exam two cram Flashcards

1
Q

causes of hyper kyphosis

A

osteoporosis, vertebral compression fracture, osteomalacia, heavy weight lifting during adolescence, abnormal vertebral growth

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2
Q

causes of hyperlordosis

A

osteoporosis, vertebral compression fracture, osteomalacia, heavy weight lifting during adolescence, abnormal vertebral growth, abnormal weight gain (pregnancy/obesity)

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3
Q

causes of scoliosis

A

unilateral muscle paralysis. usually develops during puberty

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4
Q

what is a herniated disc

A

when the inner nucleus pulposus protrudes through the annulus fibrosis

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5
Q

what percent of adults have a sternal foramen

A

4-10

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6
Q

what causes a sternal foramen

A

failure of L and R ossification centers to fuse completely

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7
Q

what is the thing that compresses axillary artery/nerves and causes tingly pain

A

cervical rib (C7 costal elongation)

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8
Q

what percent of people have the condition where ribs split when meeting the sternum

A

1.2% (bifid ribs)

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9
Q

what is the space encircled by both pubic and ischial rami called

A

obturator foramen

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10
Q

what divides the true/false pelves

A

pelvic brim

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11
Q

what are carpals/tarsals

A

wrist bones, feet bones

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12
Q

what is the largest and second largest tarsals called

A

calcaneus and talus

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13
Q

what are the metacarpals/tarsals

A

the bones in between the wrist and knuckles

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14
Q

what are the three arches of the feet

A

medial longitudinal arch (med. surface of foot lifted)
lateral longitudinal arch
transverse arch

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15
Q

what would the sacrifice the aztecs did be called if it was a surgery

A

bilateral transverse thoracotomy

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16
Q

what is the fracture of the distal radius called

A

colles fracture

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17
Q

what else can happen in a colles fracture other than dist. radius fracturing

A

dist. ulnar fracture due to forces traveling through interosseous membrane

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18
Q

BLANK will fracture before BLANK dislocates

A

clavicle, sternoclavicular joint

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19
Q

what is the most commonly fractured bone

A

clavicle

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20
Q

3 structural classes of joints

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

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21
Q

types of fibroid joint

A

gomophoses, sutures, syndesmoses

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22
Q

what is the type of fibrous joint that is joined together by long connective strands

A

syndesmoses

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23
Q

what is an example of a syndesmosis

A

interosseous membrane

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24
Q

types of cartilaginous joints

A

synchondroses and symphyses

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25
Q

definition/example of synchondroses

A

where bones are joined by hyalin cartilage. costochondral joint (ribs and costal cartilage)

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26
Q

what is the outer and inner layers of an articular capsule found in synovial joint

A

outer: fibrous layer
inner: synovial membrane

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27
Q

outside and physically seperate from the articular capsule

A

extrinsic ligaments

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28
Q

represent thickenings of the articular surface itself

A

intrinsic ligaments

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29
Q

what is a bursa

A

a fibrous sacklike structure that cotains synovial fluid and is lined by a symovial membrane

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30
Q

what is the space between the labia minora called

A

vestibule

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31
Q

the erectile bodies on either side of the vaginal opening

A

bulb of the vestibule

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32
Q

_____ are in the posterolateral walls of the vestibule and secrete mucin during coitus

A

greater vestibular glands

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33
Q

what is the body of the clit formed by

A

corpus cavernosa

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34
Q

what is the tissue that causes the nipple to become errect under stimulation

A

smooth muscle

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35
Q

what hormone is responsible for milk production

A

prolactin

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36
Q

what hormone is responsible for milk expulsion

A

oxytocin

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37
Q

what is gangrene

A

the death of soft tissue due to diminished/blocked arterial blood supply

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38
Q

obstruction of the blood supply to the intestines

A

intestinal gangrene

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39
Q

in _____ _____, the body part is shrivelled due to constricted blood vessels from extreme cold

A

dry gangrene

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40
Q

____ ____ is caused by bacterial infection of tissues that have lost blood supply

A

wet gangrene

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41
Q

what are the bacteria that are associated with wet gangrene

A

streptococcus, staphlococcus, enterobacter, klebsiella

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42
Q

the bacteria responsible for gas gangrene

A

clostridium

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43
Q

what is the fracture of the distal tibia and often fibula involving the malleoli specifically

A

pott’s fracture

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44
Q

what causes pott’s fracture

A

forced inversion of the ankle

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45
Q

progression of potts fracture:

A

forced inversion damages deltoid ligament which breaks the medial malleolus which then causes lateral movement which damages the lateral ligament. The fibular shaft can also be broken as well

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46
Q

localized swelling at first metatarsal joint that causes the big toe to point towards toe #2

A

bunion

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47
Q

flat feet

A

pes planus

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48
Q

claw foot

A

pes cavus

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49
Q

feet are permanantly inverted and ankles are plantar flexed

A

talipes equinovarus (club foot)

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50
Q

what is a common cause of club foot

A

not enough room in the womb

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51
Q

the biaxial types of joints

A

saddle and condyloid

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52
Q

the saddle joints you need to know for the test

A

carpometacarpal #1
sternoclavicular joint
malleus and incus

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53
Q

the tunics of the vagina

A

mucosa, muscularis, adventitia

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54
Q

uniaxial joints

A

planar/gliding, hinge, pivot

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55
Q

the planar/gliding joints (6)

A

intertarsal/carpal
tarsal/carpal
sacroiliac
articulating process of vertebrae

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56
Q

the hinge joints (5)

A

tibeofemoral
talocrural
interphalangeal
humeroulnar
metacarpo-phalangeal #1

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57
Q

the pivot joints (2)

A

radioulnar
atlantoaxial

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58
Q

the condyloid joints (4)

A

metacarpophalangeal #2-5
metatarsalphalangeal #1-5
radiocarpal
atlantooccipital

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59
Q

the saddle joints (3)

A

malleus and incus
sternoclavicular
carpometacarpal #1

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60
Q

the ball and socket joints (2)

A

glenohumeral, acetabularfemoral

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61
Q

irritation and inflammation of the costochondral joints resulting in localized chest pain

A

costochondritis

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62
Q

what are temperomandibular joints problems usually a result of

A

usually a result of alterations in the ligament that secure it causing gradual displacement of articular disks

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63
Q

what are the two places dislocation is most common

A

(shoulder joint) glenohumeral and acromioclavicular

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64
Q

_____ _____ refers to acromioclavicular seperation

A

shoulder seperation

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65
Q

where does the nail go in the upper extremities during crucifiction

A

between distal ends of radius/ulna or in the carpal bones

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66
Q

the meat of the palm is called

A

thenar eminence

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67
Q

when repetitive stress is applied to lateral epicondyle, such as when stoking a tennis racket

A

lateral epicondylitis

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68
Q

repetitive stress is applied to the medial epicondyle such as occurs when frequently swinging a golf club, bowling, or pitching a baseball

A

medial epicondylitis

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69
Q

what is a colles fracture

A

fracture of the distal radius

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70
Q

the skin dimples that can be seen just above and lateral to the gluteal cleft are called

A

fossae lumbales laterales (dimples of venus)

71
Q

a good site for bone marrow biopsies

A

posterior portion of the iliac crest

72
Q

the space in the os coxae that is encircled by both pubic and ischial rami

A

obturator foramen

73
Q

what is the false pelvis

A

the upper portion of the pelvic basin thats enclosed by the flared iliac bones

74
Q

what is the true pelvis

A

the lower portion of the pelvic basin which encloses the pelvic cavity

75
Q

what is the inferior exit from the true pelvis called

A

pelvic outlet

76
Q

where are babies born from (not looking for the word vagina)

A

pelvic outlet

77
Q

the pelvic outlet can be measured by _________ to determine if normal vaginal birth is possible,

A

pelvimetry

78
Q

where is relaxin produced

A

corpus luteum

79
Q

the passage of a child’s head during childbirth is called

A

parturition

80
Q

what does relaxin effect

A

the pubic symphysis and sacroiliac joint, it can also effect ligaments and make them more stretchy, like in the feet so the arches colllapse!!

81
Q

the life saving procedure that quickly delivers fluids to somebody. in past only performed on children but development in technology lets it be done on adults now

A

interosseous transfusion

82
Q

how many tarsal bones are ther

A

7

83
Q

what are the two tarsal bones you need to know the name of

A

talus and calcaneus

84
Q

the name for the thumb (great finger)

A

pollux

85
Q

the name for the big toe (great toe)

A

hallux

86
Q

the medial and lateral malleolus serve the same purpose as the ____ ____ in the arms

A

styloid processes

87
Q

the 2 things that can be done after femoral shaft fractures to stop the sharp ends of the bones from cutting through soft tissue in the leg due to pulling from strong thigh muscles

A

hare traction split or sager traction splint

88
Q

the patella is in which tendon

A

the quadriceps femoris tendon

89
Q

in mortons toe, which bones of the first toe are shorter

A

metatarsal foot bones

90
Q

inflammation of the greater trochanters bursa

A

trochanteric bursitis

91
Q

the study of the functional relationship or biometrics of the skeleton, joints, muscles, and nerves

A

kinesiology

92
Q

the study of joints is called

A

arthrology

93
Q

__________ are false joints that occur when a fractured long bone heals as two seperate bones

A

pseudoarthroses

94
Q

______ ____ lacka joint cavity

A

fibrous joints

95
Q

interosseous membranes are

A

amphiarthrotic fibrous syndesmoses

96
Q

sutures in the skull are

A

synarthrotic fibrous sutures

97
Q

the fancy name for soft spots on a babies head

A

fontanelles

98
Q

teeth are

A

synarthrotic fibrous gomphoses

99
Q

teeth are secured by

A

periodontal ligaments

100
Q

epiphyseal growth plates are

A

synarthrotic cartilaginous synchondroses

101
Q

the two syndesmoses you need to know for the test

A

between the radius and ulna, between the tibia and fibula

102
Q

the pubic symphasys is a

A

amphiarthrotic cartilaginous symphyses

103
Q

_________ have a pad of fibrocartilage between the articulating bones

A

symphyses

104
Q

the two examples of symphyses you need to know for the test

A

pubic symphysis, intervertebral disks

105
Q

facts about marfan’s syndrome

A

defects in the heart valves and aorta, weak ligaments/joints, can effect the lungs, eyes, dural sac surrounding the spinal cord, the skeleton, and the hard palate. People with marfans syndome tend to be really tall with long limbs and thin fingers. Its caused by a misfolding of the protein fibrillin-1 coded by the gene FBN1. autosomal dominant disorder

106
Q

the only freely moveable joint in the skull

A

temperomandibular joint

107
Q

the _________ ____ strengthens the fibrous joint capsule of the acromioclavicular joint

A

acromioclavicular ligament

108
Q

the ______ ______ binds the clavicle ot the coracoid process of the scapula. responsible for most of the stability of the joint

A

coracoclavicular ligament

109
Q

the fibrocartilaginous ____ _____ encircles and covers the surface of the glenoid cavity

A

glenoid labrum

110
Q

another name for the rotator cuff

A

musculotendinous cuff

111
Q

the ligaments that minimally strengthen the glenohumeral joint

A

coracoacromial ligament
coracohumeral ligament
glenohumeral ligaments (3)

112
Q

the supporting ligaments of the elbow joint

A

radial (lateral) collateral ligament
ulnar (medial) collateral ligament
anular ligament

113
Q

ligamentous fibers called ____ ____ reflect around the neck of the femur and provide additional stability to the capsule

A

retinacular fibers

114
Q

the ligament that contains the foveal artery

A

ligamentum teres

115
Q

the knee is composed of 2 seperate articulations which are:

A

tibiofemoral joint (condyles fo the femur and condyles of the tibia)
patellofemoral joint (patella and patellar surface of femur)

116
Q

the patella is inside the ____ ____ which is a part of the ______ _____

A

patellar ligament; quadriceps femoris

117
Q

the _____ _____ ____ ____ reinforces the lateral surface of the knee joint

A

lateral/fibular collateral ligament

118
Q

the lateral/fibular collateral ligament (LCL) prevents

A

hyperadduction or varus deviation

119
Q

varus deviation

A

knee goes lateral, ankle goes medial. tears lateral collateral ligament

120
Q

the lateral collateral ligament is ____ ____ the meniscus

A

NOT TOUCHING

121
Q

the medial collateral ligament is ____ ____ the meniscus

A

FUSED TO

122
Q

how to test the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament

A

varus stress test

123
Q

the medial/tibular collateral ligament prevents

A

hyperabduction or valgus deviation

124
Q

valgus deviation

A

knee goes medial, ankle goes lateral. tears medial collateral ligament

125
Q

how to test the integrity of the medial collateral ligament

A

valgus stress test

126
Q

the newly discovered ligament that prevents the knee from collasing inward

A

anterolateral ligament

127
Q

the ligaments deep to the articular capsule associated with the intercondylar fossa on the posterior of the distal femur

A

cruciate ligaments

128
Q

the cruciate ligament that runs from the posterior femur to the anterior side of the tibia

A

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

129
Q

when the knee is extended, the ______ is pulled taut

A

ACL (anterior cruciate ligament)

130
Q

the ACL prevents

A

the tibia from moving too far anteriorly of the femur

131
Q

the cruciate ligament that runs from the anteroinferior femur to the posterior side of the tibia

A

posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

132
Q

when the knee is bent, the ____ is pulled taut

A

PCL (posterior cruciate ligament)

133
Q

what is it called when a replacement part for the ACL comes from a cadaver

A

allograft

134
Q

what is it called when a replacement part for the ACL comes from the same person

A

autograft

135
Q

the ligament on the medial side of the talocrural articular capsule

A

deltoid ligament

136
Q

the deltoid ligament prevents

A

overeversion of the foot

137
Q

the ligaments (3) on the lateral side of the talocrural articular capsule

A

anterior talofibular ligament
posterior talofibular ligament
calcaneofibular ligament

138
Q

the fancy name for a high ankle sprain

A

syndesmotic ankle sprain

139
Q

os trigonum syndrome

A

the extra foot bone mom has

140
Q

osteoarthritis

A

wear and tear of the joints

141
Q

the scary tetanus position

A

opisthotonos

142
Q

what is it called when the femur fractures outside the articular capsule

A

extracapsular/intertrochanteric fractures

143
Q

what is it called when the femur fractures inside the articular capsule

A

intracapsular/subcapital fractures

144
Q

what group of people is most commonly affected by intertrochanteric fractures

A

young people as a result of trauma

145
Q

what goup of people is most commonly affected by subcapital fractures

A

elderly people with osteoporosis

146
Q

which ligament is attached to the medial meniscus

A

tibial collateral ligament

147
Q

when is the ACL damaged

A

when the leg is hyperextended

148
Q

what is it called when a physician pulls on the tibia (anteriorly.) gently to test the ACL

A

anterior drawer test

149
Q

what is it called when a physician gently pushes on the tibia to test the PCL

A

posterior drawer test

150
Q

what does the unhappy triad refer to

A

injury of the tibial/medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and ACL

151
Q

what is a common surgical treatment for unhappy triad injuries

A

arthoscopy

152
Q

a group of inflammatory or degenerative diseases of the joints

A

arthritis

153
Q

what type of people does gouty arthritis affect

A

middle aged to older people

154
Q

what is the process of gouty arthritis

A

build up of uric acid
uric acid crystals build up in the blood, synovial fluid/membranes
body’s response to said buildup is inflammation
articular cartilage can eventually fuse together leaving joint immobile

155
Q

where does gouty arthritis usually start

A

one joint usually on the big toe

156
Q

what can be used to treat gouty arthritis

A

non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and colchine

157
Q

what is the most common type of arthritis

A

osteoarthritis/degenerative arthritis

158
Q

what is the process of degenerative arthritis

A

wear and tear of joint, eventually, articulating cartilage is worn down and bone rubs on bone
joint stiffens and hurts bc no cartilage

159
Q

what can be used to treat osteoarthritis/degenerative arthritis

A

NSAIDs and corticosteroriod injections

160
Q

what type of people are usually effected by rheumatoid arthritis

A

younger/middle aged women

161
Q

what are the 3 types of arthritis you need to know

A

gouty arthritis, osteo/degenerative arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis

162
Q

how is rheumatoid arthritis different from the other 2

A

its an autoimmune disorder where the body attacks its own tissues

163
Q

what is the progression of rheumatoid arthritis

A

synovial membrane inflammation
consequently, joint swells and membrane thickens
eventually, cartilage and underlying bone are eroded
scar tissue forms
scar tissue ossifies
bone ends fuse together

164
Q

what is it called when the bone ends fuse together in rheumatoid arthritis

A

ankylosis

165
Q

what are the fast, 1st line treatments for rheumatoid arthritis

A

NSAIDs and corticosteroroids

166
Q

what are the slow, 2nd line treatments for rheumatoid arthritis

A

methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine

167
Q

what is it called when bad skin is surgically replaced with good skin

A

grafting

168
Q

and autograft is where

A

the skin is taken from the same person who needs it

169
Q

what is it called when a skin graft is taken from a genetically identical person

A

synergetic graft or isograft

170
Q

what is it called when a skin graft is taken from a genetically different person

A

allograft

171
Q

the term ‘allograft’ can be in reference to skin grafts as well as ____ _____

A

organ transplants

172
Q

allografts can come from ____

A

cadavers !!!

173
Q

what is it called when a graft is taken from an animal and put into a human

A

xenograft

174
Q

what do patients have to do to make sure allografts/xenografts dont reject

A

for both: take powerful immunosuppressants
for allograft: find someone very genetically similar