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Exam 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are restriction enzymes?

A

enzymes that cut DNA into segments

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2
Q

How do enzymes protect themselves from cutting their own DNA?

A

they methylate their DNA to inhibit cutting

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3
Q

What are palindromes?

A

DNA sequences that can be read the same forwards and backwards

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4
Q

Sticky ends vs blunt ends

A

stick ends have staggered cuts and go back together easily while blunt ends are cut down the middle and need ligases to go back together

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5
Q

What is recombinant DNA?

A

when a DNA molecule is combined with another –> this is used to add genes

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6
Q

What are plasmids?

A

tiny rings of DNA that bacteria have

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7
Q

Explain how DNA genetic modifications are made.

A

Restriction enzymes cut out parts of DNA and replaces it with another part that has different genes. This helps create many products to treat diseases, such as insulin

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8
Q

What is polymerase chain reaction?

A

takes one piece of DNA and makes a billion copies for electrophoresis

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9
Q

What is restriction fragment length polymorphism?

A

differences in DNA sequences between individuals (how genes are cut in different places because of various different genes)

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10
Q

What is an SNP?

A

single nucleotide polymorphism in which a mutation in a single base pair are inherited as allelic variants

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11
Q

What do SNPs do?

A

they are markers (not actual genes), and can help tell susceptibility for disorders or help tell your ancestory

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12
Q

What is a limitation in the ancestry algorithm?

A

they do not recognize extremely rare SNPs

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13
Q

What does MgCl2 do in DNA copying?

A

it is a cofactor that allows for the formation of the phosphodiester bonds to DNA polymerase

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14
Q

What is used for the PCR reaction and what are the steps?

A

thermocycler - melt DNA, anneal primer (to form H bonds between the primer and the template strand, DNA polymerization (raise temp so DNA polymerase can add nucleotides

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15
Q

Which bacteria can withstand high temperatures without denaturing?

A

thermus aquaticus

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16
Q

What else does PCR do?

A

helps identify species by using species-specific primers and can quantify initial DNA sample (like how much bacteria was in food)

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17
Q

Describe how Sir Alec Jeffreys did DNA profiling

A

He followed the variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR) that are different in every person. He then cut DNA with restriction enzymes and did electrophoresis. This led him to discover that a heterozygous person would have two bands at the site and homozygous would have one

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18
Q

Homozygotes vs heterozygotes in tandem repeats

A

Homozygotes have the same number of repeats on both homologous chromosomes, but heterozygotes have different numbers of repeats on the two chromosomes

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19
Q

What replaced VNTRs?

A

short tandem repeats (STRs)

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20
Q

How are restriction enzymes named?

A

after the bacteria they were made from

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21
Q

What conclusion is George Beadle and Edward Tatum draw with their moldy bread experiments?

A

the one gene one enzyme hypothesis

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22
Q

What part of the amino acid determines the chemical properties?

A

the R group

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23
Q

What describes the redundancy of the genetic code?

A

more than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid

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24
Q

What is a polypeptide chain?

A

polymer of amino acids (covalent bonds between amino acids formed by dehydration synthesis are peptide bonds)

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25
What is the non template strand also called?
the coding strand
26
How is the genetic code read?
5'-->3' and read in three letters at a time
27
How many codon sequences form proteins out of the 64?
61
28
What is the initiation codon?
AUG
29
What are the termination codons?
UAA, UAG, UGA
30
What are ribosomes made of?
rRNA and proteins (have a large subunit and small)
31
Where does protein synthesis occur?
ribosomes
32
What are the three steps of translation?
initiation - start elongation - sequential addition of AA Termination - ends process and polypeptide is released
33
N terminus vs C terminus
N - the start of the polypeptide - the amino group C - the end of the polypeptide - the carboxyl group
34
What do tRNAs do in translation?
they bring the polypeptides to the chain
35
How do the tRNA know where the mRNA?
the Shine-Dalgarno consensus sequence in bacterial cells and the Kozak sequence in eukaryotic cells
36
Describe the process of initiation in translation
The tRNA binds to the small subunit on the ribosome before the large ribosome comes over top of it to create the initiation complex (the first amino acid is made)
37
Describe the process of elongation.
While the first tRNA is in the P site, the second tRNA binds to the A site. A peptide bond is formed between the first and second amino acid. The initiator tRNA moves to the E site, while the second moves to the P site, once again opening up the A site
38
What are the E, P, and A sites?
e = exit sight, P = peptidyl, and A = aminoacyl site
39
Describe the process of termination.
the ribosome gets to the termination codon and dissociates the complex with the help of release factors and GTP
40
Can more than one ribosome go on a strand of mRNA at once?
yes, and this usually happens when many protein products are needed
41
What do chaperone proteins do?
help polypeptides fold into their 3-D shape
42
What is a nonsense mutation?
when the switch of a nucleotide causes a stop codon to be made early
43
What is a missense protein?
when a different letter is put into the sequence so a new amino acid is made
44
What is a silent mutation?
when there is a change in a letter but it does not result in a change of amino acid or stop codon
45
What are pharmacological chaperones?
drugs that act like chaperone proteins and make the proteins fold correctly
46
What happens if a protein is misfolded?
it gets tagged with ubiquitin and is taken to a proteasome which straightens the protein and dismantles it so that the amino acids can be reused
47
What type of disorders are very common from protein misfolding?
brain diseases
48
What are prion disease?
a subgroup of protein misfolding condition sand are fatal and have no cure
49
What are common examples of prion diseases?
mad cow disease or BSE, and chronic wasting disease
50
How do prions spread their disease?
when they approach a normal protein, it causes the normal protein to misfold
51
What is a population?
a group of individuals of the same kind living in the same place at the same time
52
What is a species?
all individuals of the same kind with potential to interbreed
53
Microevolution vs macroevolution
micro- shifting allele frequencies in populations indicate small steps of genetic change macro - when a bunch of micro changes add up and a new species is formed
54
What is the Hardy Weinburg equation?
p^2+2pq+q^2 = 1
55
If there are two alleles in the population, what does p+q equal?
1
56
What are the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinburg equation?
allele and genotypes stay consistent from generation to generation, no migration, no mutation, no natural selection, large population size, random mating
57
How are X-linked traits calculated using the Hardy-Weinburg equation?
Females use the regular equation, but men just use p+q=1 because the male only has one X allele and cannot be heterozygous
58
What are the implications of the Hardy Weinburg equation?
no evolution, allele frequency --> genotype frequency, assume natural forces are not in play
59
What are the five sources of evolutionary change at the population level?
nonrandom mating, migration, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection
60
What is genetic drift?
randomly samples genotypes passed to the next generation, altering allele frequencies (basically reproduction favors some genes over others)
61
Positive vs negative assortative mating
positive - indicates the individual's mate with other individuals like themselves negative - indications that individual's mate is not like themselves
62
what is outcrossing?
indicates that individuals specifically avoid mating with others related to themselves
63
What is homozygosity?
when both chromosome copies have the same identical by descent DNA sequence (indicates that two individuals shared a recent ancestor)
64
Why did Charles Darwin's three children perish young?
a run of homozygosity
65
What s consanguinity?
the degree to which inbreeding takes place (how closely related they are)
66
Migration vs immigration vs emigration
migration - individuals migrate and moves alleles from one area to another (reproduction between newcomers and residents) immigration - that populations are moving into a population thus brining new alleles emigration - indicates that individuals are moving out, taking rare alleles
67
What is latitudinal cline?
when allele frequences gradually change from north to south
68
What is fixation?
when a gene only has one allele because the rare allele was eliminated from the gene pool
69
What is a bottleneck population?
when an event slashes population size and it resurges from survivors, often decreasing genetic diversity
70
What is one of the consequences of bottleneck populations?
they have a harder time adapting to changes due to reduced gene pool
71
What is a founder effect?
when random samples from a population give rise to a new population (like when a few people move to an island and start a new population)
72
What is evidence for the founder effect?
when all individuals in a population have a certain mutation caused by the same disease
73
Factors that enhance genetic drift in a small population
migration, natural disaster, consequences of human behavior
74
Factors than can accelerate genetic drift
founder effect, population bottleneck
75
Describe forward vs reverse mutation
forward - alters a wild type allele to a mutant allele reverse - alters a mutant allele back to wild type
76
What does it mean when mutations are at equilibrium?
forward and reverse mutations occur at the same rate so the allelic frequencies of a population do not change
77
What is genetic load?
the collection of recessive deadly alleles in a population
78
How does one obtain 0 genetic fitness?
not having any children
79
What is the common mutation for the Yemeni Jews?
PKU
80
Which type of evolution does natural selection drive?
microevolution
81
Describe negative vs positive selection
negative - removal of an allele because it adversely affects the population positive - retention of an advantageous allele because it enhances reproductive success
82
What is an example of positive selection?
the sherpas being able to breathe at high altitudes
83
What is stabilizing selection?
intermediate phenotypes are favored (birth weight)
84
What is directional selection?
one extreme phenotype is favored over another (peppered moths)
85
What is disrupted selection?
extreme phenotypes are favored over intermediate phenotypes (snails)
86
What is balanced polymorphism?
harmful recessive alleles are replaced by new mutation and persistence in heterozygotes (maintains a recessive, disease-causing allele in a population but has health benefits for the heterozygote, like the sickle cell allele)
87
Which factors promote genetic diversity?
sexual reproduction, mutation, genetic drift, gene flow, natural selection, clinal variation, heterozygote advantage
88
What is eugenics?
the control of human reproduction with the intent of changing a population's genetic structure (Hitler)
89

Genetics (8 decks)

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