Exam 4 - Study Book Questions Flashcards
(151 cards)
1
Q
The most significant infectious agents of humans, as well as prevalent members of the normal microbiota of the skin, oral cavity, and intestine, include ______ cocci.
A
gram-negative and gram-positive
2
Q
The genus of bacteria that is a common inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes, causing a significant proportion of human infections is
A
staphylococci
3
Q
S. aureus exhibits fewer virulence factors than S. epidermidis. T/F
A
False
(S. aureus exhibits the most)
4
Q
Which of the following are virulence factors of S. aureus? (3)
A
Leukocidins
Hemolysins
Enterotoxins
5
Q
An enzyme that clots plasma is called
A
coagulase
6
Q
Isolates of S. aureus can be resistant to multiple antibiotics. T/F
A
True
7
Q
Two virulence factors of S. aureus are
______ that digests blood clots and
_______ that destroys red blood cells.
A
staphylokinase
hemolysin
8
Q
Which factor associated with S. aureus gives rise to staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
A
Exfoliative toxin
9
Q
A local staphylococcal infection often manifests as an inflamed, fibrous lesion enclosing a core of pus called a(n)
A
abscess
10
Q
Some isolates of S. aureus show multiple resistance to antibiotics; some produce ______, which is used by the bacteria to inactivate some beta-lactam antibiotics.
A
penicillinase
11
Q
Toxin production by S. aureus can result in ______ intoxication; scalded _____ syndrome, or toxic _____ syndrome.
A
food
skin
shock
12
Q
Fever, vomiting and rash, along with potentially fatal complications involving the liver, kidneys, and nervous system, are symptoms seen in ________ caused by S. aureus.
A
toxic shock syndrome
13
Q
Staphylococcus aureus produces a(n) ______ toxin that separates the epidermal layer from the dermis and causes the skin to peel away.
A
exfoliative
14
Q
A condition seen in children with S. aureus infections of the umbilical stump or eyes showing skin blistering and extensive desquamation of the epidermis is called
A
staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
15
Q
Coagulase is produced by
A
S. aureus only
16
Q
Which of the following tests is often used to distinguish S. aureus from other staphylococcal species?
A
Coagulase test
17
Q
______ acquired MRSA is most often acquired outside of the hospital setting
A
Community
18
Q
Which of the following host defenses is considered the most effective in combating S. aureus infection?
A
Phagocytic response
19
Q
Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to which group of streptococci?
A
A
20
Q
Which is the most significant reservoir for S. pyogenes?
A
Humans
21
Q
Which describe metabolic characteristics of Streptococci? (3)
A
Produce lactic acid by sugar fermentation
Facultative anaerobes
Capable of inactivating hydrogen peroxide
22
Q
S. pyogenes gains a foothold in the host, usually when defenses are lowered, through the: (2)
A
pharynx.
skin.
23
Q
Strep throat is more accurately referred to as streptococcal
A
pharyngitis
24
Q
Streptococcal throat infection can lead to ______ due to systemic spread of erythrogenic toxin resulting in high fever and a bright-red, diffuse skin rash.
A
Scarlet fever
25
One of the major clinical features of rheumatic fever is _______, causing damage to the heart valves and muscle.
carditis
26
Which of the following causes of pneumonia matches this description: small, gram-positive lancet-shaped cells arranged in pairs and short chains?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
27
Diseases caused by S. pneumoniae include which of the following? (3)
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
28
Most Neisseriaceae species are ______, while two species are ______.
commensals; pathogens
29
The common name for Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the
gonococcus
30
The main virulence factors of N. gonorrhoeae are the _______ which play a role in adherence and preventing ______ by host cells.
fimbriae
phagocytosis
31
The major virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is its ______.
capsule
32
Which of the following are contributing factors to the pathogenicity of N. gonorrhoeae? (3)
Fimbriae promoting attachment to other cocci and to tissue surfaces
Protease cleaving IgA on mucosal surfaces
Surface molecules promoting attachment to other cocci and to tissue surfaces
33
What is the infectious dose of gonorrhea?
100 to 1000 colony-forming units
34
What are the 2 leading causes of PID?
Chlamydia infections
N. gonorrhoeae infections
35
Which of the following can result from extragenital gonococcal infections occurring in adults? (4)
Proctitis
Pharyngitis
Arthritis
Conjunctivitis
36
Signs and symptoms of gonorrhea in males include: (3)
urethritis.
painful urination.
purulent discharge.
37
Extragenital gonococcal bacteremia can lead to gonococci causing damage to the joints and skin, as well as rare cases of _____ in the brain and ______ in the heart.
meningitis
endocarditis
38
The gram-positive bacilli can be subdivided into ______ general groups based on the presence or absence of _____ and the characteristic of acid-fastness.
3
endospores
39
Endospore-forming bacteria that are gram-positive, motile, rod-shaped forms are mostly found in two genera: ____ and _____ .
Bacillus
Clostridium
40
The bacterial genus that includes mostly saprobic, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rods is
bacillus
41
The causative agent of anthrax is
Bacillus anthracis
42
Select 4 correct descriptions of Bacillus anthracis, the causative organism of anthrax.
Forms endospores
Nonmotile rod
Facultative anaerobe
degrades complex macromolecules
43
What is used to subdivide the gram-positive bacilli into three general groups? (2)
Presence of endospores
Acid-fast staining properties
44
Which of the following are characteristic of the genus Bacillus? (4)
Source of antibiotics
Aerobic
Endospore-forming
Saprobic
45
Which of the following characteristics can be used to differentiate between the genera Bacillus and Clostridium?
Oxygen requirements
Presence of catalase
46
Clostridial infections are usually communicable. T/F
False
47
Clostridial diseases are often caused by ______.
release of exotoxins
48
Clostridial infections require damaged or dead tissue as well as ______ environments.
anaerobic
49
How are clostridial infections acquired?
They are acquired through contamination of injured skin.
50
A neuromuscular disease that results in uncontrolled contraction of skeletal muscles is ______.
tetanus
51
Necrotic tissues and poor blood supply favor ______ of C. tetani spores.
germination
52
Most cases of tetanus occur when bacteria enter the body through: (5)
frostbite.
crushed body parts.
burns.
umbilical stumps.
accidental puncture wounds.
53
Which are the main signs and symptoms of tetanus? (3)
Spastic paralysis
Respiratory muscle paralysis
Clenching of the jaw
54
Although not yet approved by the FDA, some evidence suggests that fecal microbiota transplantation has been effective in treating infections by which organism?
Clostridiodes difficile
55
Which poses the highest risk for botulism?
Home-processed foods
56
The botulinum toxin prevents the release of ______ at the neuromuscular junction, thus preventing muscle contraction.
ACH
57
Babies are susceptible to infant botulism because
their intestinal tract is immature
58
Which are characteristics of most Mycobacterium species? (4)
Strict aerobes
Long, slender rods
Resistant to a variety of germicides
Acid-fastness
59
Although mycobacteria usually contain granules and vacuoles, they do not form ______, _______, ______
capsules
flagella
spores
60
Tuberculosis in normal, untreated cases:
progresses slowly.
can persist for a lifetime.
will have alternating periods of illness and health.
61
In order from earliest to latest, the major clinical manifestations of tuberculosis are ______ tuberculosis, ______ tuberculosis, and ______ tuberculosis.
primary
latent
extrapulmonary
62
The granulomatous lung lesion seen in TB that can serve as a focus for latent infection is called a(n
tubercle
63
Necrotic areas within the centers of tubercles that resemble cheese or curds and that heal by calcification are called
caseous lesions
64
What occurs in latent TB? (3)
Wasting of the body occurs as a result of severe symptoms.
Live dormant TB bacteria are reactivated.
Tubercles expand and drain into the upper respiratory tract.
65
The Mantoux test, also known as the
______ is a valuable diagnostic tool used for TB that involves the injection of a M. tuberculosis protein into the dermis and observation for the visual sign of a cell-mediated response.
tuberculin reaction
66
A positive tuberculin skin test can indicate (3)
vaccination with the BCG vaccine
a reactivation of a prior latent infection
a recent exposure to tuberculosis
67
Which four of the following are techniques used in the clinical diagnosis of TB? (4)
Cultural isolation and identification
Acid-fast stains
Chest X-rays
Tuberculin tests
68
______ is a lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of the gram-negative cell wall that can be released during septicemia.
Endotoxin
69
Which of the following describe the characteristics of the genus Pseudomonas? (4)
Oxidase-positive
Single flagellum
Gram-negative
Catalase-positive
70
The members of the genera Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas are
opportunists
71
Which zoonotic disease can cause abortions in animals but is characterized by a severe febrile illness without abortions in humans?
Brucellosis
72
Which of the following is the causative agent of tularemia?
Francisella tularensis
73
Whooping cough is caused by the bacterium
Bordetella pertussis
74
Legionella species are ______ and typically live in ______ environments.
obligate aerobes; aquatic
75
Members of the Enterobacteriaceae family are
facultative anaerobes
76
Due it is role in laboratory studies, the best-known coliform is
E. coli
77
Which are characteristics of Legionellas? (4)
Aerobic
Fastidious
Weakly gram-negative
Morphology from cocci to filaments
78
Which of the following describe the Enterobacteriaceae? (4)
Small Gram-negative rods
Ferment carbohydrates
Facultative anaerobes
Common normal flora
79
Gram-negative enterics have antigens contributing to their pathogenicity that are found on which of the following structures? (3)
Flagella
Cell Wall
Capsule
80
E. coli infections are confined to the gastrointestinal tract. T/F
False
81
Other than the intestine, E.coli can also infect the: (3)
brain
urinary tract
lungs
82
All of the following are genera of clinical importance as opportunistic coliforms (4)
Serratia
Citrobacter
Enterobacter
Klebsiella
83
Carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae are able to survive in the presence of carbapenem antibiotics because they ______ that provide(s) resistance to the antibiotic.
have acquired a gene for an enzyme
84
When cultured on agar, Proteus displays a(n) ______ growth pattern due to swarming of the bacteria.
concentric
85
Compared to the coliforms and Proteus, the salmonellae and shigellae have well-developed ______ ______ , which allows them to be primary _____
virulence factors
pathogens
86
Illnesses caused by the noncoliform Salmonella bacteria are called
salmonelloses
87
What is different about the salmonellae and shigellae when compared to the coliforms and Proteus group? (3)
They are primary pathogens.
They are not part of the normal flora.
They have well-developed virulence factors.
88
Salmonella enterica strains are subdivided into more than 2,500 serotypes based on differences in their: (2)
cell wall (O) antigen.
flagellar (H) antigen.
89
Members of the ______ genus are flagellated, virulent pathogens that are easy to cultivate in the lab and are resistant to bile, dyes and freezing temperatures.
salmonella
90
Dysentery illnesses caused by the noncoliform Shigella bacteria are called
Shigelloses
91
Which type of carriers for Salmonella ser. Typhi are a major source for spreading typhoid fever?
asymptomatic
92
Typhoid fever is named after its superficial resemblance to the rickettsial disease
typhus
93
Salmonella bacteria are normal intestinal biota in which animals? (3)
Cattle
Rodents
Reptiles
94
How is typhoid fever usually transmitted?
contaminated food or water
95
Which of the following is a very common host of Salmonella?
Poultry
(eggs and milk most most common)
96
Salmonelloses are usually less severe than typhoid fever. T/F
true
97
Arrange the following Salmonella infections in descending order of symptoms and virulence, with the most severe condition at the top.
1. Typhoid Fever
2. Gastroenteritis
3. Nontyphoidal salmonellosis
4. Asymptomatic infection
98
Salmonella gastroenteritis causes vomiting, diarrhea, fever, mucosal lesions, and dehydration. What does it NOT cause?
Fever
99
Which organism causes the plague?
Yersinia pestis
100
Pasteurella multocida is a member of the normal flora in (4)
dogs
cats
cattle
chickens
101
Which are characteristics of Haemophilus cells? (4)
Rods
Gram negative
Encapsulated
Fastidious
102
The curviform genus with organisms that are short spirals or curved rods with one flagellum is
Campylobacter
103
When the cholera toxin binds to specific receptors on intestinal cells, the cells shed large amounts of ______ into the intestine, accompanied by extreme _______ loss.
electrolytes
water
104
Treatments for Vibrio vulnificus infections include: (3)
fluid replacement.
antibiotic therapy.
debridement of infected wounds.
105
Which are three genera of curviform bacteria that are important to human health?
Helicobacter
Vibrio
Campylobacter
106
Which are characteristics of Helicobacter pylori? (4)
Oxidative
Thrives in an acidic environment
Microaerophilic
Multiple, sheathed, polar flagella
107
Campylobacter ______, one of the most important causes of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide, is transmitted through contaminated beverages and food.
jejuni
108
The characteristic of H. pylori that differs from Campylobacter is
the presence of multiple sheathed polar flagella
109
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?
Able to reproduce outside of a host cell
110
Abnormalities observed in cells that are being damaged by a virus are called
cytopathic effects
111
A virus infection which is either chronic or latent is called a(n) ______ infection
persistent
112
Which of the following describes a situation in which the nucleic acid of a virus is present within a host cell but the virus is not multiplying or causing symptoms?
latent infection
113
A separate, stable, viral genetic element that exists during viral latency is a(n)
episome
114
Which of the following are characteristics of a virus? (4)
Obligate intracellular parasite
Acellular
Contains either an RNA or DNA genome
Surrounded by a protein coat
115
Which of the following terms is used to describe a viral-induced eruption in the skin which typically leaves a small, depressed scar upon healing?
pox
116
Which disease is caused by a poxvirus and characterized by smooth, waxy skin lesions?
Molluscum contagiosum
117
Which of the following herpesviruses typically causes genital infections?
HSV-2
118
The name given to a herpes infection occurring when the virus enters a break in the skin, typically in the fingers, is herpetic
whitlow
119
Which of the following herpes viruses causes a condition called shingles?
Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
120
Which of the following herpesviruses typically causes oral fever blisters?
HSV-1
121
Similar to the disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus, adults can contract a syndrome called cytomegalovirus
mononucleosis
122
Which virus is linked to infectious mononucleosis and Burkitt lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus
123
HHV-8, also known as KSHV, is the likely cause of a type of cancer called
Kaposi sarcoma
124
Influenza A viruses are named according to
differing H and N subtypes
125
The enzyme ______ allows the influenza virus to break down the protective mucus in the respiratory tract, helps the virus to bud from host cells, and prevents viruses from sticking together.
neuraminidase
126
The role of hemagglutinin in an influenza infection is to
facilitate penetration of the respiratory mucosal cells
127
Constant genetic change of glycoproteins through mutations in the genome of influenza virus A is referred to as ______.
antigenic drift
128
The role of neuraminidase in an influenza infection is to: (3)
assist in budding of virions.
keep viruses from sticking together.
break down the mucous coating of the respiratory tract.
129
Major changes in the influenza A virus due to recombination of viral strains from two different host species are referred to as antigenic
shift
130
Influenza is a disease of _______
regularity and occurs as _____ at irregular intervals.
seasonal
pandemics
131
The signs and symptoms of influenza include: (6)
sore throat.
myalgia.
coughing.
headache.
fever.
shortness of breath.
132
A cluster of signs and symptoms seen in the late stages of infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
acquired
immunodeficiency
syndrome
133
HIV is in the group of viruses called ______
, which have the enzyme reverse transcriptase to catalyze the production of a DNA copy of their RNA genome.
retroviruses
134
HIV infection begins when the virus crosses a mucous membrane or the skin and enters a(n) ______cell by phagocytosis.
dendritic
135
A retrovirus has a(n) ______ genome that can be ______.
RNA; copied into DNA and inserted into one of the host cell's chromosomes
136
In order, the steps of the multiplication cycle of HIV are:
binding,
________
reverse transcription,
_______
replication,
_________,
and budding.
fusion
integration
assembly
137
Symptoms of HIV are directly tied to ______ titer, and the levels of _____
and ______-cells in the blood.
antibody
virus
T
138
Which of the following cell types can HIV infect? (4)
Monocytes
Dendritic cells
Helper T cells
Macrophages
139
How do most HIV-infected patients first notice the initial phase of AIDS?
Appearance of opportunistic infections
140
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of AIDS?
Hyperthyroidism
141
Signs/symptoms related to AIDS include: (5)
body wasting.
neoplasms.
neurological disturbances.
generalized lymphadenopathy.
opportunistic infections.
142
For individuals engaging in risky behaviors, condoms along with
__________
prophylaxis (PrEP) have been effective in reducing the risk of HIV infection.
pre-exposure
143
Tests for HIV infection that give quick results are latex ______
tests and rapid ______
tests.
agglutination
antibody
144
Besides a positive test for HIV, a person must also meet one of which of the following additional criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS? (3)
CD4 cells represent less than 14% of lymphocytes
History of at least one AIDS-defining illness
CD4 count below 200 cells/microliter of blood
145
The effective approach of using a combination of two reverse transcriptase inhibitors and one protease inhibitor to treat HIV infection is referred to as
_______
or ART.
antiretroviral
therapy
146
An acute enteroviral infection of the spinal cord that can cause neuromuscular paralysis, preventable through a vaccine, is called
polio
147
The poliovirus is a(n) ______ virus with a(n) ______ genome. What kind of capsid?
naked; RNA
icosahedral capsid
148
The poliovirus is transmitted through all of the following except: (2)
aerosols.
sexual contact.
149
The pathway of the poliovirus from the portal of entry to the nervous system tissue is
digestive mucosa, blood, CNS
150
Most poliovirus infections result in long-term paralysis of muscles. T/F
false
151
In comparing the two vaccines against polio, the ______ is more effective but carries a small risk of causing disease, while the ______ is preferred in regions where the virus is no longer circulating.
live oral polio vaccine; inactivated injected poliovirus vaccine
