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Microbiology > Exam I > Flashcards

Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

Symbionts that harm or live at the expense of their host:

A

parasitic organsims

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2
Q

Microbes frequently found within the bodies of healthy persons:

A

Commensal organisms

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3
Q

Commensal organisms may also be referred to as:

A

Normal microbiota

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4
Q

What makes up the vast majority of normal flora:

A

Bacteria

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5
Q

Colonization of ____ occurs rapidly after birth

A

Bacteria

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6
Q

Locations in which large amounts of bacteria reside:

A
  1. Skin (especially moist areas)
  2. Respiratory tract (nose & oropharynx)
  3. Digestive tract (Mouth & large intestine)
  4. Urinary tract (anterior parts of urethra)
  5. Genital system (vagina)
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7
Q

Location in which small amounts of bacteria reside:

A

Remainder of respiratory & digestive tracts

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8
Q

Locations in which no bacteria are present are considered:

A

sterile

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9
Q

Sterile locations in the body:

A
  1. Blood
  2. CSF
  3. Synovial fluid
  4. Deep tissues
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10
Q

Normal flora; found all over:

A

Resident organisms

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11
Q

Resides in an area for a limited time:

A

Transient organisms

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12
Q

Growth & multiplication of parasite on or within host:

A

Infection

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13
Q

Disease resulting from infection:

A

Infectious disease

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14
Q

Any parasitic organism that causes infectious disease by DIRECT interaction with host:

A

Primary (Frank) pathogen

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15
Q

Causes disease only under certain circumstances (such as after antibiotic tx)

A

Opportunistic pahtogen

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16
Q

Ability of a parasite to cause a disease:

A

Pathogenicity

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17
Q

Any component of a pathogenic microbe that is required for or that potentiates its ability to cause disease:

A

Virulence factor

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18
Q

Pathogenicity & virulence depend on:

A

The host

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19
Q

What are the steps in an infectious disease:

A
  1. Encounter
  2. Entry
  3. Spread
  4. Multiplication
  5. Damage
  6. Outcome
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20
Q

What are three types of encounters with a pathogen:

A
  1. Exogenous
  2. Endongenous
  3. Congenital
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21
Q

When a pathogen is externally derived such as a sneeze:

A

Exogenous encounter

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22
Q

When a pathogen is internally derived such as a change in immunity/health; already inside:

A

Endogenous encounter

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23
Q

When a pathogen is picked up during birth such as HIV; from mother to fetus:

A

Congenital encounter

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24
Q

What are two forms of entry of a pathogen:

A
  1. Ingress
  2. Penetration
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25
Q

Entry of pathogen via inhalation or ingestion:

A

Ingress

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26
Q

Entry of microbes through epithelia directly (via attachment & internalization)

A

Penetration

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27
Q

Insect bites, cuts & wounds, organ transplants, and blood transfusion are all examples of what type of pathogenic entry into the host:

A

Penetration

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28
Q

What are three components to the spread of a pathogen:

A
  1. Lateral propagation vs. dissemination
  2. Anatomical features
  3. Active participation by microbes
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29
Q

Spread of a pathogen to neighboring tissue:

A

lateral propagation

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30
Q

Spread of a pathogen to distance sites:

A

dissemination

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31
Q

What are two components to the multiplication of a pathogen when causing an infectious disease?

A
  1. Environmental factors
  2. Subversion of host defenses
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32
Q

Damage inflicted by an infectious can be caused by:

A
  1. Direct damage
  2. Immune response
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33
Q

What are the outcomes of an infectious disease:

A
  1. Microbe wins
  2. Host wins
  3. Learn to coexist
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34
Q

If an infection comes from our normal flora the source of infection is considered:

A

Endogenous

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35
Q

Overgrowth of particular bacteria in gingival crevices:

A

Periodontitis

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36
Q

When defenses are lowered and microaspirations of pneumococci occur:

A

Pneumococcal pnuemonia

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37
Q

Catheter-associated infections are typically a result of:

A

Staphylococci

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38
Q

What do the following have in common?

-Periodontitis
-Pneumococcal pneumonia
-Catheter-associated infections

A

All have endogenous source of infection- normal flora act opportunistically

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39
Q

What are the roles of normal flora:

A
  1. Immune stimulation
  2. Keeping out pathogens
  3. Assist in nutrition
  4. Source of carcinogens vs. detoxification of carcinogens
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40
Q

Normal oral flora include:

A

Bacteria
Fungi
Protozoa
Viruses

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41
Q

How many different species are estimated to be present in the oral cavity?

A

Over 500

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42
Q

What are the different oral habitats?

A
  1. Buccal mucosa
  2. Dorsal of tongue
  3. Tooth surfaces
  4. Crevicular epithelium
  5. Dental appliances
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43
Q

What are three issues microbial cells face?

A
  1. Nutritional fluxes
  2. Maintaining occupancy
  3. Resistance to damage
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44
Q

List all the factors modulating oral microbial growth:

A
  1. Anatomical features that create areas that are difficult to clean
  2. Saliva
  3. Gingival crevicular fluid
  4. Mircobial factors
  5. Local pH
  6. Redox potential
  7. Antimicrobial therapy
  8. Diet
  9. Iatrogenic factors
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45
Q

______ are an absolute requirement for all living organisms

A

Membranes

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46
Q

Describe the plasma membrane:

A

-Highly organized
-Asymmetric
-Flexible
-Dynamic

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47
Q

The lipid components of the plasma membrane form a:

A

Lipid bilayer

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48
Q

The polar ends of the lipids in the lipid bilayer are ____, while the non polar ends are _____

A

Polar –> Hydrophilic
Nonpolar –> Hydrophobic

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49
Q

Proteins that are loosely associated with the plasma membrane that can easily be removed:

A

Peripheral proteins

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50
Q

Proteins that are embedded within the plasma membrane that are NOT easily removed:

A

Integral

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51
Q

Bacterial version of cholesterol that provides rigidity:

A

Bacteriohopanetetrol

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52
Q

Functions of the plasma membrane include:

A
  1. Separation of cell from environment
  2. Selectively permeable barrier
  3. Location of crucial metabolic processes
  4. Detection & response to chemicals via receptors
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53
Q

Granules of organic and inorganic materials that are stockpiled by the cell for future use:

A

Inclusion bodies

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54
Q

Some inclusion bodies are enclosed by a:

A

Single-layered membrane

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55
Q

The single-layered membrane that encloses some inclusion bodies: (2)

A
  1. Vary in composition
  2. Some made of proteins others of lipids
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56
Q

Complex structures consisting of proteins and RNA:

A

ribosomes

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57
Q

Sites of protein synthesis

A

Ribsosomes

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58
Q

Compare the size of eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomes:

A

Prokaryotic ribosomes are smaller

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59
Q

Size of prokaryotic ribosome:

Size of eukaryotic ribosome:

A

70s

80S

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60
Q

Irregularly shaped region in bacteria in which the chromosome resides:

A

Nuceloid

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61
Q

Is the nucleoid membrane-bound?

A

No

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62
Q

In cells what do the nuceloid projections indicate?

A

Cells are actively growing; DNA being actively transcribed

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63
Q

Describe a prokaryotic chromosome:

A

Closed, circular double-stranded DNA molecule that is looped & coiled extensively

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64
Q

Proteins that help to fold a prokaryotic chromosome:

A

Nucleoid proteins

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65
Q

Describe some unusual circumstances of nucleoids:

A
  1. More than one chromosome
  2. Linear
  3. Membrane-delimited nucleoids
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66
Q

Small, circular DNA molecules that exist and replicated independently of the chromosome:

A

Plasmids

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67
Q

Plasmids are NOT required for:

A

Growth & reproduction

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68
Q

Plasmids may carry genes that confer ______ such as _____

A

Selective advantage; drug resistance

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69
Q

Rigid structure that lies just outside the plasma membrane:

A

Prokaryotic cell wall

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70
Q

List all the functions of the prokaryotic cell wall:

A
  1. Provides characteristic shape to cell
  2. Protects the cell from osmotic lysis
  3. May contribute to pathogenicity
  4. May protect cell from toxic substances
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71
Q

Bacteria are divided into two major groups based on:

A

Response to straining (reaction due to cell wall structure)

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72
Q

Gram positive cells stain _____

Gram negative cells stain ____

A

Purple

Pink

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73
Q

In a gram positive cell, the cell wall is composed of:

A

Primarily of peptidoglycan

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74
Q

Cells that contain large amounts of teichoic acids:

A

Gram positive cells

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75
Q

Polymers of glycerol or ribitol joined by phosphate groups:

A

Teichoic acid

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76
Q

Space between plasma membrane & cell wall:

A

Periplasmic space

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77
Q

Gram positive bacteria secrete:

A

Exoenzymes

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78
Q

In gram positive bacteria, exoenzymes serve as the _____ do in gram negative bacteria

A

Periplasmic enzymes

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79
Q

Cell wall consisting of a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane:

A

Gram negative bacteria

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80
Q

The outer membrane in gram negative bacteria is composed of:

A

Lipids, lipoproteins, LPSs

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81
Q

NO teichoic acid present:

A

Gram negative bacteria

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82
Q

What type of bacteria are more permeable?

A

Gram negative

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83
Q

Space between plasma membrane & outer membrane in gram negative bacteria:

A

Periplasmic space

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84
Q

In gram negative bacteria, what is contained within the periplasm?

A

Periplasmic enzymes

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85
Q

What are the roles of periplasmic enzymes?

A
  1. Nutrient acquisition
  2. Electron transport
  3. Peptidoglycan synthesis
  4. Modification of toxic compounds
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86
Q

Describe the structure of peptidoglycan:

A

-Polysaccharide formed from peptidoglycan subunits
-two alternating sugars form backbone

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87
Q

What two alternating sugars form the backbone of peptidoglycan?

A

N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

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88
Q

Within the peptidoglycan structure, ____ have a direct link between peptide chains, while _____ contain a peptide interbridge (GLY) between side chains

A

Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria

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89
Q

What type of bacteria does this cell wall belong to?

A

Gram positive bacteria

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90
Q

What is under the thick peptidoglycan layer in a gram positive cell wall:

A

Single membrane bilayer

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91
Q

What type of bacteria does this cell wall belong to?

A

Gram negative bacteria

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92
Q

In a gram negative cell, there is a _____ structure with each being a bilayer

A

Double-membrane structure

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93
Q

Connect outer membrane to peptidoglycan in gram negative bacteria:

A

Braun’s lipoproteins

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94
Q

Sites of direct contact between plasma & outer membrane in gram negative bacteria:

A

Adhesion sites

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95
Q

Substance may move DIRECTLY into gram negative bacteria via:

A

Adhesion sites

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96
Q

Lipopolysaccharides are found in what type of bacteria?

A

Gram negative

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97
Q

What are the components of a lipopolysaccharide (LPS):

A
  1. Lipid A
  2. Core polysaccharide
  3. O side chain (O antigen)
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98
Q

Component of the LPS that inserts into the outer membrane structure for stabilization & can also act as an endotoxin:

A

Lipid A

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99
Q

The lipid A component of the LPS inserts into:

A

the outer membrane

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100
Q

Component of the LPS that contributes to the negative charge on the cell surface:

A

Core polysaccharide

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101
Q

What does the negative charge contributed by the core polysaccharide portion of LPS function to do?

A

Avoid/masks host defenses

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102
Q

What two components does the core polysaccharide portion of the LPS contains?

A

Keto-deoxoctogenic acid & heptose

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103
Q

Portion of the LPS that provides protection from host defenses:

A

O side chain (O antigen)

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104
Q

What component of the LPS is visible to our immune system?

A

O antigen

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105
Q

Which membrane is more permeable in a gram negative cell?

A

Outer membrane

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106
Q

Why is the outer membrane of a gram negative cell more permeable than the plasma membrane?

A

Due to presence of porin proteins & transporter proteins

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107
Q

Form channels in the outer membrane through which small molecules can pass:

A

Porin proteins

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108
Q

Layer outside of the cell wall that is well-organized, not easily removed from the cell & takes the shape of the underlying cell:

A

Capsule

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109
Q

Layer outside the cell wall that is similar to the capsule except diffuse, unorganized & easily removed:

A

Slime layer

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110
Q

Capsules & slime layers are both referred to as:

A

Glycocalyx

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111
Q

Network of polysaccharides extending from the cell surface:

A

Glycocalyx

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112
Q

What are the functions of the glycocalyx (4):

A
  1. Protection from viral infection or predation by bacteria
  2. Protection from chemicals in environment
  3. Motility of gliding bacteria
  4. Protection against osmotic stress
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113
Q

Short, thin, hairlike proteinaceous appendendages (1000/cell)

A

Fimbriae

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114
Q

What is the function of fimbriae:

A

Mediate attachment to cell surfaces

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115
Q

Similar to fimbriae except, longer, thicker & less numerous (1-10/cell)

A

Sex pilli

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116
Q

What are sex pilli required for?

A

Mating; transfer of genetic material

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117
Q

What is the function of flagella?

A

Motility

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118
Q

List the arrangements of flagella:

A
  1. Monotrichous
  2. Polar flagellum
  3. Amphitrichous
  4. Lophotrichous
  5. Peritrichous
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119
Q

One flagellum:

A

Monotrichous

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120
Q

Flagellum at end of cell:

A

Polar flagellum

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121
Q

One flagellum at each end of cell:

A

Amphitrichous

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122
Q

Cluster of flagellum at one or both ends of cell:

A

Lophotrichous

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123
Q

Flagellum spread over entire surface of cell:

A

Peritrichous

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124
Q

Describe the ultrastructure of the flagellum:

A

Filament, basal body, hook

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125
Q

Portion of flagellum that projects out of cell surface:

A

Filament

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126
Q

Portion of flagellum that is anchored with the plasma membrane or within both plasma & outer membrane:

A

Basal body

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127
Q

Portion of the flagellum that is a protein component that gives a bend to the structure:

A

Hook

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128
Q

Dormant form created when the bacterium encounters environmentally challenging conditions that make it difficult for the cell to keep growing:

A

Endospore

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129
Q

The bacterial endospore is resistant to numerous harsh environmental conditions including:

A

-heat
-radiation
-chemicals
-dessication

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130
Q

Overview of eukaryotic cells include:

A
  1. Membrane-delimited nuclei
  2. Membrane-bound organelles that perform specific functions
  3. More structurally complex than prokaryotic cell
  4. Generally larger than prokaryotic cell
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131
Q

Elements required in larger amounts:

A

Macroelements

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132
Q

List the macroelements required for microbial physiology that are cell components of carbs lipids, proteins & nucleic acids:

A
  1. Carbon
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hydrogen
  5. Sulfur
  6. Phosphorus
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133
Q

The macroelements required for microbial physiology make up components of:

A
  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Lipids
  3. Proteins
  4. Nucleic acids
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134
Q

List the macrolelements required for microbial physiology that exist as cations & play many roles, including cofactors of enzymes:

A
  1. Potassium
  2. Calcium
  3. Magnesium
  4. Iron
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135
Q

List the trace elements required for microbial physiology:

A
  1. Manganese
  2. Zinc
  3. Cobalt
  4. Molybdenum
  5. Nickel
  6. Copper
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136
Q

Trace elements are mainly needed as:

A

Cofactors of enzymes

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137
Q

Components required for ALL organisms survival:

A
  1. Source of energy
  2. Source of reducing equivalents (electron donors)
  3. Source of carbon
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138
Q

Organisms that utilize light as a source of energy:

A

Phototrophs

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139
Q

Organisms that oxidize organic or inorganic compounds as a source of energy:

A

Chemotrophs

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140
Q

Organisms need electron donors for:

A
  1. ETC (energy production)
  2. Redox reactions (energy production)
  3. Biosynthesis (in autotrophs from CO2)
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141
Q

Utilize INORGANIC molecules as a source of reducing agent:

A

Lithotrophs

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142
Q

Utilize ORGANIC molecules as a source of reducing agent:

A

Organotrophs

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143
Q

Utilize CO2 as the main/only source of carbon:

A

Autotrophs

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144
Q

Utilize reduced, preformed organic molecules (such as glucose) for source of carbon:

A

Heterotrophs

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145
Q

Due to the source of carbon utilized, most pathogenic bacteria are considered:

A

Heterotrophs

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146
Q

-Light energy source
-Inorganic electron donor
-CO2 carbon source

A

Photolithoautotrophy

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147
Q

-Light energy source
-Inorganic electron donor
-CO2 carbon source

A

Photolithotrophic autotrophy

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148
Q

-Light energy source
-Organic electron donor
-Organic carbon source

A

Photoorganotrophic heterotrophy

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149
Q

-Chemical energy source
-Inorganic electron donor
-CO2 carbon source

A

Chemolitotrophic autotrophy

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150
Q

-Chemical energy source
-Organic electron donor
-Organic carbon source

A

Chemoorganotrophic heterotrophy

(ALL PATHOGENS)

