Exam Questions A

Question 1

For how long will a fully charged emergency lights system operate

Answer 1

At least 10 minutes

Question 2

Which areas have fire detection systems

Answer 2

APU, cargo compartments, engines, lavatories, main gear wells, overhead rest compartments

Question 3

Where can you monitor hydraulic quantity and pressure

Answer 3

STATUS page or hydraulic synoptic display

Question 4

You have just started the right engine. With the APU running, what sources are powering the L1, L2, R1 and R2 main AC buses

Answer 4

The APU is powering the L1 and L2 buses, the right engine is powering R1 and R2 buses

Question 5

What is the air source for the packs

Answer 5

Outside air

Question 6

An ADF operates on the frequency of 1250.4. What do you type in the FMS - CDU scratchpad to tune it for BFO operations

Answer 6

1250.4B

Question 7

What is the status of entry door to 2R (FADED grey outlined lozenge)

Answer 7

The door signal is invalid or unknown

Question 8

Where do you enter the fuel freeze temperature

Answer 8

FMC CDU PERF INIT Page

Question 9

When is the wheel to rudder crosstie function available

Answer 9

In the secondary and direct modes only

Question 10

What is the first memory action required for Airspeed Unreliable

Answer 10

Autopilot Disc

Question 11

As well as arming the extinguisher and closing the fuel valves, what other systems are affected if an engine fire switch is pulled

Answer 11

Trips the generators, closes anticing valves, depressurises the hydraulics, removes power to the thrust reverser isolation valve.

Question 12

Which primary engine parameters are displayed on the EICAS

Answer 12

TPR, N1, EGT

Question 13

Under which of the following conditions does the centre hydraulic demand pump operate

Answer 13

System low-pressure

Question 14

Where are the locations of the external electric power receptacles

Answer 14

FWD EXT PWR on the left forward fuselage, AFT EXT on the left aft fuselage

Question 15

How many CACs are required to provide sufficient air to a single pack in all modes

Answer 15

One

Question 16

What primary groups of information are displayed on the five display units (DUs)

Answer 16

Primary flight display (PFD) with mini map, navigation display (ND), EICAS, auxiliary display (AUX) and multifunction displays (MFDs)

Question 17

During pre-flight, the display below shows no red exceedance box, how can you be sure that this is the case

Answer 17

Push the CANC/RCL switch when the messages are not displayed

Question 18

What is the maximum crosswind dry takeoff

Answer 18

35 kts

Question 19

What flight control redundancy is available in case of total hydraulic failure

Answer 19

Electrically actuated stabiliser and two spoiler pairs

Question 20

In HDG SEL mode with the Bank Limit Selector at AUTO what is the bank limit dependent on

Answer 20

TAS

Question 21

The Autothrottle can be operated without using the autopilot or F/D. What modes are available in this situation

Answer 21

THR REF, SPD, HOLD, IDLE

Question 22

What inputs does air/ground sensing system use to configure the aeroplane systems to the appropriate air or ground status

Answer 22

Air/ground logic signals from sensors located on each main landing gear beam

Question 23

Following rapid cabin depressurisation, resulting in excessive cabin altitude, what is the first item on the checklist

Answer 23

Don the oxygen mask

Question 24

Which section of the engine is de-iced

Answer 24

Engine inlet cowl and engine core

Question 25

After power up, with the PFD/MFD selectors set to NORM, the displays are in what default configuration

Answer 25

D - AUX PFD, ND EICAS, ND (large), PFD AUX. Below is CDU CDU

Question 26

How can the crew input data into the CDUs

Answer 26

By using the MFK or the Cursor Control Device (CCD)

Question 27

What does the Amber line displayed on the TPR indicator mean

Answer 27

Maximum TPR

Question 28

What does it mean if an EICAS message has a white hollow square next to it

Answer 28

Indicates that a checklist to be actioned

Question 29

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear

Answer 29

The centre system

Question 30

During an engine start, when does the green RUNNING indication above the N2 gauge come into view

Answer 30

When the fuel control switch is in the RUN position and engine is at or above idle

Question 31

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component

Answer 31

15 kts

Question 32

When in flight with wing anticing on, is the system powered

Answer 32

Any time TAT is below 25° C

Question 33

What backup is available in case of complete loss of flight control signalling

Answer 33

Direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabiliser and one spoiler pair allows pilot control using control wheel and alternate pitch trim switches

Question 34

During a go around with LNAV path available, at what radio altitude will LNAV automatically arm and activate when the autopilot is not engaged

Answer 34

Above 50'

Question 35

For engine start, oil temperature must be greater

Answer 35

-40°C

Question 36

On HUD takeoff operations, what is the maximum headwind

Answer 36

25kts

Question 37

What is the maximum range at which weather radar turbulence returns can be displayed

Answer 37

40 nm

Question 38

On the ground before engine start, which system page will display by default if the SYS switch is pushed

Answer 38

STAT page

Question 39

Autostart fails to start an engine; what is your immediate action

Answer 39

Put the FUEL CONTROL switch to CUTOFF

Question 40

How many pack control systems are there

Answer 40

Two systems

Question 41

What electrical sources can be used for APU start

Answer 41

Forward external power, APU battery, or engine generated power

Question 42

Primary and secondary engine indications are provided only on the EICAS display. Which of the following TPR indications is not correct

Answer 42

Maximum TPR line: Red (should be amber)

Question 43

When do system menu buttons change to amber

Answer 43

Whenever an EICAS caution message associated with a synoptic is triggered

Question 44

For a HUD takeoff at LHR, what is the max crosswind limit

Answer 44

20kts

Question 45

What if anything can be done after a power interrupt causes an in-flight loss of alignment of an IRU

Answer 45

The IRU can be realigned to provide full nav capability with GPS data available

Question 46

After retraction, how is the gear held up

Answer 46

Mechanical uplocks

Question 47

When seleced to AUTO, do C1 and C2 hydraulic electrical pumps run continuously

Answer 47

No, the two pumps alternate as a primary pump and a demand pump

Question 48

How are the cabin air compressors (CACs) regulated during engine starts

Answer 48

All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence

Question 49

What is initiated by selecting the battery switched it on

Answer 49

The Left CCR powers up

Question 50

If the FAIL light illuminates, what does this indicate (Flight control surfaces)

Answer 50

An associated control surface has not locked when the lock switch is in the LOCK position

Question 51

What are the primary sources of power for the ECCs

Answer 51

Two engine driven permanent magnet alternators (PMAs)

Question 52

In-flight the RAT deploys automatically under which of the following conditions

Answer 52

Loss of all electrical power to captain's and f/o's flight instruments

Question 53

What comprises the fire and overheat detection system within the engine nacelle

Answer 53

Multiple dual channel detector assemblies

Question 54

With flaps out of up an engine or wing anticing ON what happens to the stick shaker logic

Answer 54

Increases the stick shaker and minimum manoeuvering speed

Question 55

When the AIR DATA/ATT source selector is in AUTO, what is the automatic backup source of airspeed based on

Answer 55

AOA and inertial data

Question 56

How is the left CCR on line indicated

Answer 56

Captain's inboard and lower display unit showing default formats

Question 57

How would you identify the individual lighting controls that operate with the master brightness control system

Answer 57

They all have a centre detent position identified by a white dot at the mid range adjustment position

Question 58

How many display units (DUs) are there

Answer 58

Five

Question 59

What is the EICAS indication that engine anticing is on? The EAI is displayed above the…

Answer 59

N1 Indicator

Question 60

Which statement is true when operating DIRECT flight control mode

Answer 60

Pilot inputs to the ACEs are sent directly to the PCUs

Question 61

What is the maximum headwind for an autoland

Answer 61

25 kts

Question 62

When are the EGT indications inhibited from changing to amber

Answer 62

During takeoff and go around for five minutes

Question 63

What is the first memory action item for ENG SURGE L/R

Answer 63

A/T ARM switch (affected side) - Confirm - OFF

Question 64

On the CDU displayed below, what is the significance of the "MOD RTE 1 LEGS" title line

Answer 64

Flightplan modification not yet executed

Question 65

WXR, TFC & TERR Map switches are located on the EFIS Control Panel. What alternative method is there to select these map indications

Answer 65

The drop down menu in the ND MAP mode

Question 66

With both engines running, where are the individual tank fuel quantities normally displayed?

Answer 66

On the fuel synoptic

Question 67

During alternate gear extension what releases the gear doors and uplocks

Answer 67

A dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump using centre system fluid

Question 68

It 121.5 MHz is tuned on VHF L on the captains TCP, what happens on the FO's and observer's ACP

Answer 68

Receiver lights on both FO's and observer's ACPs would illuminate and they would be able to monitor that radio

Question 69

What is used for vertical guidance for IAN approaches

Answer 69

An FMC computed glidepath

Question 70

When the battery switch is on and external power becomes available (AVAIL), which CCR would start up first?

Answer 70

The Left CCR

Question 71

What will cause the expanded fuel indications to appear

Answer 71

The balance system is active

Question 72

During an all engine autoland, when does the initial runway alignment manoeuvre begin

Answer 72

500'

Question 73

What is the maximum crosswind for a wet landing

Answer 73

33 knots

Question 74

Which displays are multifunction display is (MFDs)

Answer 74

Inboard DUs and the lower DU

Question 75

What are the indications of an engine overheat

Answer 75

The caution beeper sounds, the master caution lights illuminate, EICAS caution message OVERHEAT ENG L/R is displayed

Question 76

What is the maximum altitude for extending the flats

Answer 76

20,000'

Question 77

In the HUD below, what time critical warnings are displayed

Answer 77

WINDSHEAR and the filled in dot

Question 78

The CDU help Window can display

Answer 78

Error and help messages

Question 79

With RTO selected, when would the brakes be applied

Answer 79

Ground speed above 85 kts and both thrust levers at idle

Question 80

In the display below, what does the fuel imbalance pointer flashing amber indicate

Answer 80

The balance of crossfeed is going in the wrong direction

Question 81

With AUTO selected for the bulk cargo temperature, how is airflow increased

Answer 81

The bulk ventilation fan operates

Question 82

During ground starts, the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start for:

Answer 82

No N1 rotation

Question 83

How can the TOGA going to be terminated above 400 '

Answer 83

By selecting another pitch and roll mode

Question 84

How does the thrust asymmetry protection (TAP) function minimise a large thrust asymmetry during takeoff or go-around

Answer 84

Limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine

Question 85

After CCR power-up on battery only, what are the default displays

Answer 85

Captains Inboard DU and Lower DU

Question 86

The TCAS messages and traffic symbols are shown on which displays

Answer 86

PFD mini-map and NDs in MAP or MAP CTR mode

Question 87

What effect does the landing gear lever have on alternate gear extension

Answer 87

Gear lever has no effect

Question 88

How is it time critical warning announced

Answer 88

Must have warning lights, Voice alerts, PFD and HUD indications or stick shakers

Question 89

When the EEC is in normal mode, which parameter is used to control engine thrust

Answer 89

The EEC sets thrust by controlling TPR based on thrust lever position

Question 90

With no system messages, what supplies attitude, heading and rate information to the aircraft systems

Answer 90

Attitude and Heading Reference Unit (AHRU)

Question 91

What is the condition of number two wheel (Amber ASKID)

Answer 91

Antiskid fault

Question 92

What form does the stall warning take

Answer 92

Stick shakers

Question 93

If each pilot selects an ND into a window on the lower DU, a single full display ND is shown. Whose EFIS control panel will control that ND

Answer 93

The pilot that the first selected an ND on the lower DU

Question 94

What are the indications of an engine fire?

Answer 94

Fire bell sounds, master warning lights illuminate, EICAS message displayed, fire switch and fuel control switch lights illuminate

Question 95

What does the navigation performance scale (NPS) deviation pointer do if it migrates into the ANP bar area for more than five seconds?

Answer 95

Flashes for 10 seconds

Question 96

If engine overspeed protection fails, what does the EEC command the engine to do?

Answer 96

The EEC commands fuel shut-off to shutdown the engine

Question 97

What does the value of the TAMS depend on

Answer 97

Varies with weight and C of G

Question 98

During the pre-flight when a flight director is positioned to on, what do the FD bars command

Answer 98

Approximately 8° pitch up command, and wings level roll command

Question 99

When is the rudder pedal steering disconnect switch used

Answer 99

Used during a flight controls freedom of motion check to temporarily disable the rudder pedal inputs

Question 100

What is the turbulent air penetration speed at and above 25,000 feet

Answer 100

310 kts or .84 whichever is lower