Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exams 787 > Exam Questions B > Flashcards

Exam Questions B Flashcards

1
Q

Inflight, when is the fuel balancing system available

A

When the centre tank pumps are off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is the left CCR online indicated

A

Captains inboard and lower display unit showing default formats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is automatic ice detection inhibited on the ground

A

Below 75 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the status of the aft cargo door (amber outline rectangle)

A

It is not closed, latched or locked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During flight after a fire warning from the cargo fire detection system the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch light illuminates and the EICAS advisory message BOTTLE DISCHARGE CARGO is displayed. How many bottles have been discharged

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are located on the 787

A

Two (either bottle can be used in either engine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which flap settings can be used for takeoff

A

Flaps 5, 15 or 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the purpose of the CDU help window

A

Displays error/help messages to the crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When the AIR DATA/ATT selector is in auto, what is the primary source of a data to the PFD/HUD

A

The ADRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the following altitude constraints mean 220A240B

A

Between FL220 and FL240

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What indication has the magenta 52.2 replaced? (TO REMAIN figure during a fuel jett procedure)

A

Fuel temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which could disarm the autobrake after landing

A

Either thrust lever advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If 121.5 MHz is tuned on the VHF L from the captains TCP, what happens at the FO’s and observer’s ACPs

A

The VHF – L receiver lights on both ACPs would illuminate and they would be able to monitor that radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fuel temperature prior to takeoff must not be less than

A

-29°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What action is required if the letters RF are showing next to a hydraulic system quantity on the status page

A

When displayed on the ground, the associated hydraulic system must be serviced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The fuel jettison system allows jettison from which fuel tanks

A

All tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Will the APU shutdown automatically for a fire

A

Yes in the unattended and attended modes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do approach flown with the IAN procedures use for vertical path guidance

A

An FMC computed glidepath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which parameters are displayed on the secondary engine indications

A

N2, N3, F/F, OIL PRESS, OIL TEMP, OIL QTY, VIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

One pack is operating normally. The other pack is in standby cooling mode – when is it likely to shutdown

A

At lower altitudes, and higher outside air temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the primary sources of power for the flight control electronics

A

Three engine driven permanent magnet generators (PMGs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is the crew oxygen pressure displayed

A

The STATUS display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With the slats operating in secondary mode, which of the following functions are available

A

Slat load relief and pregap function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the autotabbing feature

A

When data is entered into a CDU field, the cursor automatically moves to the next appropriate entry field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which anti-ice systems are controlled by automatic ice detection

A

Wing anti-ice, engine anti-ice and pack inlet anti-icing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed below 25,000 feet

A

290 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens when the fuel jettison arm switch is pressed

A

The system automatically sets the fuel to remain to the maximum landing weight quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When you move the switch (PFD/MFD selector) to INBD, the outboard DU blanks. What appears on the inboard DU

A

The PFD (cropped), and the EICAS or whichever display that was shown in place of the EICAS before the failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the memory action items required for an Aborted Engine Start L/R

A

FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) – CUTOFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

After selecting gear down, this indication is displayed. What is the position of the gear (White hatched box)

A

Left and right gears are down and locked the nosegear is in transit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In this extract from the fuel synoptic, what does the amber in the feed to the right engine indicate

A

Suction flow is occurring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the active FMA roll mode if a HUD take off departure is selected in the FMC

A

HUD TOGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable

A

Disconnect the autopilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What EICAS message do you get for cargo fire

A

Warning message FIRE CARGO (FWD or AFT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the main purpose of this display (round HUD display)

A

To display symbology necessary to help recover from an unusual attitude event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The second memory action for ENGINE SURGE L, R is:

A

Thrust lever (affected side) - RETARD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If the TFC switch on the EFIS control panel is pushed, where is the TFC displayed

A

On the PFD mini map and ND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What happens when the alternate pitch trim switches are operated with the autopilot engaged

A

Nothing, the switches are inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The Ram Air Turbine provides 5000 psi hydraulic power to what systems

A

Primary flight controls connected to the centre hydraulic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed at or above 25000’

A

310kts / 0.84 whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When is simultaneous Engine Start allowed

A

When the APU is running and both its generators are operational.

42
Q

For APU start with the APU battery as the power source, which starter generator(s) is/are always used

A

Right is used

43
Q

On selected to AUTO, do both C1 and C2 electric pumps run continuously

A

No, the two sets of pumps alternate as a primary pump and demand pump

44
Q

Which of the following simplified diagrams illustrates direct mode

A

B (Showing 2 crossed out and the controls connected via the green pages to the control surfaces)

45
Q

What are the memory items in response to the warning STABILISER

A

STAB cutout switches (both) to cutout and don’t exceed the current speed

46
Q

What do these lights indicators (high medium low in a vertical stack)

A

How much battery life is left during towing operations

47
Q

What normally supplies attitude, heading, and rate information to the aircraft systems

A

Attitude and heading reference unit (AHRU)

48
Q

How many ice detection systems are fitted to the aircraft

A

Two systems

49
Q

In addition to speed, attitude and altitude, what information does the integrated standby flight instrument (ISFD) display

A

ILS/GLS deviation, baro setting, and heading

50
Q

The fire is detected in an engine, what are the first three immediate actions

A

A/T ARM switch confirm - off
Thrust lever confirm- Idle
Fuel control switch confirm - cut off

51
Q

What is the heat source for engine anti-ice

A

Engine bleed air

52
Q

Which could disarm the autobrake after landing

A

Normal antiskid system fault

53
Q

On the ground, if a CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch is pulled, how many extinguisher bottles discharge simultaneously into the selected compartment

A

Three

54
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity remaining after jettisoning

A

At least 3900 kg in each main tank

55
Q

Without LAND 2 OR LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below:

A

100’

56
Q

What is the function of the integrated cooling system (ICS)

A

A centralised refrigeration system that provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling recirculated cabin air

57
Q

In the diagram below, what does the DISC light illuminated signify

A

The Primary Flight Computers are disconnected and the system is in direct mode

58
Q

If PMG power is lost, what secondary sources of flight control power are available

A

The 28v DC bus distribution system and the Main battery

59
Q

Why does the centre hydraulic system have an isolation feature

A

In the event of a leak, the landing gear can be lowered and nosewheel steering is available for landing, rollout, and taxi

60
Q

How is higher amperage loads powered by the aeroplane’s electrical system

A

By the bus systems which are located in the FWD and AFT E/E bays

61
Q

How can the LOC/FAC mode be disarmed before capture

A

Pushing the LOC/FAC switch a second time

62
Q

On these engine indications, what does item one mean? Engine cross start is (X-Start in magenta above the N3 gauge)

A

Is required or recommended

63
Q

How many FMCs are on board the aircraft

A

Three (master, spare and backup)

64
Q

If the glide path angle to the approach is greater than 3.77°, the autopilot must be engage no later than

A

50 feet below DH/MDA

65
Q

What additional system is lost if smoke is detected in the art cargo compartment

A

HF radios

66
Q

What are the three primary flight control system modes

A

Normal, secondary and direct

67
Q

In addition to traditional electrically powered systems, what other systems are electrically powered

A

Engine start, wing anti – ice protection, pressurisation, stabiliser trim and wheel brake systems

68
Q

Which areas are anti-iced on the wing

A

Four midwing leading edge slats on each wing

69
Q

What is the purpose of the CACs

A

To supply pressurised and flow regulated outside air to the air-conditioning packs

70
Q

What is the information is displayed on the clock/flight information block on the AUX display

A

Flight number, MIC readout, transponder code, SELCAL, aeroplane tail number, UTC time

71
Q

On the takeoff run, you notice this indication (HUD display shows a right arrow)

A

A yaw to the right is required

72
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for a dry landing

A

33 kts

73
Q

How are you alerted to an incoming call from the groundcrew via the flight interphone

A

An aural alert chime, the GROUND CALL EICAS communications alert message, and a CALL light illuminated on the ACP transmitter select switch

74
Q

Is both engines are started together, (but staggered) when should the packs re-start

A

Which ever occurs last:
– two minutes after the start is initiated
– the second engine is running

75
Q

How many instances of the checklist (CHKL) can be on-screen simultaneously

A

Two (one per side)

76
Q

The EEC can select various idle settings. Which of the following settings are correct

A

Minimum idle, approach idle, icing idle, ice crystal icing

77
Q

When does the following indication (magenta band) appear on the PFD speed tape

A

During descent in VNAV with the flaps up

78
Q

What is the condition of brake number 4 (BRAKE in amber)

A

Brake inoperative or brake deactivated

79
Q

For a HUD take off in the USA, what is the maximum crosswind

A

15kts

80
Q

If you switch an EEC into alternate mode, what is displayed on the N1 indication

A

Actual and commanded N1 sector, reference and target, maximum and red line

81
Q

Following a CABIN ALTITUDE warning message, what is the first recall item

A

Don the oxygen mask

82
Q

Which areas are covered by the wheel well fire protection

A

Left and right wheel wells with dual detector channels

83
Q

During normal ground operations and landing phase, why do deflector doors deploy in front of the CACs inlets

A

To prevent debris entering the CACs

84
Q

What system powers the brakes

A

Electrical system via four electric brake power supply units

85
Q

What is the main difference on the HUD between full and decluttered displays

A

The decluttered display removes any speed and altitude tapes, displaying only digital values. The partial compass rose is also removed

86
Q

Other than thrust protection, what other protection do the EECs provide

A

Overspeed protection for N1 and N2, N3 indirectly protected by the N1 and N2 speed protection

87
Q

How many independent hydraulic systems are there

A

Three

88
Q

WXR, TFC and TERR map switches are located on the EFIS Control Panel. What alternative method is there to select these map indications

A

The drop down menu in the ND MAP mode

89
Q

Where are FMC communication messages displayed

A

In the CDU help window

90
Q

When will the aural cancel switch function reset itself

A

When on the ground with both engines shut down

91
Q

Provided it is armed before takeoff, at what speed will LNAV engage

A

50 feet RA

92
Q

On automatic planning operations, what is the maximum tailwind

A

15 KTS

93
Q

Which control services are locked out at high-speed

A

The ailerons

94
Q

With the centre tank empty, if both left main tank pumps fail, how is the left engine affected

A

The engine can draw fuel from its main tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps

95
Q

In standby cooling mode, which messages are displayed

A

PACK MODE (L/R) on EICAS and STBY COOLING (amber) on synoptic

96
Q

On HUD take off operations, what is the maximum tailwind

A

15 kts

97
Q

You have had to use the alternate gear extension system. How can you retract the gear again

A

Move the gear lever from DOWN to UP (provided there is pressure in the centre hydraulic system)

98
Q

The cursor can be moved using controls on which panels

A

The cursor control device (CCD), MFK and EFIS control panel

99
Q

What method is used to input data into the CDUs

A

By using the MFK and the cursor control device (CCDi)

100
Q

With a C1 demand pump switch ON, when will the pump run

A

Continuously

Exams 787 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions