Exam l Flashcards

1
Q

What did John Needham’s experiment do to prove spontaneous generation? How was the experiment flawed?

A

He placed boiled broth in a bottle, sealed it, and left it for a few days to see if there was any bacterial growth. He stated there was growth, proving spontaneous generation. however he did not heat the broth long enough to kill microbes AND left broths unsealed when they were cooling so he was wrong

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2
Q

This physiologist disproved the theory of spontaneous generation by redoing Needham’s experiment without air exposure to the sample.

A

Lazzaro Spallanzani

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3
Q

Summarize Luis Pasteur Swan Neck Flask experiment?

A

In order to test if sterile microbial broth produced life, he filled two flasks with broth and bent them to S shapes. The broth was then boiled and once sterile, he broke off the neck of one flask, leaving it exposed to air. Dust fell directly into the broken flask but stayed in the S of the unbroken ones. The broken flask grew cloudily with microbial growth, but the other remained clear. This disproved spontaneous generation

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4
Q

the germ theory of disease states that:

A

specific diseases are caused by microscopic germs

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5
Q

What was Robert Koch’s impact in microbiology?

A

Developed 1st scientific method to establishing microbial cause of disease known as “Koch’s Postulates”

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6
Q

List the four criteria of Koch’s postulate.

A
  1. A specific organism is always associated with a given disease
  2. Microorganism can be isolated from a disease animal and grown in a pure culture in a lab
  3. cultured microbe will cause disease when transferred to a healthy animal
  4. the same type of microorganism can be isolated from the newly infected animal
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7
Q

Exceptions to Koch’s Postulate are:

A

1.microbes known to cause disease aren’t cultivated under lab conditions
2. disease caused by several pathogens
3. pathogens that cause several diseases
4. ethics with humans being the only host
viruses

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8
Q

Explain Hershey and Chase Experiments

A

To find what the genetic material of bacteriophages were, they labeled the protein coated phage with S35 & DNA coated phage with P32. The phages then infected bacteria and were placed into a blender to separate the phages from the bacterial cells. The mix was centrifuged and checked for radioactivity. It found that the pallet from P32 had radioactivity and pallet from S32 did not. This concluded that DNA is the genetic material of the phages

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9
Q

Zoonotic diseases are

A

infections of animals that can be transmitted to humans. Ex: Lyme Disease, Ebola

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10
Q

Pandemic disease is an

A

epidemic that spreads worldwide.

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11
Q

Epidemic disease is

A

one in which the number of cases increases in a community in a short time.

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12
Q

An asymptomatic carrier

A

harbors the potential disease agent but does not have the disease.

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13
Q

A reservoir is

A

an animal (including humans) or an environment that normally harbors the pathogen.

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14
Q

Indirect Transmission

A

Pathogens may spread indirectly through an intermediary, which may be living or nonliving.

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15
Q

Organisms may spread directly from person to person

A

Direct contact transmission

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16
Q

Horizontal transmission occurs when

A

the infectious agent is transferred from one person or animal to the next.

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17
Q

The route of transmission from one person or animal to another is called an

A

infection cycle.

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18
Q

Mortality is the

A

rate of death due to a disease

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19
Q

Morbidity is the

A

rate of illness due to a disease.

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20
Q

microbe (or microorganism)

A

a living organism that requires a microscope to be seen.

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21
Q

cell

A

smallest unit of life composed of membrane enclosed compartments

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22
Q

microbes can be classified as members of a

A

species

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23
Q

genome

A

genomic DNA of an organism

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24
Q

The collection of all microbes on the human body is called

A

the human microbiota.

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25
Q

colonization

A

to the ability of the microbe to stay attached to the body surface and replicate.

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26
Q

parasites

A

microbes causing harm inducing infections. Two groups are ectoparasites and endoparasites

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27
Q

define pathogen

A

any bacterium, virus, fungus, , protozoan, or worm (helminth) that causes disease in humans.

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28
Q

Pathogenicity is

A

the ability of the organism to cause disease.

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29
Q

In an acute infection

A

symptoms develop and resolve rapidly.
ex: common cold

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30
Q

A chronic infection

A

involves symptoms that develop gradually and resolve slowly.
ex: tuberculosis

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31
Q

host range refers

A

to the animals a pathogen can infect and produce disease in

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32
Q

Virulence describes

A

the level of harm caused by a pathogen following infection

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33
Q

Disease is

A

a disruption of the normal structure or function of any body part, organ, or system that can be recognized by a characteristic set of symptoms and signs.

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34
Q

Signs can be observed by

A

examination (objective marker of disease).
ex: fluid-filled rash, fever of 102°F

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35
Q

Symptoms are experienced by

A

the person (subjective indicator of disease).
ex: pain, fatigue

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36
Q

A syndrome is a collection of

A

signs and symptoms that occur together and collectively characterize a condition.

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37
Q

Many of the signs and symptoms of disease are caused by the host’s response to the infection, called

A

immunopathology

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38
Q

After a disease resolves, pathological consequences called ___ may develop.
For example:

A

sequelae; the immune response to strep throat can cause heart damage weeks after the infection has resolved.

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39
Q

selective media is

A

excludes growth of the same and allows growth of others.

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40
Q

differential media are

A

differentiates different and observes types of bacteria that can grow together

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41
Q

what does a gram stain detect?

A

peptidoglycan

42
Q

characteristics of gram+ cells

A

thick peptidoglycan layer (90% of cell weight)
more susceptible to antibiotics
differential w crystal violet ( blue/purple)

43
Q

characteristics of gram- cells

A

thin layer of peptidoglycan ( 10% cell mass)
more resistant to antibiotics due to having two cell membranes
not differential
pink/red

44
Q

what do penicillin act on with bacterial cells

A

peptidoglycan layer

45
Q

gram __ bacteria is more susceptible to antibiotics such as penicillin

A

gram +

46
Q

antibiotic such as penicillin do not harm eukaryotes because

A

they don’t have peptidoglycan layer

47
Q

acid fast stains differentiate with ___ that contain high amounts of _____. for example, ____ and ____

A

waxy cell walls;mycolic acid; mycobacterium and nocardia

48
Q

Acid fast stain ___ when positive and ___ when negative

A

red: blue

49
Q

schaeffer fulton is a ___ stain

A

differential stain

50
Q

Schaeffer Fulton endospore stains use ___ to drive the primary stain malachite green into the endospore

A

heat

51
Q

endospores are a ___ , ____ structure used by bacteria to survive tough times

A

dormant; nonreproductive

52
Q

characteristics of endospores:

A

NOT LIVING, no metabolism, hardened to radiation, dessication

53
Q

this group of bacteria is medically important and forms endospores

A

Bacillus

54
Q

Bacillus subtills is used as a probiotic to treat/prevent intestinal disorders such as

A

C. Diff

55
Q

directly staining the bacterial cell with a positively charged dye in order to see bacterial detail

A

simple stain

56
Q

this stain method allows for the differentiation of cell types and molecules

A

differential stain

57
Q

this method is selective and differential, contains lactose as a carbon source, and isolates gram - and gut bacteria, turns pink with low pH

A

MaConkey Agar

58
Q

this method differentiates based on lactose fermentation

A

MaConkey Agar

59
Q

this method look for
Hypertonic bacteria ( high salt)
carbon source ( manntitol)
pH indicator ( phenol red)
gram + staphylococci
will turn red/ yellow if ferments mannitol

A

Mannitol Salt

60
Q

___ is considered good staph by fighting for space, keeping bad staph off

A

staphylococcus epidermis

61
Q

____ is considered bad staph and can be enter via skin infx, abscesses, food poisoning, pneumonia, endocarditis, meningitis, sepsis

A

methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus ( MRSA)

62
Q

this method is not selective, enzymes produce LYSE RBC, is used to determine hemolysis in organisms. tests for beta, alpha, and gamma hemolysis

A

Blood agar

63
Q

Examples of Beta: complete hemolysis

A

streptococcus hemolyticus from medical devices, usually from skin contact
streptococcus pyrogens: puerperal fever, strep throat , rheumatic fever
GROUP A STREP

64
Q

Alpha: incomplete hemolysis example

A

streptococcus viridans: occurs on gumline, endocarditis, can destroy heart valves

65
Q

in a blood agar test, Alpha will come up

A

green

66
Q

in a blood agar test, beta will come up

A

clear around the colony

67
Q

in blood agar test, gamma hemolysis will show

A

no effect on red cell

68
Q

cell morphology vs. colony morphology

A

cell morphology: describes how the CELL looks
colony morphology: describes how the COLONY looks no the individual bacteria

69
Q

the two basic types of cells are

A

prokaryotes and eukaryotes

70
Q

___ is used as the “barcode for life” . it is used as a ___ for bacterial taxonomy because it is

A

16S rRNA gene; universal, essential, has both conserved and variable DNA regions

71
Q

archaea differ from eukaryotes and prokaryotes because they

A

have no peptidoglycan and do not cause infections/diseases

72
Q

tests one type of bacteria to see if it causes different phages. if the phage is present, there will be “plaques” or holes left to show it

A

phage typing

73
Q

Bilog plates are used to identify

A

aerobiotic, anaerobic bacteria, yeasts and fungi

74
Q

an opportunistic pathogen only infects when

A

there is already something going on to get the host sick

75
Q

this amoebae protozoa is from contaminated food/water ( fecal) in developing countries. symptoms include foul smelling diarrhea, bloating and can cause death due to dehydration. it is diagnosed with stool rbcs

A

entamoeba histolytica

76
Q

this amoebae protozoa lives in soils and comes from warm pools/freshwater lakes. symptoms include stiff necks, headaches and presents as meningitis. there is no tx and is diagnosed with cerebral spinal fluid ( spinal tap)

A

naegleria fowleri

77
Q

this flagellate protozoa, also known as african sleeping sickness is common in Congo and transmitted via tsetse fly bite. it causes sleep in the day and awakeness at night and is indicated by a lump in the neck ( winter/autumn sign)

A

T. Brucei

78
Q

this flagelleate protozoa known as chagas disease or “kissing bug” is from south america, mexico, texas, and oklahoma. If left untreated it can lead to heart disease

A

T.Cruzi

79
Q

this flagelleate protoza is transmitted via sandfly in south america, asia, afganistan, iraq, and texas. Cutaneous can cause skin ulcers in site of the bites for a year, mutcutaneous can lead to those uclers spreading to the face, and visceral causes invasion in spleen and liver, going into macrophage cells. It is treated w stibogluconate and antimony

A

Leishmaniasis donovani

80
Q

this flagellate protozoa is transmitted by infected water ( food washed by bad water) ( especially kiddie pools) and can cause stomach cramping, height loss, foul smelling diarrhea ( mal nutrition). It can bc tx with metronidazole and vancomycin taken orally. It can also be killed with heat

A

Giardia lamblia ( bever fever)

81
Q

this ciliate protozoa is from fecal contaminated water in tropical countries. Ity is asymptomatic, but can cause a perforated colon ( holes in colon), diaherra, and constipation. It is diagnosed with a stool ID and treated with metro-tetracycline

A

Balantidium coli

82
Q

this apicomplexan protozoa is transmitted from cat litter undercooked pork, contaminated utensils, water, is asymptomatic. Those immunocompromised or pregnant need to be cautious. it can cause baby neurological issues and eye/brain damage.

A

toxoplasma gendi

83
Q

algae don’t cause disease but release toxins which ___ infect

A

can

84
Q

fungi can ___ woody matter

A

decompose

85
Q

Fungi are opportunistic. This means that

A

they do not directly infect, rather go infect when there is an opportunity

86
Q

fungi are transmitted

A

respiratory

87
Q

characteristics of dimorphic fungi

A

preferences of moist environment, pathogenic to plants, live in 2 kinds of modes/lifestyles, form mycelium networks

88
Q

This fungi is common among leaf cutting ants, spread to their mycelium causing brain altering behavior

A

Ophiocordyceps unilateralis ( zombie fungi)

89
Q

3 type of fungal infections ( mycosis )

A
  1. superficial
  2. cutaneous
  3. subcutaneous
90
Q

what makes the four true fungal pathogens different from other fungal infections

A

they are NOT opportunistic and directly infect

91
Q

what are the four true pathogens

A

blastomyces dermatitis
coccidioides immitis
histoplasma capsulatum
parcco diodes brasiliensis

92
Q

this true pathogen is common in eastern north america from soil ( brought in by cats/dogs). it causes lung lesions and is diagnosed via lung xray. it is first diagnosed as pneumonia but unlike pneumonia it does not react with antibiotics

A

blastomyces dermatitis

93
Q

this opportunistic fungi is transmitted by feces of spider like mites, especially common on pillows. this causes allergic reactions and a quarter sized “fungus ball” in the lungs that causes you to cough blood . it is diagnosed with precipin blood tests

A

aspergillus fumigatus

94
Q

the three types of helminths are:

A

nematode, trematodes, cestodes

95
Q

this nematode helminth is common in africa and asia. it can be found in water formed crustations. once inhaled they reproduce in the intestine, migrate to the leg muscle that pokes out when in water to release eggs. it is treated with removal ( wrap stick and turn a little everyday) and mesh nets to clean out water

A

guinea water

96
Q

this nematode helminth is transmitted fecal/oral route from ingested eggs in pillows and blankets. it doesn’t have any symptoms but causes an itchy butt. it is diagnosed with scotch tape and treated with methbihadazole

A

enterobius vermicularis ( pinworms)

97
Q

this nematode helminth is transmitted in soil has small teeth. It penetrates the foot when it senses vibrations ( ground itch) it can damage intestinal mucosa and anemia due to the sucking of blood. it is treated with metronidazole.

A

ancylostoma duodenale & necator americanus ( hookworm)

98
Q

this nematode helminth is the largest roundworm and is transmitted via soil ( unwashed vegetables) in 3rd world countries. symptoms include fever, liver damage, malnutrition, and extreme abdominal pain. eggs are ingested and travel to the lungs/intestines and live there for 1-2 years

A

ascaris lumbricoides

99
Q

this trematode known as swimmers itch comes from contact with unsanitary water and penetrate through the foot. Eggs go into the bloodstream causing immune reactions such as dermatitis, cough, and hives. it can be lodged organs and even travel to the brain/spinal cord, causing seizures

A

schistosomiasis (blood flukes)

100
Q

Cestodes( tapeworms ) are the __ of helminths measuring up to 12 feet long

A

largest

101
Q

this cestode helminth is common in latin america and transmitted via ingestion of undercooked beef or pork. it can be lodged causing cysts (cystercosis) in the spinal cord, brain, eyeballs, and voluntary muscles. it is diagnosed with CT scans and biopsy and treated with Ivermectin. It can also be seen in cough or coming out the nostrils

A

Taeniasis ( taenia sagenite ( beef) and taenia solum ( pork) )