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American Flyers Flight School Training > FAA Written Exam > Flashcards

FAA Written Exam Flashcards

(106 cards)

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1
Q

What conditions cause frost?

A

Temperature and Dewpoint of the collecting surface below freezing

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2
Q

What makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of lift

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3
Q

How is P-Factor impacted by Angle of Attack?

A

P-Factor increases as AOA increases

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4
Q

Compass Error: Accel/Decel East and West

A

ANDS

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5
Q

Compass Turning Error: From E/W to N/S

A

UNOS (Undershoot North, Overshoot South) - WHAT YOU WANT TO DO WITH THE PLANE

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6
Q

Compass Error: Accel/Decel North and South

A

No Error

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7
Q

Compass Turning Error: From North / From South

A

North: Lags
South: Leads

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8
Q

What is Density Altitude?

A

Pressure Altitude Correcting for nonstandard temperature

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9
Q

Phrase for changes in pressure or temp and effect on altimeter

A

High –> Low, look out below

Low –> High, you’re in the sky

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10
Q

What are AHRS

A

Altitude Heading Reference Systems. Replaced gyroscopic instruments in digital flight computers

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11
Q

What is a TAA?

A

Technically advanced airplane. This means the plane has electronic AFD, MFD w/ GPS, and 2-axis autopilot

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12
Q

What manifold setting should not be used with low rpm on constant speed propellers?

A

High Manifold Pressure

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13
Q

What does increase carburetor heat do to fuel/air mixture?

A

Increases

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14
Q

What does carburetor heat do to engine performance?

A

Decrease

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15
Q

What may happen when crankcase vapor cools?

A

It may condense the lines and freeze

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16
Q

PAPI Low/Med/High angles

A

1.5, 3.0, 3.5

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17
Q

When should you have your landing lights on?

A

Below 10k ft

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18
Q

For ATIS, what ceilings are generally not broadcast above?

A

5k

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19
Q

For ATIS, what visibilities are generally not broadcast above?

A

5 sm

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20
Q

Military Interceptor Squawk Code

A

7777

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21
Q

What is basicMed?

A

Can use your US license instead of medical if used to have one after July 2006, don’t go over 250 kts, 6,000 lbs, carry more than 6 ppl, no flight in class A, and no commercial flying

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22
Q

What is considered a complex airplane?

A

Retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller

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23
Q

What do you need in order to operate a complex airplane?

A

Ground and flight training and endorsement

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24
Q

How often do you need to do a flight review?

