Techniques in Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

how does bacteria get glucose?

A

they breakdown cellulose cells into enzymes

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2
Q

Some bacteria take enzymes from others. Would this mean that the bacteria is stronger or weaker?

A

Stronger because it does not have to use energy to make its own enzymes

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3
Q

the breakdown of glucose depends on:

A

the production of enzymes and products of that breakdown

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4
Q

the macromolecules carbohydrates consist of:

A

monosaccharides ( sugar), disaccharides, polysaccharides

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5
Q

Enzymes change with:

A

pH, temperature, chemistry

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6
Q

Chemistry that can changes enzymes are:

A

hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, phosphorus, sulfate

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7
Q

Bacterial gnomes are

A

DNA

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8
Q

virus gnomes are

A

RNA

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9
Q

What is the importance of phosphorus in bacterial replication?

A

Phosphorus is required for the copying of gnomes

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10
Q

Enzyme’s most common metal is:

A

iron

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11
Q

Bacteria constantly needs

A

phosphate, iron, carbon, nitrogen, sulfate

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12
Q

define replication

A

when DNA creates an identical replica

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13
Q

define transcription

A

when DNA copies its gene sequence to make RNA

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14
Q

define translation:

A

when cells make proteins using genetic information from messenger RNA (mRNA)

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15
Q

the speed of DNA replication depends on:

A

ATP ( energy storage)
“good polymer”
Size of gnomes ( smallest is quicker)

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16
Q

the bimaker for life is known as

A

rRNA

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17
Q

what does rRNA do?

A

checks genetic codes to see if there is a new species

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18
Q

Ribosomes are:

A
  1. essential to life
  2. universal
  3. constant regions ( amino acids)
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19
Q

nonpolar or uncharged molecules don’t form hydrogen bonds with water are:

A

hydrophobic

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20
Q

hydrophobic means:

A

water fearing

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21
Q

water dissolves in

A

hydrophilic solutes

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22
Q

being hydrophilic refers to:

A

water loving solutes

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23
Q

Forms of RNA

A

mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, catalytic RNA

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24
Q

mRNA

A

messenger RNA that is transcribed from gene

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25
Q

rRNA

A

ribosomal RNA, part of the ribosome

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26
Q

tRNA

A

transfer RNA carries amino acids to mRNA

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27
Q

Catalytic RNA

A

RNA that catalyzes reactions

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28
Q

the purpose of lipids is to

A

serve structure to membranes of cell

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29
Q

characteristics of lipids:

A

fatty acids, triglycerides, phospholipids ( make cell membrane)

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30
Q

the lipid bilayer has ___ heads and ___ tails

A

hydrophilic; hydrophobic

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31
Q

membranes of bacteria and eukaryotes are made of

A

phospholipids

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32
Q

phospholipids form the

A

phospholipid bilayer

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33
Q

what creates the internal environment distinct from the extracellular environment?

A

cell membrane

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34
Q

what can pass through membranes?

A

small nonpolar, hydrophobic, gases pass freely

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35
Q

what needs a transporter to pass through the membrane

A

large polar charged molecules

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36
Q

passive transport ____ require an output of energy, movement down a gradient. It is both simple and facilitated diffusion

A

does not

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37
Q

active transport ___ require energy to move substances against their gradient

A

does

38
Q

define osmosis:

A

movement of free water molecules from their higher concentration to their lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane.

39
Q

In an isotonic solution:

A

solute concentrations are the same on the outside and inside. there is no net water movement and the cell remains the same size

40
Q

A hypertonic solution

A

a solute concentration is higher in the outside than the inside if the cell
water moves out of the cell by osmosis
cell shrinks

41
Q

In a hypotonic solution:

A

solute concentration is lower outside than inside the cell
water moves into the cell by osmosis
the cell swells

42
Q

the goal for a cell is to be
a. isotonic
b. hypertonic
c. hypotonic

A

a. isotonic

43
Q

define pumps

A

membrane proteins that provide active transport of molecules across membrane

44
Q

types of active transport pumps:

A

uniporter: single molecule/ion
symporter/cotransporter: 2+ ions transported in the same direction
antiporter: 2+ ions transported in opposite directions

45
Q

Which of the following is true of passive transport?
a. It occurs down the concentration gradient.
b. It requires energy expenditure.
c. It occurs against the concentration gradient.
d. It always involves a protein transporter

A

a. It occurs down the concentration gradient.

46
Q

define endocytosis:

A

plasma membranes folding inward ( invaginates) to form vesicle that bring substances into cells

47
Q

what are the three types of endocytosis?

A

phagocytosis, pinocytosis, receptor mediated endocytosis

48
Q

this form on endocytosis transports solid particles, takes in organic matter

A

phagocytosis

49
Q

this form of endocytosis transports small molecules into vesicles, and waste

A

pinocytosis

50
Q

this from of endocytosis is specific. For example, it can be specific to glucose

A

receptor mediated endocytosis

51
Q

____ does not eat. it has things broken down and transported

A

bacteria

52
Q

Jams and jellies halt growth of bacteria and fungi that would otherwise spoil these foods? Why?

a. The fruits have potent antibacterial compounds that kill these microorganisms
b. The process of boiling the fruits kills the microorganisms
c.Microorganisms cannot utilize sugars and therefore starve to death
d. The high solute concentration dehydrates these microorganisms
e. The high solute concentration causes cells to burst

A

d. the high solute concentration dehydrates these microorganisms

53
Q

Which of these common food preservation methods does NOT rely on osmotic action?
a. Jams and jellies
b. Salted meats like salted pork or fish
c. Fermented pickles
d. Dried meats like jerky and pepperoni

A

c. fermented pickles

54
Q

Define staining

A

method to identify bacteria, can be either gram+ or gram -

55
Q

gram stains detect

A

peptidoglycan

56
Q

characteristics of gram+ cells

A

thick peptidoglycan layer (90% of cell weight)
more susceptible to antibiotics
differential w crystal violet ( blue/purple)

57
Q

characteristics of gram- cells

A

thin layer of peptidoglycan ( 10% cell mass)
more resistant to antibiotics due to having two cell membranes
not differential

58
Q

Cv+ iodine stains peptidoglycan. is it most visible in gram + or - cells and why?

A

in gram + since it has a larger peptidoglycan layer

59
Q

phospholipids have

A

hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails

60
Q

fast stains are used for

A

waxy outer coat bacteria

61
Q

The acid fast stain is used to

A

differentiate cells with waxy cell walls that contain high amounts of mycolic acid like those of Mycobacterium and Nocardia.

62
Q

mycobacterium causes

A

tuberculosis stains red

63
Q

nocardia is

A

found in the lungs from inhalation causing nocardiosis, stains blue

64
Q

Purpose of endospores:

A

dormant non reproductive resting structures used to survive “tough times”

65
Q

characteristics of endospores

A

NOT LIVING, no metabolism, hardened to radiation, dessication

66
Q

Schaeffer Fulton endospore stains use heat to drive the primary stain ____ into the endospore

A

malachite green

67
Q

this stain doesn’t stain the cells, but stains the background. This is due to negative charges on the surface of the cells

A

negative stains ( capsule)

68
Q

Cultures aren’t dependable for bacteria identification because

A

not all bacteria is easily cultured
environment doesn’t always work
it takes TIME to culture ( 2-3 days)

69
Q

capsules are a protective layer of the cell

A
70
Q

what is used for bacteria classification

A

DNA

71
Q

an inoculum refers to a

A

sample

72
Q

liquid media ( rapid) refers to:

A

broth

73
Q

microorganisms grown from an inoculum are called a

A

culture

74
Q

cultures viable on the surface of a solid media are called

A

colonies

75
Q

all colonies are assumed to have identical bacteria. exceptions to this are

A

mutations, changes in bacterial make up

76
Q

cells from a single colony make up

A

colony forming units ( CFU)

77
Q

Colony morphology studies how

A

how the colony looks on the plate, not the individual bacteria cells

78
Q

selective media

A

excludes growth of the same and allows growth of others.

79
Q

differential media:

A

differentiates different and observes types of bacteria that can grow together

80
Q

Phage Quantification looks for if

A
  1. phages are present
  2. determine presence of specific species and strains
81
Q

this method is selective and differential, contains lactose as a carbon source, and isolates gram - and gut bacteria, turns pink with low pH

A

macconkey agar

82
Q
A

macconkey agar

83
Q

this method look for
Hypertonic bacteria ( high salt)
carbon source ( manntitol)
gram + staphylococci
will turn red/ yellow if ferments mannitol

A

mannitol salt

84
Q

___ is considered good staph by fighting for space, keeping bad staph off

A

staphylococcus epidermis

85
Q

____ is considered bad staph and can be enter via skin infx, abscesses, food poisoning, pneumonia, endocarditis, meningitis, sepsis

A

methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus ( MRSA)

86
Q

this method is not selective, enzymes produce LYSE RBC, is used to determine hemolysis in organisms. tests for beta, alpha, and gamma hemolysis

A

Blood agar

87
Q

Examples of Beta: complete hemolysis

A

streptococcus hemolyticus from medical devices, usually from skin contact
streptococcus pyrogens: puerperal fever, strep throat , rheumatic fever

88
Q

Biofilm

A

thick layer of bacteria, difficult to clean, stacked on one another

89
Q

Alpha: incomplete hemolysis example

A

streptococcus viridans: occurs on gumline, endocarditis, can destroy heart valves

90
Q

Alpha will come up

A

green

91
Q

beta will come up

A

clear around colony

92
Q

gamma hemolysis will show

A

no effect on red cell