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151
Q

Other nutrient sources required for bacteria include:

A

-nitrogen source
-phosphate source
-sulfure source
-growth factors

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152
Q

List where bacteria may get their source of nitrogen from:

A

Amino acids, ammonia, or nitrate NO3-

A few bacteria may obtain nitrogen from N2 (atmospheric/gaseous nitrogen)

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153
Q

List where bacteria may get their source of phosphate from:

A

Inorganic phosphate (PO4^3-)

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154
Q

List where bacteria may get their source of sulfur from:

A

Sulfate (SO4^2-) or reduced sulfur (Cysteine)

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155
Q

List where bacteria may get their growth factors from:

A

Amino acids
Purines & pyrimidines
Vitamins (small organic molecules)

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156
Q

-Perform aerobic respiration only
-Final electron acceptor is oxygen (reduced to H2O)

A

Strict aerobes

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157
Q

-Perform anaerobic respiration
-Final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule (such as nitrate or Fe3+)

A

Strict anaerobe

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158
Q

-Perform fermentation
-Final electron acceptor is an organic molecule (such as pyruvate reduced to lactase or acetyl-coA reduced to ethanol)

A

Strict anaerobe

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159
Q

-Can perform respiration & fermentation
-Most medically relevant bacteria

A

Faculative anaerobes

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160
Q

Final electron acceptor for strict aerobes:

A

oxygen (reduced to H2O)

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161
Q

Final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule:

A

Strict anaerobe performing anaerobic respiration

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162
Q

Final electron acceptor is an organic molecule:

A

Strict anaerobe performing fermentation

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163
Q

Give & explain an example of a facultative anaerobe:

A

E. coli can survive on a Petri dish (aerobic) & can survive in the intestines (anaerobic)

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164
Q

The respiratory chain of E.Coli occurs in the ______; for use, it occurs in the ______

A

Membrane of cell; mitochondria

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165
Q

Unique to the oral cavity & requires a certain amount of CO2 in addition to oxygen:

A

Capnophilic

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166
Q

List the gram positive bacteria in the oral cavity:

A
  1. Streptococcus
  2. Peptostreptococcus
  3. Actinomyces
  4. Lactobacillus
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167
Q

List the shapes of the following gram positive oral bacteria:

  1. Streptococcus
  2. Peptostreptococcus
  3. Actinomyces
  4. Lactobacillus
A
  1. Cocci
  2. Cocci
  3. Rods
  4. Rods
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168
Q

List the oxygen requirements for the following gram positive oral bacteria:

  1. Streptococcus
  2. Peptostreptococcus
  3. Actinomyces
  4. Lactobacillus
A
  1. Facultative anaerobes
  2. Strict anaerobes
  3. Strict/facultative anaerobes
  4. Facultative anaerobes
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169
Q

List the gram negative bacteria found in the oral cavity:

A
  1. Veilonella
  2. Aggregatibacter
  3. Capnocytophaga
  4. Porphyromonas
  5. Prevotella
  6. Fusobacterium
  7. Spirochetes
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170
Q

List the shapes of the following gram negative oral bacteria:

  1. Veilonella
  2. Aggregatibacter
  3. Capnocytophaga
  4. Porphyromonas
  5. Prevotella
  6. Fusobacterium
  7. Spirochetes
A
  1. Cocci
    2-6. Rods
  2. Spirals
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171
Q

List the oxygen requirements for the following gram negative oral bacteria:

  1. Veilonella
  2. Aggregatibacter
  3. Capnocytophaga
  4. Porphyromonas
  5. Prevotella
  6. Fusobacterium
  7. Spirochetes
A
  1. Strict anaerobes
  2. Capnophilic
  3. Capnophilic
    4-7. Strict anaerobes
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172
Q

-Move from higher concentration to lower concentration
-NO ENERGY requirements

A

Facilitated diffusion

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173
Q

What is facilitated diffusion uptake driven by?

A

Intracellular use of the compound

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174
Q

Compare the rate of facilitated diffusion vs. passive diffusion:

A

Facilitated diffusion is much fast =er

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175
Q

What happens to the rate of facilitated diffusion as the concentration gets smaller:

A

As concentration gets smaller, the rate gets smaller, however rate is more magnified at smaller concentrations

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176
Q

Carrier proteins embedded in the plasma membrane:

A

Permeases

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177
Q

An active transport mechanisms in which transported substances are chemically altered during the process:

A

Group translocation

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178
Q

Group translocation may also be called:

A

Phosphorylation-linked transport or Phosphotransferase system

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179
Q

An example of group translocation would be:

A

Glucose –> Glucose-6-phosphate

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180
Q

System that moves a phosphate group & covalently links it to a transporter molecule; very common within bacterial cells

A

Group translocation

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181
Q

Where does the phosphate bond come from in group translocation & what does this serve as?

A

Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP); energy source

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182
Q

Some _____ & _____ are transported via group translocation:

A

Sugars & cariogenic bacteria

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183
Q

Energy use to drive the accumulation of substance, which remains unchanged by the transport process

A

Active transport

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184
Q

Form of active transport that uses proton notice force (proton gradient) by coupling to an energetically unfavorable transport event (concentration of substance against the gradient)

A

Ion-driven transport systems

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185
Q

Give an example of a molecule that would use ion-driven transport systems:

A

Amino acids

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186
Q

Coupling energetically favorable + unfavorable processes

A

Symport

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187
Q

Form of active transport that use membrane proteins that form a channel & drive substances through the channel using the energy from ATP hydrolyses:

A

Binding protein-dependent transport systems

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188
Q

Give an example of a molecule that would use binding protein-dependent transport systems:

A

Sugars & amino acids

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189
Q

In all active transport mechanisms, the transport processes use carrier that:

A

Can become saturated

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190
Q

Ferric iron is very ______ so ______ is difficult

A

Insoluble; uptake

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191
Q

Because ferric iron is insoluble & difficult to uptake, microorganisms use ____ to aid in the uptake

A

Siderophores

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192
Q

Describe the process of ferric iron uptake in microorganisms:

A

Siderophore complexes with ferric iron & the entire complex is then transported into the cell

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193
Q

E.Coli can grow on greater than 30 different _____ compounds, using each to obtain _____ , _____ & _____

A

Organic compounds; carbon, H+/Electrons, energy

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194
Q

Bacteria that can use several hundred compounds to obtain carbon, reducing agents & energy:

A

Pseudomonas

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195
Q

________ organisms have complex needs and can only grow in association with the human body or in complex culture medium (ex. Blood agar)

A

Nutritionally fastidious

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196
Q

Give an example of nutritionally fastidious bacteria:

A

Staphylococci & streptococci

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197
Q

Have to replicate within living cells, but unlike viruses, they can carry out metabolic processes:

A

Obligate intracellular parasites

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198
Q

Give an example of a bacteria that is an obligate intracellular parasite:

A

Chlamydia

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199
Q

Microbial growth in real world is considered:

A

Suboptimal

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200
Q

Different organisms have ______ growth rates

A

Variable

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201
Q

What is a factor that protects bacteria:

A

Stress responses

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202
Q

Bacteria can still cause damage to the host when not growing through:

A

Immunogenic processes & toxin production

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203
Q

Mechanisms of adaptation of bacteria function to:

A
  1. Maximize efficiency in using energy & resources
  2. Respond to changes
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204
Q

What are the results of regulation by microorganism:

A
  1. Pathways can be switched on or off
  2. Pathways can be turned up or down
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205
Q

How is control among microorganisms established?

A
  1. Enzyme activity
  2. Number of enzyme molecules
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206
Q

All enzymes have ______ for catalysis, but some enzymes also have _____ for regulation

A

Active sites; allosteric sites

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207
Q

_______ sites bind regulatory molecules

A

Allosteric sites

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208
Q

Describe the binding of a regulatory molecule to an allosteric site on an enzyme:

A
  1. Noncovalent
  2. Reversible
  3. Affects activity of enzyme
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209
Q

Positive effectors ____ activity; while negative effectors ____ activity of an enzyme:

A

Increase; decrease

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210
Q

In allosteric regulation:

Higher concentration of regulatory molecules =

A

More activity

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211
Q

In allosteric regulation, effectors act to:

A
  1. Change affinity of enzyme for substrate
  2. Change Vmax (rate of reaction)
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212
Q

Results in the prematures termination of transcription of mRNA:

A

Attenuation

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213
Q

In attenuation, the _____ becomes stalled in the _____ of the mRNA (upstream of the coding region on the enzyme)

A

Ribosome; attenuator region

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214
Q

During attenuation even though transcription is not complete, what can occur, & why?

A

Translation can begin, because transcription & translation occur simultaneously in bacteria

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215
Q

During attenuation, ______ are important for mRNA folding

A

Secondary structures (hairpin)

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216
Q

An example of a secondary structure used for mRNA folding during attenuation:

A

Hairpin

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217
Q

In attenuation, what happens when leucine is present?

A

When leucine is present, leucine-rich region allows ribosome to read & translate A & B regions causing formation of a C-D hairpin structure

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218
Q

In attenuation, when leucine is present and a C-D hairpin structure is formed, this causes:

A

The RNA polymerase to dissociate from the DNA, resulting in terminating transcription

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219
Q

In attenuation, when leucine is present and a C-D hairpin structure is formed, this causes the termination of transcription, ultimately:

A

Preventing the cell from making the enzyme to create more leucine

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220
Q

In attenuation, what happens when leucine is absent?

A

When leucine is absent, a high demand for leucine tRNA causes ribosome to stall, allowing for formation of B-C hairpin structure

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221
Q

In attenuation, what happens when leucine is absent and B-C hairpin has formed, this allows for:

A

Transcription to occur

222
Q

In attenuation, what happens when leucine is absent and B-C hairpin has formed allowing for transcription to occur this and ultimately:

A

RNA polymerase will transcribe the rest of the operon & produce more leucine

223
Q

In attenuation, if abundant leucine is present, the ribosome:

A

Reads through leucine-rich region

224
Q

In attention, if no leucine is present, the ribosome:

A

Stalls with high demand for leucine tRNA

225
Q

Controlling the NUMBER of enzyme molecules can be accomplished through:

A

Attenuation

226
Q

Controlling the initiation of transcription can be accomplished through:

A

Catabolic & anabolic pathways

227
Q

Controlling transcription initiation in a catabolic pathway is accomplished through:

A

Gene induction (by inducer)

228
Q

When controlling transcription initiation, when lactose is absent:

A

Repressor molecule binds to operator region

229
Q

When controlling transcription initiation, when lactose is absent and the repressor molecule binds to the operator region this:

A

Prevents RNA polymerase from beginning transcription process

230
Q

When a repressor is bound to the operator region therefore preventing RNA polymerase from binding:

A

No mRNA or enzymes are produced

231
Q

Describe what occurs in a catabolic pathway when lactose is absent:

A

Repressor molecule binds to operator region, preventing RNA polymerase from beginning transcription = no mRNA or enzymes produced

232
Q

Describe what occurs in a catabolic pathway when lactose is present:

A

Inducer molecule binds to/inactivates the repressor & stops it from binding to operator region = increased transcription

233
Q

When lactose is present in a catabolic pathway resulting increased transcription, ultimately:

A

Enzymes are produced to break down lactose for sugars

234
Q

Catabolic pathways: ______

Anabolic pathways: ______

A

Gene induction (by inducer)

Gene repression (by corepressor)

235
Q

Controlling transcription initiation in an anabolic pathway is accomplished through:

A

Gene repression (by corepressor)

236
Q

Anabolic pathways use of gene repression via a compressor is considered the:

A

Default - mRNA is produced

237
Q

When is gene repression via a corepressor turned on in anabolic pathways?

A

When tryptophan (end product) us at very high levels

238
Q

Discuss what happens in an anabolic pathway when tryptophan is at very high levels:

A

Tryptopan will act as corepressor by binding to repressor, allowing it to bind to operator site

239
Q

When tryptophan (at high levels) acts as corepressor, this ultimately:

A

Inhibits transcription

240
Q

Genetic complementation is a genetic approach to study:

A

Bacteria pathogenesis

241
Q

In the provided example, we studied yersenia pseudotuberculosis genes that confer _____ on _____

A

Invasiveness on E.coli

242
Q

List the first four steps of genetic complementation:

A
  1. Isolate DNA & cut into restriction fragments
  2. Splice (insert) donor DNA into the plasmid
  3. Introduce into recipient
  4. Enrich for invasive clones
243
Q

In step three of genetic complementation “introduce into recipient” we are we introducing the Y. Pseudotuberculosis plasmid into E. coli?

A

E. coli is not invasive, so if we can cause it to become invasive with fragments of Yersinia DNA, we can identify the invasive gene

244
Q

In genetic complementation, when we introduce the DNA into the recipient (E. coli), the plasmids will:

A

Divide & replicate right along with E. Coli

245
Q

In step four of genetic complementation “Enrich for invasive clones” what is the goal?

A

Goal is to screen different yersinia genes to determine which one can invade a mammalian cell

246
Q

In step four of genetic complementation “Enrich for invasive clones”:

Certain _____ that have acquired a plasmid with the _____ gene for _____ will enter the mammalian cells

A

E. coli; Yersinia; Invasiveness

247
Q

In step four of genetic complementation “enrich for invasive clones”

What is added to kill all the E.Coli cells that are outside the mammalian cells and why?

A

Gentamicin (antibiotic) is added to kill all E. coli cells that are outside mammalian cells because those did not invade

248
Q

In step four of genetic complementation “enrich for invasive clones”

After the antibiotic is added to kill the noninvasive E.coli, what next occurs?

A

Mammalian cells are then washed off, lysed & their contents (including an E. Coli that invaded) are plated onto antibiotic Petri dish

249
Q

In step four of genetic complementation “enrich for invasive clones”

After the mammalian cells are washed, lysed they are then plated onto antibiotic petri dish- what does this process allow for?

A

This process allows for positive selection of the cells that contain the invasive gene/antibiotic-resistance

250
Q

In genetic complementation process, after the positive selection of the cells that contain the invasive gene/antibiotic resistance, what next occurs (4 steps)

A
  1. Generate DNA sequence= INV gene
  2. Deduce protein coding region= invasion protein
  3. Manipulate (mutate) gene further
  4. Reintroduce into yersinia
251
Q

During genetic complementation process, when manipulating (mutating) the gene further & reintroducing it into yersinia, what is the first step to accomplish this?

A
  1. INV gene is cloned into suicide plasmid for yersinia
252
Q

During genetic complementation process, when manipulating (mutating) the gene further & reintroducing it into yersinia, following the INV gene being cloned into a suicide plasmid for yersinia what occurs next?

A

A majority of the INV gene on suicide plasmid is replaced with a Kanamycin-resistance gene (KM^r)

253
Q

During genetic complementation, when reintroducing the manipulated/mutated back into yersinia, the INV gene on the suicide plasmid may be replaced with the KM^r gene what will this mutation result in?

A

Loss-of-function mutation

254
Q

During genetic complementation, when reintroducing the manipulated/mutated back into yersinia, the INV gene on the suicide plasmid may be replaced with the KM^r resulting in a loss of function mutation, what will then be done with these plasmids containing mutated copies:

A

Suicide plasmids contains INV loss-of-function is transferred from E. coli to Yersinia

255
Q

In genetic complementation, when the suicide plasmids containing the INV loss-of-function mutations are transferred from E. coli to yersinia, the suicide plasmid will:

A

Replicate in E. coli but NOT replicate in Yersinsia

(so plasmid is lost after next cell division)

256
Q

During genetic complementation, in the final steps, what is needed to replace the INV gene in yersinia chromosome with the loss-of-function INV all from the plasmid?

A

Double recombination even

257
Q

During genetic complementation, in the final steps, what is needed to replace the INV gene in yersinia chromosome with the loss-of-function INV all from the plasmid?

A

Double recombination event

258
Q

What is ultimately the final step of genetic complementation with yersinia?

A

Test Yersinia INV mutants and show that they DO NOT invade

(due to loss-of-function mutation)

259
Q

Genetic complementation is used to study:

A

Bacteria pathogenesis

260
Q

Move from place to place within a genome; jumping genes:

A

Tranposons

261
Q

Insertion of a transposon in a gene often creates a:

A

Loss of function mutation

262
Q

What marks the site of the mutation in transposon-based methods?

A

Transposon

263
Q

Unlike simple transposons, composite transposons contain:

A

Separate IS elements at either end & intervening genes in between

264
Q

The intervening genes in between the IS elements in composite transposons are often responsible for:

A

Drug resistance

265
Q

The intervening genes in between the IS elements in composite transposons are often responsible for:

A

Drug resistance

266
Q

Tn-phoA is an example of:

A

Engineered transposon

267
Q

Tn-phoA mutagenesis identifies ______ in Vibrio cholera:

A

Virulence genes

268
Q

Transposon based methods function to identify:

A

Virulence factors

269
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, experimenters are looking for vibrio goes that are:

A
  1. Exported into the perioplasm
  2. Expressed under certain physiologic conditions
270
Q

Tn-phoA mutagenesis, experimenters are looking for vibrio genes under what physiologic conditions?

A

@ pH 6.5 & high osmolarity

271
Q

What is the first step of Tn-phoA mutagenesis?

A
  1. Introduce Tn-phoA on a suicide plasma
272
Q

Tn-phoA mutagenesis when we introduce Tn-phoA on a suicide plasmid, the transposon may:

A

Jump into vibrio chromosome (transposition)

273
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, after Tn-phoA is introduced on a suicide plasmid, we used ____ to select for cells containing a transposon (as some transposons jumped into the vibrio chromosome)

A

Kanamycin

274
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis what is required for colonies to grow?

A

Kanamycin-resistanve

275
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis the third step is to screen for blue colonies, what are we looking for?

A

PhoA+ gene

276
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, phoA encodes the enzyme:

A

Periplasmic phosphatase

277
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, the expression of phoA gene depends on:

A

Fusion of reading frame to an adjacent gene (V. cholera) AFTER transposition

278
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis expression of phoA gene depends on fusion of the reading frame to an adjacent gene (Vibrio cholera) AFTER transposition, what does this fusion do?

A

This fusion tells the protein to go into the periplasm

279
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, why do we see a blue color only if the cell was exported into the periplasma?

A

PhoA enzyme will cut the X-P dye to produce a blue color ONLY if cell was exported

280
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis:

PhoA is expressed ______ of bacterial cells:

A

Outside

281
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis:

Within the blue colonies, the ______ is no longer present:

A

Tn-phoA plasmid

282
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, after screening for blue colonies (PhoA+), what is measured in the next step?

A

Measure phoA activity after growth in liquid medium

283
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, after measuring phoA activity following growth in a liquid medium, we will ONLY select for bacteria that have _____ activity at pH 6.5 and ______ osmolarity while having _____ activity at pH 8.0 and _____ osmolarity

A

High; high
Low; low

284
Q

The final step in Tn-phoA mutagenesis is to:

A

Test virulence in mouse model

285
Q

In Tn-phoA mutagenesis, what should we expect to see when testing virulence in a mouse model?

A

Expect to see DECREASED virulence, because the transposon creates a loss-of-function mutation

286
Q

What is used in the mouse model for typhoid fever?

A

Signature-tagged mutagenesis

287
Q

Examines individual bacteria for desirable trait:

A

Genetic SCREEN

288
Q

Only bacteria with desirable trait grow:

A

Genetic SELECTION

289
Q

Genetic screening is based on:

A

Phenotype (color, something you can see)

290
Q

Genetic selection is based on:

A

What survives vs. what dies (antibiotic resistance)

291
Q

Signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for Typhoid fever) is a _____ for ______trait: inability to grow in spleen

A

Screen; negative trait

292
Q

What is the negative trait that is screened for in the signature-tagged mutagenesis (mouse model for Typhoid fever):

A

In ability to grow in spleen

293
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever), by screening for a negative trait (inability to grow in spleen) we are looking for:

A

Mutants of salmonella that CAN’T infect a mouse

294
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever):

What is put into each transposon?

A

KM^r maker +DNA sequence tag (that is a tiny variable region)

295
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever):

What is responsible for creating a slight difference between the transposons?

A

PCR

296
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever):

After PCR of transposons, all tranposons are transferred into:

A

Salmonella genome

297
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever):

All transposons are transferred into the salmonella genome, by using a ______ that moves ______ from E. coli into salmonella:

A

Suicide plasmid; Mini-Tn5

298
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever):

All transposons are transferred into the salmonella genome by using a suicide plasmid that moves mini-Tn5 from ____ to ____

A

E. coli to salmonella

299
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever):

If transposition has occurred, all will have:

A

Kanamycin resistance

300
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

What do we select for after all transposons are transferred into the salmonella genome?

A

Kanamycin resistance

301
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

Selecting for Kanamycin resistance will create:

A

A library of tagged salmonella mutants that each contain a unique mini-Tn5 insertion

302
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

What do we inject the mouse with?

A

Inject mouse with pooled mutants

303
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

Once mouse in injected with pooled mutants, we then:

A

Recover bacteria from the spleen

304
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

What do we do with the recovered bacteria from the spleen & why?

A

Placed recovered bacteria on a kanamycin dish to identify those with transposon insertions

305
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

What are the DNA sequence tags (variable region) used for?

A

Used to compare the input and recovered pools of bacteria

306
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

What do the blank spots in the recovery pool blot represent?

A

Bacterial mutants that did NOT grow in mice

307
Q

In signature-tagged mutagenesis (Mouse model for Typhoid fever)

The mutants not recovered are:

A

Avirulent

308
Q

IVET

A

In-Vivo Expression Technology

309
Q

What mechanism is used in IVET?

A

Promotor-trapping

310
Q

In IVET we are looking for genes of salmonella that are:

A

Expressed in infection but not in the lab

311
Q

What is the first step of IVET?

A
  1. Put fragments of salmonella DNA into plasmid with PurA, LacZ & ampicillin resistant gene
312
Q

What type of plasmid is used in the first step of IVET?

A

Suicide plasmid

313
Q

In IVET, what happens in the first step to the suicide plasmid?

A

Undergoes double recombination

314
Q

In IVET following the creation of a suicide plasmid contain salmonella, PurA, LacZ & Ampicillin resistance gene, we engineer the bacteria further by inserting:

A

Loss-of-function PurA mutant

315
Q

In IVET after further engineering the bacteria with a loss-of-function PurA mutant, what occurs?

A

Integration of plasmid onto the chromosomes

316
Q

In IVET, after the integration of plasmid onto the chromosomes what is the following step?

A

Screen for PurA by injecting pool of fusions into mouse

317
Q

In IVET once the mice have been injected with the pool of fusions we then:

A

Recover bacteria from spleen of mouse

318
Q

In IVET, the bacteria recovered from mouse spleen must have:

A

Functional promotor fused to purA-LacZ operon because they were able to be recovered

319
Q

Gene used to identify virulence genes that are transcriptionally active in the mouse (IVET)

A

PurA

320
Q

In IVET, the gene used to select for salmonella bacteria that contain the plasmid inserted within their genome

A

Ampicillin resistance gene

321
Q

In IVET, after the bacteria have been recovered from the spleen _____ is screened for in-vitro:

A

LacZY

322
Q

In IVET, the gene used to identify virulence genes that are not expressed during laboratory growth:

A

LacZY

323
Q

In IVET _____ do NOT contain LacZ protein

A

Light colored colonies

324
Q

In IVET the light colored colonies that do NOT contain LacZ protein are the ones that are:

A

Linked to a promotor expressed in infection (in mouse) but NOT in lab

325
Q

DFIT

A

Differential Fluorenscence Induction Technique

326
Q

In DFIT what are we looking for?

A

Looking to identify genes containing potential macrophage survival factors

327
Q

(DFIT)

_____ can survive within macrophages, while _____ cannot

A

Pathogenic salmonella; normal salmonella

328
Q

In DFIT, fragments of ____ chromosome are placed into _____

A

Salmonella;

GFP fusion plasmid

329
Q

(DFIT)

GFP can only be expressed if:

A

It is inserted next to a gene with an open reading frame & promotor

330
Q

In the second step of DFIT, macrophages are infected with transformed GFP salmonella and separated by:

A

Fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS)

331
Q

In DFIT what happens to the macrophages with fluorescent bacteria after separation via FACS?

A

They are lysed, grown on media & then sorted again using FACS

332
Q

In DFIT why are cells ran through FACS a second time?

A

In order to identify bacterial cells that do NOT fluoresce on their own

333
Q

In the final step of DFIT what are we looking for?

A

Bacterial cells that fluoresce within macrophages from the bacterial cell population that did NOT fluoresce when growing on their own in lab environment

334
Q

IVIAT

A

In vivo-induced antigen technology

335
Q

IVIAT is a _____ approach

A

Antibody-based

336
Q

Uses patient serum to identify genes of bacterial pathogens expressed during infection:

A

IVIAT

337
Q

In IVIAT what do antibodies typically respond to?

A

Antibodies typically response to protein on the surface or secreted by bacteria

338
Q

In IVIAT why do only some of the pathogen proteins react with patient serum?

A

Because only a subset of the pathogens proteins are secreted or expressed on the bacterial cell surface

339
Q

In IVIAT what vector is used:

A

Bacteriophage

340
Q

In IVIAT the bacteriophages are placed into:

A

E. coli

341
Q

In IVIAT when the bacteriophages are put in to & replicated in E. coli what results?

A

Zones of clearing

342
Q

In IVIAT what causes the zones of clearing?

A

Clear areas remain after local population of bacteria are lysed

343
Q

In IVIAT in addition to the zones of clearing , what else is present following the replication of bacteriophages in E. coli?

A

Phage debris (plaque) and Recombinate bacterial proteins

344
Q

In IVIAT we want to remove intact E. coli because some antibodies will bind to the E. Coli and we don’t want those antibodies, we only want:

A

Antibodies for TB

345
Q

In IVIAT, we must remove antibodies from patient serum because antibodies will bind to each phage plaque replicate, generating a signal from all plaques which would appear as:

A

Black spots

346
Q

In IVIAT once antibodies are removed, the remaining serum is:

A

Incubated with plaques on membrane filter

347
Q

In IVIAT once the TB antigens will turn:

A

Black

348
Q

In Microarray scheme, genes encoding potential virulence factors are identified by identifying:

A

Genes whose mRNAs are expressed in different levels in bacteria growth in the lab compared to bacteria isolated from a patient

349
Q

In the microarray scheme, we convert ____ to ____, label with ___ and then mix _____ with array on glass slide

A

RNA to DNA; Fluorescent dye; copy-DNA

350
Q

In the microarray scheme, PCR can be used to:

A

Amplify individual coding regions of particular bacterial genome

351
Q

(Microarray scheme)

Single for a gene that has increased expression during infection:

A

Green fluorescent signal

352
Q

(Microarray scheme)

Green fluorescent signal= signal for a gene that has increased expression during infection=

A

Cy3 > Cy5

353
Q

(Microarray scheme)

Signal for “house-keeping” gene expressed at the same level in cholera both during an infection and during growth in a lab:

A

Yellow fluorescent signal

354
Q

(Microarray scheme)

Yellow fluorescent signal= Signal for “house-keeping” gene expressed at the same level in cholera both during an infection and during growth in a lab=

A

Cy3 = Cy5

355
Q

(Microarray scheme)

Signal for a gene that has an increased expression during growth in a laboratory:

A

Red fluorescent signal

356
Q

(Microarray scheme)

Red fluorescent signal= Signal for a gene that has an increased expression during growth in a laboratory=

A

Cy5 > Cy3

357
Q

Chemical compounds used to treat disease:

A

Chemotherapeutic agent

358
Q

Destroy pathogenic microbes or inhibit their growth within host:

A

Antimicrobials

359
Q

Destroy or inhibit bacteria; a class of chemotherapeutic agent:

A

Antibiotics

360
Q

Most antibiotics are ______ or their _____

A

Microbial products; derivatives

361
Q

When bacterial produce material to kill each other & we use those materials to kill bacteria:

A

Germ warefare

362
Q

What are some bacterial sources of antibiotics:

A
  1. Streptomyces
  2. Micromonospora
  3. Bacillus
363
Q

What are some fungal sources of antibiotics:

A
  1. Penicillium
  2. Cephalosporium
364
Q

What are the four general characteristics of ANTIMICROBIAL drugs?

A
  1. Selective toxicity
  2. Therapeutic dose
  3. Toxic dose
  4. Therapeutic index
365
Q

Ability of a drug to kill or inhibit a pathogen while damaging host as little as possible:

A

Selective toxicity

366
Q

Drug level required for clinical treatment:

A

Therapeutic dose

367
Q

Drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient (i.e., produces side effects):

A

Toxic dose

368
Q

Ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose:

A

Therapeutic index

369
Q

What are the four general characteristics of ANTIBIOTICS?

A
  1. Bacteriocidal
  2. Bacteriostatic
  3. Broad-spectrum
  4. Narrow-spectrum
370
Q

Kill bacteria:

A

Bacteriocidal

371
Q

Inhibit growth of bacteria:

A

Bacteriostatic

372
Q

Attack many different bacteria (Gram + & Gram -)

A

Broad-soectrum

373
Q

Attack only a few different bacteria:

A

Narrow-spectrum

374
Q

How is the effectiveness of antimicrobial drug therapy expressed?

A
  1. Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)
  2. Minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)
375
Q

Lowest concentration of drug that inhibits growth of pathogen:

A

Minimal inhibitory concentration

376
Q

Lowest concentration of drug that kills pathogen:

A

Minimal bactericidal concentration

377
Q

What are the techniques used to determine MIC & MBC?

A
  1. Dilution susceptibility tests
  2. Disk diffusion tests
378
Q

Involves inoculating media containing varying concentrations of drug:

A

Dilution susceptibility test

379
Q

In a dilution susceptibility test, how do we know which is the MIC?

A

Broth or agar with lowest concentration showing no growth

380
Q

To introduce an infective agent or vaccine into organism/medium to produce immunity:

A

Inoculate

381
Q

In a solution susceptibility test, how do we know which is the MBC?

A

Broth from which microbe cannot be recovered

382
Q

In a dilution susceptibility test, if broth is used, tubes showing _____ can be subcultured into drug-free medium

A

No growth

383
Q

Process in which disks impregnated with specific drugs are placed on agar plates inoculated with test microbe:

A

Disk diffusion test

384
Q

How does a disk diffusion test work?

A

Drug diffuses from disk into agar, establishing concentration gradient

385
Q

In a disk diffusion test, what signifies no growth?

A

Clear zones of inhibition around disk

386
Q

What is the standardized method for carrying out disk diffusion test?

A

Kirby-Bauer method

387
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carryng out a disk diffusion test, sensitivity and resistance are determined using tables that relate:

A

Zone diameter to degree of microbial resistance

388
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carrying out disk diffusion test, the table values are plotted and used to determine:

A

If concentration of drug reached in body will be effective

389
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carrying out disk diffusion test, the zone of inhibition depends on:

A

How effective the antibiotic is at stopping bacterial growth

390
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carrying disk diffusion test, a larger zone of inhibition =

A

Smaller MIC

391
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carrying disk diffusion test, designations are based on studies to establish:

A

The levels a drug can safely reach in the human body

392
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carrying disk diffusion test, what is considered RESISTANT?

What does this mean?

A

Less than 12mm

Weaker antibiotic, requires higher concentration to stop growth

393
Q

In the Kirby-Bauer method for carrying disk diffusion test, what is considered SENSITIVE?

What does this mean?

A

Greater than 17mm

Stronger antibiotic

394
Q

In order to be considered effective in the blood, concentration of drug at infection site must be:

A

Greater than or equal to the MIC

395
Q

Describe the growth of colonies when antibiotics are effective:

A

No colonies will grow

396
Q

What can be used to determine the concentration of Drug in blood? (5)

A

Microbiological, chemical, immunological, enzymatic or chromatographic assays

397
Q

What are the three factors influencing effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs?

A
  1. Ability of drug to reach site of infection
  2. Ability of drug to reach concentrations in the body that exceed MIC of the pathogen
  3. The susceptibility of the drug
398
Q

The ability of the drug to reach site of infection depends in part on:

A

Mode of administration

399
Q

What are the three modes of administration of drugs:

A
  1. Oral
  2. Topical
  3. Parenteral routes
400
Q

What does parenteral routes of drug administration mean?

A

Non-oral routes of administration

401
Q

Orally administrated drugs, must be able to overcome:

A

Stomach acid- some drugs destroyed by this

402
Q

What are two cases in which drugs can be excluded:

A
  1. Blood clots
  2. Necrotic tissue
403
Q

The ability of a drug to reach concentrations in the body that exceed MIC of pathogen depend on:

A
  1. Amount administered
  2. Route of administration
  3. Speed of uptake
  4. Rate of clearance (elimination) from body
404
Q

When discussing susceptibility of pathogen to drug:

A drug requires ______ to be effective

A

bacterial cell growth

405
Q

How soon a drug stops bacterial growth:

A

Speed of action

406
Q

When discussing the mechanism of action of antimicrobial agents, the agent can impact the pathogen by targeting:

A

Some function necessary for its reproduction or survival

407
Q

Mechanism of action- antimicrobial agents:

Ideally, targeted function is:

A

Very specific to pathogen

408
Q

Mechanism of action- antimicrobial agents:

If targeted function is very specific to pathogen this means:

A

High therapeutic index

409
Q

What are four mechanisms of action of antimicrobial agents?

A
  1. Disruption of bacterial cell wall
  2. Inhibition of protein synthesis
  3. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  4. Antimetabolites
410
Q

Disruption of bacterial cell wall:

______ is unique to bacteria

A

Peptidoglycan

411
Q

Disruption of bacterial cell wall:

Many antibiotics target this pathway:

A

Peptidoglycan synthesis

412
Q

Acts as a carrier and links to NAM prior to addition of peptide side chain

A

Uridine Diphosphate (UDP)

413
Q

Steps to peptidoglycan synthesis:

  1. Peptidoglycan repeat unit forms in _____
  2. Repeat unit is the transported across membrane by _____
  3. Repeating unit attached to ______
  4. Cross-links formed by _____
A
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Bactoprenol (lipid)
  3. growing peptidoglycan chain
  4. Transpeptidation
414
Q

The exchange of one peptide bond for another:

A

Transpeptidation

415
Q

Inhibits transpeptidation:

A

Beta-Lactam antibiotics

416
Q

What is an example of a B-lactamase inhibitor?

A

Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam

417
Q

Are not antibiotics but help B-lactam antibiotics by preventing their degredation by B-lactamases

A

B-lactamase inhibitors

418
Q

Enzymes produced by some bacteria that are resistant to B-lactam antibiotics

A

B-lactamases

419
Q

Used in combination with B-lactam antibiotic:

A

B-lactamase inhibitor

420
Q

The 1st combination of B-lactam antibiotic + B-lactimase inhibitors:

Specifically what was used?

A

Augmentin

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid

421
Q

Binds terminal D-Ala-D-Ala and sterically inhibits the addition of peptidoglycan subunits to the cell wall:

A

Vancomycin

422
Q

Vancomycin binding to existing peptidoglycan chains inhibits the:

A

Transpeptidation reaction that cross-links the chains

423
Q

Important for the treatment of antibiotic resistant staph & eneteroccocal infections

A

Vancomycin

424
Q

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems & Monobactams

Are all:

A

B-Lactams

425
Q

Vancomycin & Teichoplanin are both:

A

Glycopeptides

426
Q

Bacitracin & Polymixins are both:

A

Polypeptides

427
Q

Polypeptides, Glycopeptides, & B-lactams are all responsible for:

A

Disrupting cell wall

428
Q

Second line treatment for mycobacterium tuberculosis:

A

Cycloserine

429
Q

Sulfonaides, Trimethoprim, Dapsone, P-aminosalicylic acid are all:

A

Anti-metabolites

430
Q

Unlike, bacteria, humans do not make ______, we require it in our diet:

A

Folic acid

431
Q

Antimetabolites act to inhibit _______ in bacteria

A

Folic acid synthesis

432
Q

Prevents recycling of lipid carrier:

A

Polypeptides (bacitracins & polymixins)

433
Q

Binds phospholipids & disrupts outer & inner membranes of Gram negative bacteria (topical because of more general mode of action= toxic)

A

Bacitracin & Polymixins (Polypeptides)

434
Q

Once resistance originates in a population, it can be transmitted to other bacteria via:

A
  1. New mutations
  2. Pre-existing resistance genes
435
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Hydrolysis of b-lactam ring by b-lactamase:

Plasmidborne?

A

Penicllin & Cephalosporins

Yes

436
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Change in Penicllin-binding protein:

Plasmidborne?

A

Methicilin

No

437
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Efflux pump pushes drug out of cell:

Plasmidborne?

A

Tetracyclines

Yes

438
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Mutations in 23s rRNA:

Plasmidborne?

A

Oxazolidinones

No

439
Q

Resistance mechanism:

Mutations in genes encoding DNA gyrase & topoisomerase IV:

Plasmidborne?

A

Quinolones

No

440
Q

Resistance mechanisms: How do bacteria resist antibiotics?

A
  1. Impermeable barrier
  2. Target modification
  3. Antibiotic modification
  4. Efflux-pump mechanism
441
Q

Resistance mechanism in which the bacterial cell membrane develops an impermeable barrier which blocks antibiotics:

A

Impermeable barrier

442
Q

Resistance mechanism in which modification of components of the bacteria which are targeted by the antibiotic, meaning the antibiotic can no longer bind properly to its target in order to destroy the bacteria:

A

Target modification

443
Q

Resistance mechanism in which the cell produces substances, usually an enzyme, that inactivate the antibiotic before it can harm the bacteria:

A

Antibiotic modification

444
Q

Resistance mechanism in which the antibiotic is actively pumped out of the bacteria so that it cannot harm the bacteria:

A

Efflux pump

445
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination include:

A
  1. plasmids
  2. transducing bacteriophage
  3. bacterial chromosomal genes
  4. transposons
  5. integrons
446
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination:

Some plasmids can promote their own transfer by:

A

Conjugation

447
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination:

Some transducing bacteriophage can package non-phage DNA resulting in transfer by:

A

Transduction

448
Q

Genetic elements involved in resistance gene dissemination:

Bacterial chromosomal genes can undergo _____ or transfer by ____

A

Mutations; transformation

449
Q

Development and spread of drug-resistant pathogens caused by drug treatment, which destroys sensitive strains:

A

Superinfection

450
Q

What steps can be taken to prevent emergence of drug resistance?

A
  1. Give drug in high concentrations
  2. Give two or more drugs at the same time
  3. Use drugs only when necessary
451
Q

What are two possible future solutions for preventing emergence of drug resistance?

A
  1. Continued development of new drugs
  2. Use of bacteriophages to treat bacterial disease
452
Q

Common organisms in superinfection include:

A
  1. C-Diff
  2. MDR Gram-negative rods
  3. MRSA
  4. Candida
453
Q

Resistance to infectious disease:

A

Immunity

454
Q

Collection of cells, tissues & molecules that mediate resistance to infections:

A

Immune system

455
Q

Coordinated reaction of the immune system to infectious microbes:

A

Immune response

456
Q

Study of the immune system, including its responses to microbial pathogens & damaged tissues & its role in disease:

A

Immunology

457
Q

Immune response that acts immediate:

A

Innate

458
Q

Immune response that is NOT antigen specific

A

Innate

459
Q

Innate immune response recognizes _____ that are shared by many different microbes, as well as _____

A

PAMPs & DAMPs

(pathogen-associated molecular patterns)
(damage-associated molecular patterns)

460
Q

Genes encoding Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) are present in the:

A

Germ line

461
Q

Genes encoding receptors that recognize PAMPs are present in the germ line and do not undergo:

A

Somatic recombination or hyper mutation

462
Q

In response to infection innate immune cells do NOT undergo:

A

Clonal expansion

463
Q

Immune system characterized by no memory & cells that are nonreative to self:

A

Innate

464
Q

The adaptive immune system requires _____ before it is effective:

A

Days to weeks

465
Q

The adaptive immune system is highly:

A

Antigen-specific

466
Q

The adaptive immune system recognizes _____ on _____ of _____

A

Specific epitopes; specific proteins; specific pathogens

467
Q

In the adaptive immune response, functional genes encoding antigen receptors are:

A

NOT present in the germ line

468
Q

In the adaptive immune system, functional antigen receptor genes are generated by ____ & _____ of germ line genes during maturation of B cells & T ells

A

Somatic recombination & mutation

469
Q

In the adaptive immune system the functional antigen receptor genes that are generated by somatic recombination and mutation of germ line genes, are produced:

A

Prior to exposure to any antigens

470
Q

In the adaptive immune response, clonal selection and proliferation of B & T lymphocytes specific for particular antigens occurs:

A

Following exposure to those antigens

471
Q

The adaptive immune response is _____ to self:

A

Non-reactive

472
Q

Gives rise to immunologic memory:

A

Adaptive immune system

473
Q

Innate or adaptive:

Provide initial defense against infections

A

Innate

474
Q

Innate or adaptive:

Develops later & is mediated by lymphocytes & their products

A

Adaptive

475
Q

Innate or adaptive:

Some mechanisms (epithelial barriers) prevent infections:

A

Innate

476
Q

Innate or adaptive:

Other mechanisms (phagocytes, NK cells, complement system) eliminate microbes:

A

Innate

477
Q

Innate or adaptive:

Involves humoral & cell-mediated immunity:

A

Adaptive

478
Q

B lymphocytes secrete antibodies that block infections & eliminate extracellular microbes:

A

Humoral immunity

479
Q

______ secrete antibodies that block infections & eliminate extracellular microbes:

A

B lymphocytes

480
Q

T-lymphocytes eradicate intracellular microbes

A

C-mediated immunity

481
Q

T-lymphocytes eradicate ______ microbes (in cell-mediated immunity)

A

Intracellular

482
Q

Eliminate phagocytosed (ingested) mivrobes

A

Helper T-cells

483
Q

Kill infected cells & eliminate reservoirs of infection:

A

Cytotoxic T-cells

484
Q

Feature of adaptive immunity which ensures that distinct antigens elicit specific responses:

A

Specificity

485
Q

Feature of adaptive immunity that enables the immune system to respond to a large variety of antigens:

A

Diveristy

486
Q

Feature of adaptive immunity that increases number of antigen-specific lymphocytes from a small number of naive lymphocytes:

A

Clonal expansion

487
Q

Lymphocyte clones with diverse receptors arise in primary lymphoid organs:

A

Clonal selection

488
Q

In clonal selection, lymphocyte clones with diverse receptors arise in:

A

Primary lymphoid organs

489
Q

A population of lymphocytes with identical antigen receptors (same specificity; all derived from same precursor cell):

A

Clone

490
Q

In clonal selection, clones of mature lymphocytes specific for many antigens enter:

A

Lymphoid tissue

491
Q

In clonal selection, after entering lymphoid tissue, antigen-specific clones are activated by:

A

Antigens

492
Q

In clonal selection, what occurs when antigen-specific clones are activated by antigens?

A

Stimulation of proliferation & differentiation of that clone

493
Q

The secondary response to a specific antigen is:

A

Larger and more rapid (due to memory)

494
Q

The primary response to one antigen is:

A

Different than to a different antigen (specificity)

495
Q

Antigen recognition of B lymphocytes:

A

Soluble or cell surface antigens

496
Q

The effector function of ______ includes:

Secretion of antibodies

-neutralization of microbe
-phagocytosis
-complement activation

A

B-lymphocyte

497
Q

Antigen recognition of helper T cells:

A

Antigens on surfaces of APC

498
Q

The effector function of _____ includes:

Secretion of cytokines

-activation of macrophages
-inflammation
-activation of T & B lymphocytes

A

Helper T cells

499
Q

Antigen recognition of cytotoxic T cells:

A

Antigens in infected cells

500
Q

The effector function of ______ includes:

Killing of infected cells

A

Cytotoxic T cells

501
Q

Regulatory T cells function to:

A

Suppress immune response

502
Q

Antigen recognition of natural killer cells:

A

Recognize changes on surface of infected cells

503
Q

Natural killer cells respond by:

A

Killing infected cell

504
Q

After lymphocytes are activated by antigen, _______ cells migrate towards eachother and meet at the edge of follicle:

A

B & T cells

505
Q

After lymphocytes are activated by antigen, B & T cells migrate towards each other and meet at the edge of follicle and there, helper T cells interact with and help B cells:

A

Differentiate into antibody-producing cells

506
Q

-Innate defensive mechanisms to keep out microbes

-If defensive barrier are crossed= inflammation & antiviral mechanisms

A

Early innate immune response

507
Q

Secreted antibodies, phagocytes & helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells:

A

Adaptive immune response

508
Q

Includes microbial antigen through vaccine or infection:

A

Active immunity

509
Q

Is active immunity specific?

Does it cause memory?

A

Yes & Yes

510
Q

Includes serum antibodies, from immune individual, administered to uninfected individual:

A

Passive immunity

511
Q

Is passive immunity specific?

Does it cause memory?

A

Yes & Yes

512
Q

In innate immunity, specificity is based on:

A

PAMPs & DAMPs

513
Q

In adaptive immunity, specificity is based on:

A

Structural detail of microbial molecules (Antigens)

514
Q

The receptors of the innate immune system are encoded in the:

This results in:

A

Germ line; limited diversity

515
Q

The receptors of the adaptive immune system are encoded by:

This results in:

A

Genes produced by somatic recombination; greater diversity

516
Q

The distribution of receptors in the innate immune system are:

A

Nonclonal

517
Q

Identical receptors on all cells of the same lineage:

A

Nonclonal (seen in innate immunity)

518
Q

The distribution of receptors in the adaptive immune system are:

A

Clonal

519
Q

Clones of lymphocytes with distinct specificities express different receptors:

A

Clonal (seen in adaptive immunity)

520
Q

The two principle types of reaction in the innate immune system:

A
  1. Stimulate acute inflammation
  2. Anti-viral defenses
521
Q

The accumulation of leukocytes, phagocytic cells, plasma proteins and fluid derived from the blood at an extravascular tissue site of infection or injury:

A

Acute inflammation

522
Q

NK Cell-mediated killing of virus-infected cells

A

Anti-viral defenses

523
Q

Interferon A/B (Type I interferons), are secreted by virus-infected cells, bind to receptors on surrounding ells, and induce and induce an anti-viral state in those cells:

A

Anti-viral defenses

524
Q

List the prominent cell-associated pattern recognition receptors and sensors of innate immunity:

A
  1. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
  2. NOD-like receptors (NLRs)
  3. RIG-like receptors (RLRs)
525
Q

Where are the prominent cell-associated pattern recognition receptors & sensors of innate immunity located?

A

Extracellularly, cytoplasm or in endosomes

526
Q

TLRs that recognize microbial products (such as PAMPs) will be found in the _____ while TLRs that recognize nucleic acids will be present within the ______

A

Cytoplasm; endosome

527
Q

TLR engagement by bacterial or viral molecules ultimately leads to:

A
  1. Acute inflammation
  2. Stimulation of adaptive immunity
  3. Antiviral state
528
Q

A family of more than 20 different cytosolic proteins that recognize PAMPs and DAMPs in the cytoplasms and recruit other proteins to for signaling complexes (such as inflammasomes) that promote inflammation:

A

NOD-like receptors (NLRs)

529
Q

Cytosolic sensors of viral RNA that respond to viral nucleic acids by inducing production of the antiviral type I interferons:

A

RIG-like receptors (RLRs)

530
Q

Physical barrier to infection

A

Epithelial barrier

531
Q

-Killing of microbes by locally produced antibiotics & killing of microbes and infected cells by intraepithelial lymphocytes are both function of the:

A

Epithelial barrier

532
Q

Secrete cytokines that induce inflammation, and ingest and destroy microbes:

A

Macrophages (can survive long periods of times in tissues)

533
Q

-circulating phagocytic cells
-most abundant leukocyte in blood
-first responder to most infections
-live only a few hours in tissues

A

Neutrophils

534
Q

What happens to blood monocytes after entering into tissues:

A

Differentiate into macrophages

535
Q

What cells are the phagocytes of the innate immune response:

A

Neutrophils & monocytes/macrophages

536
Q

-Microbes binding to TLRs
-Cytokines binding to cytokine receptors
-Complement fragments binding to complement receptors

These all cause:

A

Activation of macrophages

537
Q

Component of the innate immune system:

-secretes cytokines
-presents antigenic peptides to T cells

A

Dendritic cells (Sentinel cells)

538
Q

Component of the innate immune system:

-abundant cytoplasmic granules
-present in skin & mucosal epithelium
-contain vasoactive amines (e.g. histamine)
-cause vasodilation & capillary permeability

A

Mast cells

539
Q

Component of the innate immune system:

-lymphocyte-like cells
-produce cytokines but lack T cell antigen receptors (TCRs)

A

Innate lymphoid cells

540
Q

Both mast cells and dendritic cells are part of:

A

Innate immune system

541
Q

Induce inflammation, opsonize microbes enhancing their phagocytosis, cause osmotic lysis of microbes:

A

Complement

542
Q

List the complement proteins involved in the early steps & late steps:

A

Early steps: C3a, C3b

Late steps: C5a, C6-C9

543
Q

C3a is responsible for:

A

Inflammation

544
Q

C3b is responsible for:

A

opsonization & phagocytosis

545
Q

C5a is responsible for:

A

Inflammation

546
Q

C6-9 are responsible for:

A

Lysis of microbe

547
Q

-Rolling
-Integrin activation by chemokines
-Stable adhesion
-Migration through endothelium

These are the steps in:

A

Migration of blood leukocytes to site of infection

548
Q

-Kill virus-infected cells
-Secrete interferon Y which activates macrophages

A

Natural killer cells

549
Q

Secreted by virus-infected cells, induce anti-viral state in surrounding cells (local)

A

IFN A/B (Type I interferons)

550
Q

_______ & ______ are combated mainly by an acute inflammatory response, in which neutrophils & monocytes are recruited to the site of infection & by the complement system:

A

Extracellular bacteria & fungi

551
Q

______, which can survive inside phagocytes, are eliminated when the microbial killing functions of phagocytes are activated by TLRs and other sensors, as well as by cytokines:

A

Intracellular bacteria

552
Q

Defense against _____ is provided by type 1 interferons (interferons a & b) & by natural killer (NK) cells

A

Viruses

Microbiology (22 decks)

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