A

Every 24 months

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25
Under what conditions do you need to have a parachute in the airplane?
Doing more than 60 degree banks or 30 degree up/down pitch
26
How often do you need to pack a parachute for a flight?
Within 180 days for non-natural, or 60 days for natural
27
Inspections Acronym
``` Annual VOR I00 hour Altimeter pito-static Transponder ELT (System and battery) ```
28
What equipment must be checked every 24 months?
Altimeter Pitot-Static, Transponder
29
How often does the VOR need to be inspected?
Every 30 days
30
How often does the battery on the ELT need to be changed?
Half life or 1 hr cumulative use
31
What inspections need to be done every 12 months?
Annual and ELT System
32
Safety Briefing Acronym
``` Seatbelts Air vents Fire Extinguisher Exits Talking You got questions? ```
33
What always accompanies a thunderstorm?
Lightning
34
Lapse rate for C and F
2 C/1000 ft, 4.4 F per 1000 ft
35
AIRMETS: Sierra
IFR/Mountain Obscurations
36
AIRMETS: Tango
Turbluence
37
AIRMETS: Zulu
Icing
38
What side of the chart lines does class E start at 700 ft?
Soft side
39
What are the equipment requirements of Class A?
2-way radio, Mode C transponder, DME (over FL240), ADSB Out
40
What are the equipment requirements of Class B?
2-way radio, Mode C transponder, ADSB Out, VOR (IFR)
41
What are the equipment requirements of Class C?
2-way radio, Mode C transponder, ADSB Out
42
What are the equipment requirements of Class D?
2-Way Radio
43
Visibility requirements: Class A
NA
44
Visibility requirements: Class B
3SM and COC
45
Visibility requirements: Class C
3SM and 1,5,2
46
Visibility requirements: Class D
3 SM and 1,5,2
47
Visibility requirements: Class E, under 10k MSL
3 SM and 1,5,2
48
Visibility requirements: Class E, over 10k MSL
5 SM and 1,1, 1SM
49
Visibility requirements: Class G, Day, <1200
1, COC
50
Visibility requirements: Class G, Night, <1200
3 SM and 1,5,2
51
Visibility requirements: Class G, Day, >1200 Ft
1 SM and 1,5,2
52
Visibility requirements: Class G, Night, >1200 ft
3 SM and 1,5,2
53
Describe structure of class B airspace
30 SM mode C, 20 SM upper, 10 SM inner
54
Describe structure of class C airspace
5 SM to 1200 ft, 10 SM to 4,000 ft
55
Describe structure of class D
4 SM to 2500 ft
56
Visibility requirements: Class G, >1200 ft AGL AND >10,000 ft MSL
5 SM, 1, 1, 1SM
57
(D) NOTAM
Most NOTAMs are this type
58
FDC NOTAM
Regulations/Charts
59
Pointer NOTAM
To another NOTAM
60
SAA NOTAM
Special Airspace NOTAM
61
Military NOTAM
Military
62
What should your VOR read during a test?
180 + TO
63
What is Absolute Altitude?
AGL
64
What is True Altitude?
MSL
65
What is Pressure Altitude?
Height above standard datum plane of 29.92 in (the indicated altitude when altimeter is set to29.92)
66
What is an ADC?
Air Data Computer; receives Pitot-Static inputs and computes the difference between the total pressure and the static pressure. Supplies the PFD with readings
67
What is the operating principle of float-type carburetors?
The difference in air pressure between the venture throat and the air inlet
68
What is the first indication of carburetor ice on airplanes with fixed-pitch props and float-type carburetors?
Decrease in RPM
69
What is important to make sure when starting an engine by hand?
A competent pilot is at the controls on the flight deck
70
When can you not operate airplane beneath ceiling under VFR within boundaries of Class B, C, D, or E airport during SVFR?
When ceiling is less than 1,000 ft
71
How much ground vis do you need under SVFR to take off, land, or enter the traffic pattern?
3 SM
72
Under what conditions may SVFR be permitted at night?
Only if the pilot has an instrument rating and airplane is IFR equipped
73
How does 14CFR define "Night"
Time between the end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight
74
For currency, what does "night" mean?
One hour after sunset, 1 hr before sunrise
75
What are the aircraft categories for AIRMEN?
Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Lighter-than-air
76
What are aircraft classes for AIRMEN?
Single-Engine Land, Multi-engine land, single-engine sea, multi-engine sea
77
What are the categories for certification of aircraft?
Transport, normal, utility, limited, restricted, acrobatic, provisional
78
What are the classes for certification of aircraft?
Very similar to categories for airmen
79
How long do airworthiness certificates remain in force?
As long as maintenance and alteration of the aircraft are performed per the FAA regulations
80
What is a high performance airplane?`
An airplane with >200 HP
81
At what altitude must all airplane occupants be offered Oxygen?
Above 15k ft
82
At what altitude must pilot and crew use oxygen if operating for more than 30 min?
12,500-14,000
83
At what altitude above which pilot and crew must use supplemental oxygen?
14,000 ft
84
When must an accident be reported to the NTSB?
Immediately if it results in substantial damage
85
What is Aeronautical Decision-Making?
A systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances
86
What is Risk Management?
The par of the decision-making process that relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement to reduce risks associated with each flight
87
What are the four fundamental risk elements in the ADM process?
Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, Mission
88
What do you always get when you fly across a front?
A change in wind direction
89
What is the most easily recognizable change when crossing a front?
A change in temperature
90
What weather condition generally causes the greatest accumulation of structural ice?
Freezing rain
91
What causes ice pellets?
When rain droplets freeze at a higher altitude; freezing rain exists above
92
What conditions produce mountain wave turbulence?
Air is stable and winds of 40k or greater blow across a mountain or ridge
93
When should you expect wind shear?
In a temperature inversion whenever wind speed at 2k to 4k ft AGL is 25kt or more
94
What conditions produce expected wind shear?
Low-level temperature inversions, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence
95
What is dew point?
The temperature at which air will have 100% humidity (be saturated)
96
What determines how much water can be held in the air?
Air temperature
97
What causes advection fog?
Moist air condensing as it moves over a cooler surface
98
METAR vs. SPECI
Routine vs. Nonroutine
99
UA vs. UUA for PIREPs
UA: Routine UUA: Urgent
100
What do convective SIGMETs include?
Tornadoes, Squall lines, embedded thunderstorms, thunderstorm areas > or = intensity level 4 w/ 40% coverage, hail >3/4 in
101
What are the three types of hypoxia?
Hypoxic (insufficient oxygen available), Hypemic (Blood can't take up enough oxygen IE CO poisoning), Stagnant (No circulation IE G-forces), Histotoxic (Inability of cells to use oxygen IE Drugs/alcohol)
102
How to determine overall flight for the day
PAVE (Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, External Pressures)
103
Clear Ice vs. Rime Ice
Clear Ice caused by freezing rain, rime ice via supercooled drops
104
What is always experienced flying across a front?
A change in wind direction
105
AVIATES
Annual (12 mo), VOR (30 days), Inspection (100 hr), Altimeter/Pitot Static (24 Mo), Transponder (24 Mo), ELT (12 Mo)
106
ARROW
Airworthiness Certification, Registration, Radio (intl), Operators Manual (POH), Weight and Balance

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