Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Lab T3 > Exam Review > Flashcards

Exam Review Flashcards

(60 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What happens to the levels of chemicals in circulating blood fluid in a disease state?

A

The amount of these chemicals is altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How soon should chemistry testing be completed after blood collection?

A

Within one hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the advantage of a fasted blood sample?

A

More accurate due to less lipemia in the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the pros of using serum for chemistry testing?

A
  • No additives to alter results
  • Easier to separate from cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the cons of using serum for chemistry testing?

A
  • Must wait 20 minutes before separating the sample
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the pros of using whole blood for chemistry testing?

A
  • No need to wait for blood to clot or centrifuge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the cons of using whole blood for chemistry testing?

A
  • Not all machines can accept whole blood samples
  • Results can be altered by dehydration and anticoagulant dilution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the pros of using plasma for chemistry testing?

A
  • No need to wait for blood to clot
  • Some analyzers can calibrate for anticoagulant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the cons of using plasma for chemistry testing?

A
  • Anticoagulant may alter results
  • More difficult to separate without taking cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens if plasma/serum is left on top of RBCs?

A

RBCs will metabolize glucose, altering serum electrolytes and enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the procedure to obtain plasma?

A
  • Fill green top vacutainer with whole blood
  • Centrifuge on high for 10 minutes
  • Remove plasma carefully
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the procedure to obtain serum?

A
  • Fill red top vacutainer with whole blood
  • Allow to sit for 20 minutes
  • Centrifuge on high for 10 minutes
  • Remove serum from top
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is chemistry testing important before surgery?

A

Shows affected organs and severity in disease states; aids in diagnosis and prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What produces plasma proteins?

A

Liver and immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percentage of total plasma protein does albumin make up?

A

35-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are globulins estimated?

A

Total protein - Albumin = Globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the four enzymes released when hepatocytes are damaged?

A
  • Alanine transaminase (ALT)
  • Aspartate Transaminase (AST)
  • Sorbitol Dehydrogenase (SDH)
  • Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does alkaline phosphatase (ALKP) indicate?

A

Bile duct obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two main hepatocyte function tests?

A
  • Bilirubin
  • Bile acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) used to evaluate?

A

Kidney function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is creatinine a by-product of?

A

Metabolic breakdown of creatine in skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a urine protein/creatinine (UPC) ratio greater than 5 indicate?

A

Renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary function of the pancreas?

A

Produces digestive enzymes and hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas?

A
  • Trypsin
  • Amylase
  • Lipase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What condition can cause increased glucose levels?
* Epinephrine * Hyperthyroidism * Glucocorticoids * Diabetes Mellitus
26
What does a high fructosamine level indicate?
Persistent hyperglycemia over 1-2 weeks
27
What do glycosylated hemoglobin tests indicate?
Persistent hyperglycemia
28
What causes ketoacidosis in diabetics?
Buildup of by-products called ketones
29
What is the function of creatine kinase (CK)?
Indicates muscle damage
30
What are electrolytes?
Positively or negatively charged particles in the body
31
What is the main cation of extracellular fluid?
Sodium
32
What does hyponatremia cause?
Fluid shift from blood vessels to intracellular space
33
What is the major intracellular cation?
Potassium
34
What is hyperkalemia?
Increased cell excitability leading to abnormal heart rhythm
35
What does adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulate?
Production of cortisol
36
What is hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Disease)?
Increased production of hormones from the adrenal cortex
37
What clinical signs are associated with hyperadrenocorticism?
* PU/PD * Polyphagia * Pendulous abdomen * Hepatomegaly * Hair loss
38
What does the ACTH stimulation test evaluate?
Degree of response of adrenal glands to ACTH
39
What is the normal pre-ACTH cortisol level for dogs?
0.5-4ug/dL
40
What does the dexamethasone suppression test evaluate?
Adrenal glands using feedback loops
41
What is hypothyroidism?
Decreased function of the thyroid gland
42
What are the clinical signs of hyperthyroidism?
* Weight loss despite appetite * Restlessness * Hyperactivity
43
What is the role of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?
Stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxine (T4)
44
What is the purpose of the total T4 test?
Initial screening for thyroid function
45
What are common clinical signs affecting older cats (8 years +)?
* Weight loss despite a good appetite * Restlessness * Hyperactivity * Diarrhea ## Footnote These signs may indicate underlying health issues that require veterinary attention.
46
What is the purpose of the Total T4 test?
To test total thyroxine (T4) levels in dogs or cats ## Footnote It requires the Idexx Snap reader to interpret results and takes 15 minutes.
47
What does ELISA stand for?
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay ## Footnote ELISA is used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample.
48
What are the three parts of an ELISA test?
* Solid phase * Conjugate reagent * Chromogen ## Footnote These components work together to detect the presence of antigens in a sample.
49
What is the first step in an ELISA test?
Add the patient’s sample to the solid phase ## Footnote If the antigen is present, it will bind to the antibody on the test surface.
50
What does a Competitive Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (CELISA) involve?
Antibodies cover test wells; enzyme-marked antigens compete with patient antigens ## Footnote This test helps to determine the presence of specific antigens in the sample.
51
What is the principle behind a latex agglutination test?
Formation of antibody-antigen complexes causes agglutination ## Footnote This occurs when serum containing the corresponding antibody is added to the latex particles.
52
What is tested using the Coombs test?
Auto-antibodies (antibodies to self) ## Footnote It helps diagnose immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) and other autoimmune conditions.
53
What are the advantages of serum allergy testing?
* No discomfort/pain for the patient * No shaving/incisions/sedation required * Collect serum sample and send to lab ## Footnote This method is less invasive compared to intradermal allergy testing.
54
What is the purpose of titer tests?
To distinguish between active infections and prior exposure to certain antigens ## Footnote Titer tests measure the concentration of antibodies in the serum.
55
What does a refractometer measure?
Total dissolved solids in a liquid ## Footnote It can be used clinically to obtain urine specific gravity (USG) and total protein levels.
56
What is the basic principle of impedance hematology analyzers?
Electric current passes through cells, impedance determines blood concentration ## Footnote The size of the cells affects the degree of impedance.
57
What are the benefits of laser-based analyzers?
* Provides reticulocyte count * Accurate platelet counts * No interference from NuRBCs or clumped platelets * Easy to use (touch screen) * Evaluates 25 separate parameters ## Footnote These analyzers are more modern and efficient compared to older systems.
58
What do liquid reagents in diagnostic testing refer to?
Reagents present in wells for different tests ## Footnote The sample is introduced to the wells, and the degree of chemical reactions is interpreted by the machine.
59
Fill in the blank: A spectrophotometer measures the amount of light _______ through a solution.
transmitted ## Footnote Different wavelength bulbs are used for different tests, determining the degree of reaction.
60
What is an example of a dedicated use analyzer?
Glucometer ## Footnote A glucometer is specifically designed to measure glucose levels.

Lab T3 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions