is the manufacturer for EasySpot for cats?

Novartis

102

How frequent do you apply EasySpot for cats?

monthly topical

103

Does EasySpot for cats kill adult fleas?

yes

104

Does EasySpot for cats kill flea eggs?

no

105

Does EasySpot for cats kill ticks?

yes

106

Does EasySpot for cats repel mosquitos?

no

107

Does EasySpot for cats kill lice?

yes

108

Does EasySpot for cats repel flies?

no

109

Whats the earliest age for use of EasySpot for cats?

8 weeks

110

What are the active ingredients in EasySpot for cats?

Fipronil

111

Who is the manufacturer for Advantage Multi for dogs?

Bayer

112

How do you apply Advantage Multi for dogs?

topically

113

What does Advantage Multi for dogs prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, whipworms, fleas, mange

114

What is the earliest age and weight for use of Advantage Multi for dogs?

7 weeks and 3 lbs

115

What are the active ingredients in Advantage Multi for dogs?

Imidacloprid + Moxidectin

116

Who is the manufacturer for Heartgard?

Merial

117

How do you administer Heartgard?

chewable

118

What does Heartgard prevent?

heart worms and hookworms

119

Whats the earliest age for use of Heartgard?

6 weeks

120

Whats the active ingredient in Heartgard?

Ivermectin

121

Who is the manufacturer for Heartgard plus?

Marial

122

How do you administer Heartgard plus?

chewable

123

What does Heartgard plus prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, and roundworms

124

Whats the earliest age for use of Heartgard plus?

6 weeks

125

What are the active ingredients for Heartgard plus?

Ivermectin + Pyrantel

126

Who is the manufacturer for Interceptor?

Elanco

127

What does Interceptor prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms

128

Whats the earliest age and weight for Interceptor?

4 weeks and 2lbs

129

What are the active ingredients in Interceptor?

Milbemycin Oxime

130

What does Interceptor plus prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, tape worms

131

Whats the earliest age for use of Interceptor plus?

6 weeks

132

What are the active ingredients in Interceptor plus?

Milbemycin Oxime + Praziquantel

133

Who is the manufacturer for Iverhart Max?

Virbac

134

What does Iverhart Max prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, tapeworms

135

Whats the earliest age for use of Iverhart Max?

8 weeks

136

What are the active ingredients in Iverhart Max?

Ivermectin + Pyrantel Pamoate + Praziquantel

137

Who is the manufacturer for Iverhart plus?

Virbac

138

What does Iverhart plus prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

139

Whats the earliest age for use of Iverhart plus?

6 weeks

140

What are the active ingredients in Iverhart plus?

Ivermectin + Pryrantil

141

Who is the manufacturer for PetTrust Plus?

FidoPharm

142

What does PetTrust Plus prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

143

Whats the earliest age for use of PetTrust Plus?

6 weeks

144

What are the active ingredients in PetTrust Plus?

Ivermectin + Pryrantil

145

Who is the manufacturer for Sentinel Flavor tabs?

virbac

146

What does Sentinel Flavor tabs prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, fleas

147

Whats the earliest age and weight for use of Sentinel Flavor tabs?

4 weeks and 2 lbs

148

What are the active ingredients in Sentinel Flavor tabs?

Milbemycin Oxime + Lufenuron

149

Who is the manufacturer for Sentinel Spectrum?

Virbac

150

What does Sentinel Spectrum prevent heart worms?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, tapeworms, fleas

151

Whats the earliest age for use of Sentinel Spectrum?

6 weeks

152

What are the active ingredients in Sentinel Spectrum?

Milbemycin Oxime + Lufenuron + Praziquantel

153

Who is the manufacturer for Trifexis?

Elanco

154

What does Trifexis prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, fleas

155

What is the earliest age and weight for use of Trifexis?

8 weeks and 5 lbs

156

What does Tri-Heart Plus prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

157

Whats the earliest age for use of Tri-Heart Plus?

6 weeks

158

What are the active ingredients in Trifexis?

Spinosad + Mibemycin Oxime

159

What are the active ingredients in Tri-Heart Plus?

Ivermectin + Pyrantel

160

Who is the manufacturer for Worm Shield?

Schuyler

161

What does Worm Shield prevent?

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

162

Whats the earliest age for use of Worm Shield?

6 weeks

163

What are the active ingredients in Worm Shield?

Ivermectin + Pyrantel

164

What are organophosphates effective against?

bots and nematodes

165

Which Anticestodals work by increasing the cestodes cell membrane permeability?

Praziquantel

166

What is a brand name for Praziquantel?

Droncit

167

What cestode species does Praziquantel work on?

all species

168

What anticestodal causes disintegration of the cestode?

Epsiprantel

169

What is a brand name for Epsiprantel?

Cestex

170

What is Epsiprantel effective against?

Taenia and Dipylidium

171

What is Epsiprantel not effective against?

Echinococcus

172

What is Fenbendazole effective against?

some Taenia species

173

What is a brand name for Fenbendazole?

Panacur

174

Which antitrematodal works by inhibiting the trematodes enzyme systems for energy production?

Clorsulon

175

What is Clorsulon effective against?

Fasciola hepatica

176

Which Antitrematodal interferes with the energy metabolism of the worm?

Albendazole

177

What is Albendazole also effective against?

some nematodes

178

What is Praziquantel also effective against?

lung trematodes in dogs and cats

179

What is Coccidiosis?

a protozoal infection that causes intestinal disorders

180

Anticoccidial drugs are what?

coccidiostats

181

What does coccidiostats mean?

do not actually kill the parasite

182

What does Sulfadimethoxine do?

reduces the number of oocysts shed, thus reducing spread of disease

183

Which Anticoccidials work mainly by affecting the protozoan's metabolism?

Nicarbazine, Amprolium, Monesin, Decoquinate, Robenidine

184

What is Giardiasis?

a protozoal disease caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia

185

Which Antiprotozoal drug enters the protozoal cell and interferes with its ability to function and replicate?

Metronidazole

186

What are side effects of Metronidazole?

uncommon, vomiting/diarrhea

187

How is blood protozoan Babesia sp. transmitted?

by ticks

188

Which drug has cholinergic effects on the protozoan?

imidocarb

189

What are side effects of imidocarb?

injection pain, salivation, vomiting

190

What is heart worm disease caused by?

the filarial nematode Dirofilaria immitis

191

What is heart worm preventative used for?

preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity

192

Which daily oral preventative is given during mosquito season and two months after?

Diethylcarbamazine

193

In order to have Diethylcarbamazine the patient must be what?

heart worm negative

194

What are some once-monthly oral preventatives?

Ivermectin and Milbemycin

195

What is a brand name for Ivermectin?

Heartgard

196

What is a brand name for Milbemycin?

Interceptor or Sentinel

197

What are some once-monthly topical preventatives?

Selamectin

198

What is a brand name for Selamectin?

Revolution

199

What does Selamectin treat?

fleas, ear mites, scabies, some nematodes

200

What are side effects of Selamectin?

uncommon, transient localized alopecia

201

What should you avoid doing when you have a patient on Selamectin?

immediately bathing

202

What are some 6-month injectable preventatives?

Moxidectin

203

What is a brand name for Moxidectin?

ProHeart-6

204

What is a brand name for Melarsomine?

Immidicide

205

Where is Melarsomine given?

in the epaxial muscles

206

Melarsomine is less toxic than what?

thiacetarsamide

207

What are side effects of Melarsomine?

injection site pain/swelling, respiratory signs, death

208

What main chemicals are used for Ectoparasite treatment?

Pyrethrins, pyrethroids, Imidacloprid(advantage), Fipronil(Frontline), Selamectin (Revolution)

209

What is Fluralaner?

Oral, 12 week flea and tick control

210

What age should Fluralaner be used?

6 months

211

What is a brand name for Fluralaner?

Bravecto

212

What is Afoxolaner?

Oral flea and tick

213

What age should Afoxolaner be used?

8+ weeks of age

214

What is a brand name for Afoxolaner?

NexGard

215

What is Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen?

Monthly flea and tick control, mosquito repellant

216

What is Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen NOT?

a heart worm preventative

217

What age should Dinotefuran be used?

8+ weeks

218

What is a brand name for Dinotefuran?

Vectra

219

What are Pyrethroids?

groups of quick-kill chemicals in flea products

220

Treatment of Giardia lambda infections should include what?

metronidazole

221

All flea products also control ticks, true or false?

false

222

What are some reversal agents?

Naloxone, Atipamezole, Yohimbine, Tolazoline

223

What is activated charcoal used for?

absorbing toxins

224

What is Calcium EDTA used for?

heavy metals (lead, copper, mercury)

225

What is Dimercaprol used for?

heavy metals (lead, copper, mercury)

226

What can cause heavy metal toxicity?

pennies and batteries

227

What species is very susceptible to copper poisoning?

sheep

228

What is Penicillamine?

heavy metal antidote

229

What is Pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)?

organo phosphate antidote

230

What are the 3 layers of the globe?

sclera, choroid, and retina

231

What does the adnexa consist of?

eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus

232

What 3 things should you consider when using topical ophthalmic drugs?

1. They must be absorbed into the anterior chamber
2. They may be administered at different frequencies depending on whether they are in ointment or solution form
3. They must be relatively easy to administer so that client compliance occurs

233

What topical anesthetics are used to help perform comprehensive eye exams or to remove foreign material from the eye?

proparacaine and tetracaine

234

What is applied to the cornea to assess ant corneal defects?

Fluorescein sodium

235

What do mydriatics do?

dilate the pupil

236

What do cycloplegics do?

paralyze the ciliary muscles and minimize pain

237

What are some examples of mydriatics and cycloplegics?

atropine, homatropine, phenylephrine, tropicamide, and epinephrine

238

What is glaucoma?

a group of diseases that increase intraocular pressure

239

What do miotics do?

constrict the pupil

240

What is used to treat glaucoma?

miotics

241

What is an example of a miotic?

pilocarpine

242

What interferes with the production of carbonic acid, leading to a decrease of aqueous humor production?

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

243

What are some examples of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, and methazolamide

244

What decreases the production of aqueous humor?

beta-adrenergic blockers

245

What are some examples of beta-adrenergic blockers?

timolol and betazolol

246

What are osmotics?

diuretics that decrease vitreous humor volume to rapidly decrease intraocular pressure

247

What are some examples of osmotics?

mannitol and glycerin

248

What can be used topically and can reduce intraocular pressure by increasing outflow of aqueous humor?

prostaglandins

249

What are alpha-adrenergic agonists?

sympathomimetic drugs that reduce aqueous humor secretion and thus decrease intraocular pressure

250

What are some side effects of alpha-adrenergic agonists?

diarrhea and vomiting in dogs and cats

251

What is KCS?

Keratoconjuntivitis Sicca, a disease in which tear production is decreased, resulting in mucopurulent conjunctivitis and corneal scarring/ulceration

252

What are some examples of drugs that are used to treat KCS?

artificial tears, antibiotic-steroid preparations, lacrimogenics, cyclosporine

253

What are the 3 parts of the ear?

outer, middle, and inner

254

What are the parts of the outer ear?

pinna and external auditory canal

255

What are the parts of the middle ear?

tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, eustachian tube, oval window, and round window

256

What are the parts of the outer ear?

vestibule, cochlea, and semicircular canals

257

What is otitis interna?

inner ear infection

258

What are side effects of otitis interna?

head tilt toward infected side, ataxia, nausea, and vomiting

259

What antibiotics are used to treat ear disease?

gentamicin, chloramphenicol, neomycin, enrofloxacin

260

What antiparasitics are used to treat ear disease?

pyrethrins, rotenone, ivermectin, selamectin

261

What antifungals are used to treat ear disease?

thiabendazole and clotrimazole

262

What else can be used to treat ear disease?

corticosteroids, otic drying agents, otic cleansing agents, and otic dewing agents

263

What are some examples of gentamicin?

Gentocin, Otomax, Mometamax

264

What are some examples of neomycin?

Tresaderm and Palalog

265

What are some examples of enrofloxacin?

Baytril Otic

266

What are some examples of pyrethrins?

Mita-Clear and Tresaderm

267

What are some examples of rotenone?

Ear miticide

268

What are some examples of selamectin?

Revolution

269

What are some examples of thiabendazole?

Tresaderm

270

What are some examples of clotrimazole?

Otomax and Mometamax