EXAM I Flashcards
1
Q
substance that provokes and are targets of an immune response
A
Antigen (Ag)
2
Q
pollen, bacteria, fungi, and viruses
A
examples of Antigens
3
Q
immunoglobulin molecule that reacts w/ a specific antigen
A
Antibody (Ab)
4
Q
type of antibody that blocks transport of microbes across mucosa. Found in upper respiratory tract, sinuses and upper GI tract.
A
IgA
5
Q
type of antibody that is increased in allergic reaction or parasitic infection
A
IgE
6
Q
type of antibody that is present on the surface of B-cells/B-lymphocytes
A
IgD
7
Q
Type of antibody that is first to respond to an antigenic change/challenge; also present on surface of B-cells/ B-lymphocytes
A
IgM
8
Q
measure of this type of antibody can tell you if patient has a current infection
A
IgM
9
Q
This type of antibody is the most abundant circulating Ab and can cross the placenta. Its presence is an indicator of chronic infection or vaccine immunity.
A
IgG
10
Q
Portion of antibody that varies to recognize antigens coming in
A
Amino terminal portion (variable V region)
11
Q
Differences of this portion of an antibody determines which type of Ab it is (IgG, IgM, etc..)
A
Carboxyl terminal (constant C region)
12
Q
A 4 chain polypeptide structure with 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains
A
Antibody (structure)
13
Q
Which organs/ structures do lymphocytes reside in?
A
spleen, lymph nodes and lymph areas after maturity
14
Q
True or False? B-cells are derived from bone marrow?
A
True
15
Q
True or false? T-cells are derived from bone marrow?
A
FALSE. T-cells are derived from the THYMUS.
16
Q
Which type of lymphocytes are related to Humoral Immunity?
A
B-cells
17
Q
Which type of lymphocytes are related to Cell-mediated Immunity?
A
T-cells
18
Q
The majority of this type of lymphocyte are destroyed before they are released into circulation because they have a strong self antigenic response. This type of lymphocyte makes up 65-85% of circulating lymphs.
A
T- Cells
19
Q
This type of cell helps with immune response by engulfing an invading cell and then presents “flags” on surface of cell for T-Cell recognition.
A
Macrophage
20
Q
Division of immunity that produces antibodies
A
Humoral immunity
21
Q
Division of immunity- Group of at least 20 plasma proteins circulating, which are activated by Ag-Ab binding to RBC or bacteria. *Important in blood transfusions & bacterial infections.
Can be antibody dependent or independent.
A
Complement immunity
22
Q
Antibody dependent type of Complement Immunity
A
CLASSIC Complement immunity
23
Q
Antibody independent type of Complement Immunity
A
ALTERNATIVE Complement Immunity
24
Q
The classic and alternative complement paths both converge on protein C3. What does this promote?
A
phagocytosis, cell lysis, and increased inflammation
25
Type of lymphocytic cell that descends from stem cells, only lives appx one week, does not have receptors, multiply rapidly once in tissue and produce cytokines. Destroy tumors, viruses, parasites, and fungi.
Natural Killer cells
26
Type of immunity that:
-is unable to recognize free Antigens
-respond only to processed fragments of Ag on cell
surface
-work on viruses, bacteria, intracellular parasites,
cancer cells, cells of infusion and transplantation
Cell-Mediated Immunity
27
Only type of T cell capable of directly attacking
| and killing other cells. Main target is viral infected cells.
Cytotoxic
28
These are regulatory T Cells that stimulate other T & B Cells which are bound to antigens. They turn on the immune response and release lymphokines which attract neutrophils. *Need to be primed by the APC.
T- helper cells (CD4)
29
HIV attacks which type of T cells?
CD4
30
These are regulatory, inhibitory T cells that shut down the immune response.
T-Suppressor cells (CD8)
31
Complexes that are recognized by T Cells as being "self".
Major Histocompatability Complex
32
This type of MHC attaches to the plasma membrane for self-recognition. It is present on all body cells except for blood.
MHC I
33
This type of MHC is present on the surface of B cells, some T cells and APC. It allows immune cells to recognize each other.
MHC II
34
Which MHC activates cytotoxic cells?
MHC I
35
Which MHC helps T-helper cells bind to presenting antigen?
MHC II
36
If a T cell binds to MHC with no
| ________, the immune response is turned off.
Costimulation
| important in cloning of T Cells
37
Type of signaling protein that is released by virus infected cells to protect other cells by mobilizing and attracting macrophages & natural killer cells (nonspecific and spontaneous)
Interferons
38
HLA B27 is linked with what disorder?
Ankylosing Spondylitis
39
Which 2 diseases are associated with a "M-Spike" on immunoelectrophoresis?
Multiple Myeloma and MGUS ( monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance)
40
Name 5 things associated with the immune system that decrease as an individual ages.
Cell-mediated immunity, number of T-cells, number of T- helper cells, memory cells, Antibody titers to known Antigens
41
Name 2 things associated with the immune system that increase as one ages.
number of T-suppressor cells, autoimmunity
42
How would you differentiate between Multiple Myeloma and MGUS on a pt with an M Spike?
check for plasma cell infiltrate in bone marrow, and Bence-Jones proteins in urine..if positive then pt has Multiple Myeloma.
43
the overproduction of plasma cells causes which disease?
Multiple Myeloma
44
Most common immunodeficiency disorder. Most pt's who have this are asymptomatic.
Selective IgA deficiency
| Absence of IgA, but normal amount IgG and IgM
45
When body develops immune response against "self".
autoimmunity
46
immediate hypersensitivity, IgE-mediated, "TRUE allergic rxn"
Type I Hypersensitivity reaction (EX: allergies)
47
antibody-mediated hypersensitivity that occurs from IgG/IgM antibody:antigen interaction on target cell
Type II hypersensitivity reaction (EX: myasthenias gravis)
48
immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity that leads to local or systemic inflammatory response
Type III hypersensitivity reaction (EX: RA, SLE)
49
delayed-type hypersensitivity; Mediated by T lymphocytes previously sensitized via exposure of antigen
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (EX: transplant rejection, contact dermatitis)
50
3 components of cell membrane
lipids, proteins, carbohydrates
51
type of lipid that strengthens the cell membrane and stabilizes against temperature extremes.
cholesterol
52
A ______________ exists when the concentration of a molecule/ion differs on either side of a membrane
concentration gradient
53
The movement of glucose down its gradient requires what type of transport
Facilitated diffusion
54
Type of transport in which energy comes from creation of a previous concentration gradient
Secondary Active transport
55
benign neoplasm derived from glandular cell
adenoma
56
malignant neoplasm derived from epithelial cells
carcinoma
57
malignant neoplasm derived from mesenchymal cells (fat, muscle)
sarcoma
58
malignant neoplasm derived from lymphocytes
lymphoma
59
malignant neoplasm derived from melanocytes
melanoma
60
malignant neoplasm derived from germ cells (egg or sperm)
germ cell tumor
61
lack of differentiation of neoplasm
anaplasia
62
disordered epithelium, loss of uniformity and possibly increased mitotic figures
dysplasia
63
full thickness dysplasia of the epithelium; usually curable by removing
Carcinoma in Situ
64
loss of body fat/ muscle and weakness associated w neoplasm...caused by cytokine storm
Cachexia
65
forms skin/hair/nails, epithelial of oral/nasal cavities, lens/cornea/inner ear and neuroectoderm
ectoderm
66
forms muscle, bone, connective tissue, fat, cardiovascular and lymph system and GU tract
mesoderm
67
forms epithelium of the GI tract and respiratory tract
endoderm
68
forms the peripheral nervous system, autonomic nervous system, and tooth dentin
neural crest
69
forms the CNS and motor neurons
neural tube
70
undifferentiated cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.
stem cell
71
a thin protective layer of cells that cover the surfaces of internal and external body structures and organs, (ie the Skin, Respiratory, Digestive, Renal, and Cardiovascular Systems, mammary glands, larynx, etc.)
epithelium
72
the supportive tissue of a structure or organ
stroma
73
the functional tissue of a structure or organ, example heart, liver, kidneys, etc
parenchyma
74
malignancies of epithelial cells of glandular origin.
adenocarcinoma
75
Which type of tissue is prone to marked swelling with edema; some situations can become life threatening such as Epiglottitis, Laryngeal edema or anaphylaxis
Loose/ areolar connective tissue
76
When lungs become acutely infected due to cytokine storm process, they release _____ and ______, leading to a more sustained IL6 level.
TNF and IL1
77
Common symptoms of Cytokine Storm
HA, fever, DIB, nausea, rash, tachycardia, hypotension
78
Why does cytokine storm cause hypotension?
capillaries are leaking fluid which causes a decrease in overall vascular volume.
79
levels of ________may be used to assess intensity of cytokine storm in COVID 19 pt's
interleukin 6 (IL6)
80
Common symptoms of ARDS
tachypnea, decreased drive to breathe, diaphoresis, cyanosis, dry cough in beginning, but late a pink frothy sputum develops
81
True of false? A given neuron can only release one type of neurotransmitter.
True
82
T/F? Most neurons are present at birth and remain present in older age
True
83
T/F? Neurons are amitotic (without mitotic activity)
True, except in the hippocampus.
84
This type of neuron has many processes extend from soma; one is axon, others are dendrites. Most abundant type of neuron.
Multipolar neuron
85
Type of neuron with 2 processes that extend from soma; axon and dendrite. Rare; found in olfactory cells and some other special sensory organs.
Bipolar neurons
86
Type of neuron that has single short process that extends from soma. Axon has peripheral process and central process. Located in ganglia of spinal cord where they can be protected.
Unipolar neurons
87
non-excitable, supporting cells of nervous system
glial (neuroglia)
88
thick outer layer of dense irregular tissue that encloses entire nerve. Provides support and protection.
epineurium
89
layer of dense irregular tissue that wraps bundles of axons, fascicles, and supports blood vessels
perineurium
90
delicate layer of aerolar tissue that separates and electrically insulates each axon. Has capillaries that supply the axon.
endoneurium
91
This type of multipolar neuron receives signals from sensory neurons and carry out the interactive function (process, store, retrieve info, make decisions), send signals to motor neuron. Accounts for 90% of neurons.
Interneurons (association neurons)
92
This type of neuron transmit the signals to CNS, Some can detect stimuli (e.g.light, heat, pressure, chemicals) as well as transmit the signals to CNS. Most are unipolar but a few are bipolar.
Sensory/ afferent neurons
93
This is a multipolar neuron that receives signals from interneurons, and carry the signals to
effectors (muscles or glandular cells)
Motor/ efferent neurons
94
most abundant glial cells, cell processes touch both capillary walls and neurons, help form blood brain barrier, form structural network and assist with neuronal development
Astrocytes
95
These glial cells line the ventricles of
brain and central canal of
spinal cord; these cells and nearby blood vessels form the choroid plexus which produces CSF.
Ependymal cells
96
least abundant type of glial cell; phagocytes that engulf/destroy microorganisms & cell debris;
located in CNS
Microglia
97
Glial cells that form myelin sheath in CNS; contain slender portions which wrap around many different neurons
Oligodendrocytes
98
Glial cells that form myelin sheath in PNS; flattened cells that wrap around axons
Schwann Cells (Neurolemmocytes)
99
Glial cells that regulate exchange of nutrients and waste between neurons and their environments. (flattened cells around somas in a ganglion)
Satellite cells
100
T/F? Myelin is produced by the neuron that it envelops.
FALSE. Myelin is not part of nor produced by the nerve cell whose axon it envelops. (Myelin is produced by Schwann cells in PNS and oligodendrocytes in CNS)
101
Graded potential is determined by _______-________ Na/K channels.
ligand-gated
102
Action potential is determined by ________-_________ Na/K channels.
voltage-gated
103
the reduction in membrane potential, the inside of the membrane becomes less negative (i.e. from -70 mV to -65 mV)
depolarization
104
the increase of in membrane potential, the inside of the membrane becomes more negative (i.e. -65 mV to -70 mV)
repolarization
105
the increase of membrane potential above RMP; the inside of the membrane becomes more negative than RMP. (i.e -70mV to -75mV)
hyperpolarization
106
__________ increases the probability of producing nerve impulses, while __________ decreases the probability.
depolarization , hyperpolarization
107
T/F? Graded potentials are reversible.
TRUE
108
T/F? Graded potentials' signals grow stronger with distance.
FALSE. Graded potentials are decremental, meaning their signals get weaker with distance
109
What is the electrical threshold needed to initiate Action potential?
-55mV
110
T/F? Action potential always begins with depolarization?
TRUE
111
What are the main functions of the autonomic (aka involuntary/visceral) nervous system?
transmits impulses from CNS to smooth muscle,
| cardiac muscle and glands
112
T/F? No cranial nerves are Sympathetic Fibers.
TRUE
113
Type of adrenergic receptor associated w/ vasoconstriction of blood vessels going to skin, GI
tract and kidneys, contraction of arrector pili, uterus, ureters, internal urethral sphincters.
ALPHA 1
114
Type of adrenergic receptor associated with inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreas, contraction
of GI tract sphincters
ALPHA 2
115
Type of adrenergic receptor associated with stimulating increased heart rate and contractiility,
stimulating renin secretion from kidneys
BETA 1
116
Type of adrenergic receptor associated with vasodilation of blood vessels going to heart, liver, and
skeletal muscles, bronchodilation of lungs, relaxation of uterine, GI tract, and urinary bladder
BETA 2
117
Which adrenergic receptor has a high affinity for epinephrine but has a very low number of epi receptors?
Beta 2 adrenergic receptors
118
Which adrenergic receptor has a low to moderate affinity for epinephrine but has a very high number of epi receptors?
Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors
