Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Exams 787 > Exam Questions B > Flashcards

Exam Questions B Flashcards

(100 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Inflight, when is the fuel balancing system available

A

When the centre tank pumps are off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is the left CCR online indicated

A

Captains inboard and lower display unit showing default formats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is automatic ice detection inhibited on the ground

A

Below 75 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the status of the aft cargo door (amber outline rectangle)

A

It is not closed, latched or locked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During flight after a fire warning from the cargo fire detection system the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch light illuminates and the EICAS advisory message BOTTLE DISCHARGE CARGO is displayed. How many bottles have been discharged

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are located on the 787

A

Two (either bottle can be used in either engine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which flap settings can be used for takeoff

A

Flaps 5, 15 or 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the purpose of the CDU help window

A

Displays error/help messages to the crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When the AIR DATA/ATT selector is in auto, what is the primary source of a data to the PFD/HUD

A

The ADRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the following altitude constraints mean 220A240B

A

Between FL220 and FL240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What indication has the magenta 52.2 replaced? (TO REMAIN figure during a fuel jett procedure)

A

Fuel temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which could disarm the autobrake after landing

A

Either thrust lever advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If 121.5 MHz is tuned on the VHF L from the captains TCP, what happens at the FO’s and observer’s ACPs

A

The VHF – L receiver lights on both ACPs would illuminate and they would be able to monitor that radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fuel temperature prior to takeoff must not be less than

A

-29°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What action is required if the letters RF are showing next to a hydraulic system quantity on the status page

A

When displayed on the ground, the associated hydraulic system must be serviced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The fuel jettison system allows jettison from which fuel tanks

A

All tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Will the APU shutdown automatically for a fire

A

Yes in the unattended and attended modes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do approach flown with the IAN procedures use for vertical path guidance

A

An FMC computed glidepath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which parameters are displayed on the secondary engine indications

A

N2, N3, F/F, OIL PRESS, OIL TEMP, OIL QTY, VIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

One pack is operating normally. The other pack is in standby cooling mode – when is it likely to shutdown

A

At lower altitudes, and higher outside air temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the primary sources of power for the flight control electronics

A

Three engine driven permanent magnet generators (PMGs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is the crew oxygen pressure displayed

A

The STATUS display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With the slats operating in secondary mode, which of the following functions are available

A

Slat load relief and pregap function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the autotabbing feature

A

When data is entered into a CDU field, the cursor automatically moves to the next appropriate entry field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which anti-ice systems are controlled by automatic ice detection
Wing anti-ice, engine anti-ice and pack inlet anti-icing
26
What is the turbulent air penetration speed below 25,000 feet
290 kts
27
What happens when the fuel jettison arm switch is pressed
The system automatically sets the fuel to remain to the maximum landing weight quantity
28
When you move the switch (PFD/MFD selector) to INBD, the outboard DU blanks. What appears on the inboard DU
The PFD (cropped), and the EICAS or whichever display that was shown in place of the EICAS before the failure
29
What are the memory action items required for an Aborted Engine Start L/R
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) -- CUTOFF
30
After selecting gear down, this indication is displayed. What is the position of the gear (White hatched box)
Left and right gears are down and locked the nosegear is in transit
31
In this extract from the fuel synoptic, what does the amber in the feed to the right engine indicate
Suction flow is occurring
32
What is the active FMA roll mode if a HUD take off departure is selected in the FMC
HUD TOGA
33
What is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable
Disconnect the autopilot
34
What EICAS message do you get for cargo fire
Warning message FIRE CARGO (FWD or AFT)
35
What is the main purpose of this display (round HUD display)
To display symbology necessary to help recover from an unusual attitude event
36
The second memory action for ENGINE SURGE L, R is:
Thrust lever (affected side) - RETARD
37
If the TFC switch on the EFIS control panel is pushed, where is the TFC displayed
On the PFD mini map and ND
38
What happens when the alternate pitch trim switches are operated with the autopilot engaged
Nothing, the switches are inhibited
39
The Ram Air Turbine provides 5000 psi hydraulic power to what systems
Primary flight controls connected to the centre hydraulic system
40
What is the turbulent air penetration speed at or above 25000'
310kts / 0.84 whichever is lower
41
When is simultaneous Engine Start allowed
When the APU is running and both its generators are operational.
42
For APU start with the APU battery as the power source, which starter generator(s) is/are always used
Right is used
43
On selected to AUTO, do both C1 and C2 electric pumps run continuously
No, the two sets of pumps alternate as a primary pump and demand pump
44
Which of the following simplified diagrams illustrates direct mode
B (Showing 2 crossed out and the controls connected via the green pages to the control surfaces)
45
What are the memory items in response to the warning STABILISER
STAB cutout switches (both) to cutout and don't exceed the current speed
46
What do these lights indicators (high medium low in a vertical stack)
How much battery life is left during towing operations
47
What normally supplies attitude, heading, and rate information to the aircraft systems
Attitude and heading reference unit (AHRU)
48
How many ice detection systems are fitted to the aircraft
Two systems
49
In addition to speed, attitude and altitude, what information does the integrated standby flight instrument (ISFD) display
ILS/GLS deviation, baro setting, and heading
50
The fire is detected in an engine, what are the first three immediate actions
A/T ARM switch confirm - off Thrust lever confirm- Idle Fuel control switch confirm - cut off
51
What is the heat source for engine anti-ice
Engine bleed air
52
Which could disarm the autobrake after landing
Normal antiskid system fault
53
On the ground, if a CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch is pulled, how many extinguisher bottles discharge simultaneously into the selected compartment
Three
54
What is the minimum fuel quantity remaining after jettisoning
At least 3900 kg in each main tank
55
Without LAND 2 OR LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below:
100'
56
What is the function of the integrated cooling system (ICS)
A centralised refrigeration system that provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling recirculated cabin air
57
In the diagram below, what does the DISC light illuminated signify
The Primary Flight Computers are disconnected and the system is in direct mode
58
If PMG power is lost, what secondary sources of flight control power are available
The 28v DC bus distribution system and the Main battery
59
Why does the centre hydraulic system have an isolation feature
In the event of a leak, the landing gear can be lowered and nosewheel steering is available for landing, rollout, and taxi
60
How is higher amperage loads powered by the aeroplane's electrical system
By the bus systems which are located in the FWD and AFT E/E bays
61
How can the LOC/FAC mode be disarmed before capture
Pushing the LOC/FAC switch a second time
62
On these engine indications, what does item one mean? Engine cross start is (X-Start in magenta above the N3 gauge)
Is required or recommended
63
How many FMCs are on board the aircraft
Three (master, spare and backup)
64
If the glide path angle to the approach is greater than 3.77°, the autopilot must be engage no later than
50 feet below DH/MDA
65
What additional system is lost if smoke is detected in the art cargo compartment
HF radios
66
What are the three primary flight control system modes
Normal, secondary and direct
67
In addition to traditional electrically powered systems, what other systems are electrically powered
Engine start, wing anti – ice protection, pressurisation, stabiliser trim and wheel brake systems
68
Which areas are anti-iced on the wing
Four midwing leading edge slats on each wing
69
What is the purpose of the CACs
To supply pressurised and flow regulated outside air to the air-conditioning packs
70
What is the information is displayed on the clock/flight information block on the AUX display
Flight number, MIC readout, transponder code, SELCAL, aeroplane tail number, UTC time
71
On the takeoff run, you notice this indication (HUD display shows a right arrow)
A yaw to the right is required
72
What is the maximum crosswind for a dry landing
33 kts
73
How are you alerted to an incoming call from the groundcrew via the flight interphone
An aural alert chime, the GROUND CALL EICAS communications alert message, and a CALL light illuminated on the ACP transmitter select switch
74
Is both engines are started together, (but staggered) when should the packs re-start
Which ever occurs last: – two minutes after the start is initiated – the second engine is running
75
How many instances of the checklist (CHKL) can be on-screen simultaneously
Two (one per side)
76
The EEC can select various idle settings. Which of the following settings are correct
Minimum idle, approach idle, icing idle, ice crystal icing
77
When does the following indication (magenta band) appear on the PFD speed tape
During descent in VNAV with the flaps up
78
What is the condition of brake number 4 (BRAKE in amber)
Brake inoperative or brake deactivated
79
For a HUD take off in the USA, what is the maximum crosswind
15kts
80
If you switch an EEC into alternate mode, what is displayed on the N1 indication
Actual and commanded N1 sector, reference and target, maximum and red line
81
Following a CABIN ALTITUDE warning message, what is the first recall item
Don the oxygen mask
82
Which areas are covered by the wheel well fire protection
Left and right wheel wells with dual detector channels
83
During normal ground operations and landing phase, why do deflector doors deploy in front of the CACs inlets
To prevent debris entering the CACs
84
What system powers the brakes
Electrical system via four electric brake power supply units
85
What is the main difference on the HUD between full and decluttered displays
The decluttered display removes any speed and altitude tapes, displaying only digital values. The partial compass rose is also removed
86
Other than thrust protection, what other protection do the EECs provide
Overspeed protection for N1 and N2, N3 indirectly protected by the N1 and N2 speed protection
87
How many independent hydraulic systems are there
Three
88
WXR, TFC and TERR map switches are located on the EFIS Control Panel. What alternative method is there to select these map indications
The drop down menu in the ND MAP mode
89
Where are FMC communication messages displayed
In the CDU help window
90
When will the aural cancel switch function reset itself
When on the ground with both engines shut down
91
Provided it is armed before takeoff, at what speed will LNAV engage
50 feet RA
92
On automatic planning operations, what is the maximum tailwind
15 KTS
93
Which control services are locked out at high-speed
The ailerons
94
With the centre tank empty, if both left main tank pumps fail, how is the left engine affected
The engine can draw fuel from its main tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
95
In standby cooling mode, which messages are displayed
PACK MODE (L/R) on EICAS and STBY COOLING (amber) on synoptic
96
On HUD take off operations, what is the maximum tailwind
15 kts
97
You have had to use the alternate gear extension system. How can you retract the gear again
Move the gear lever from DOWN to UP (provided there is pressure in the centre hydraulic system)
98
The cursor can be moved using controls on which panels
The cursor control device (CCD), MFK and EFIS control panel
99
What method is used to input data into the CDUs
By using the MFK and the cursor control device (CCDi)
100
With a C1 demand pump switch ON, when will the pump run
Continuously

Exams 787 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions