Chapter 3 - Performance Maneuvers and Safety of Flight Flashcards

(129 cards)

1
Q

What is Navigation?

A

The process of moving from one point of another. This involves knowledge of position, direction, distance, and time.

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2
Q

What are lines of latitude?

A

Circles parallel to the equator

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3
Q

What are meridians of longitude?

A

Circles perpendicular to the equator

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4
Q

What is the angular distance from the equator to one of the poles?

A

90 degrees

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5
Q

Where does the prime meridian pass through?

A

Greenwich, England

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6
Q

How many minutes does each degree of latitude and longitude contain?

A

60

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7
Q

How many minutes do charts show lines of latitude and longitude spaced at?

A

30

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8
Q

What is a course measured from the true North Pole referred to?

A

True course

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9
Q

How many time zones are there in the continental US?

A

Four

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10
Q

What is the name of the standard time used in aviation?

A

Coordinated Standard Time or Zulu Time

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11
Q

What is shorter, a statute mile or a nautical mile?

A

A statute mile

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12
Q

What does one nautical mile distance refer to in terms of location?

A

One minute of latitude at the equator

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13
Q

What is the scale for Sectional Charts?

A

1:500,000. 1 in = 6.86 nm or 8 sm

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14
Q

How often are sectional charts revised?

A

Every 6 months

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15
Q

What do VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC) show?

A

The areas surrounding the busiest airports in the biggest cities

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16
Q

What is the scale for TACs?

A

1:250,000

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17
Q

What is the main difference in detail between Sectional Charts and TACs?

A

TACs are much more detailed

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18
Q

What are the typical elevation intervals for the contour lines on Sectional Charts and TACs?

A

500 ft for sectional, 250 ft for TACs

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19
Q

What colors represent what altitude levels for Charts with regards to terrain?

A

Green for lowest, brown for highest

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20
Q

What is pilotage?

A

Navigation by reference to what you see on the Earth’s surface and matching it to a chart you have in the airplane

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21
Q

What is dead reckoning?

A

When you are flying through a featureless area, you plot a heading/direction and fly through the area until you are past it

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22
Q

What do yellow tinted areas on charts represent?

A

Populated areas

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23
Q

Where can detailed information on airports be found?

A

Chart supplement, US…Aeronautical Charts…Notices to Airmen for updates to publications

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24
Q

What does flashing white and green rotating beacon lights mean?

A

Civilian land airport

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25
What does flashing white and yellow rotating beacon lights mean?
Water airport
26
What does flashing white, yellow and green rotating beacon lights mean?
Heliport
27
What does flashing with two quick white flashes alternating with a green flash rotating beacon lights mean?
Military airport
28
What color lights mark the runway edge?
White
29
What are the three classification of runway edge lights?
High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL), MIRL, LIRL
30
What color lights mark the end of the runway?
Red
31
What do amber lights on an instrument runway indicate?
2000 ft remaining or half the runway, whichever is less
32
What color lights mark the edge of the taxiway?
Blue omnidirectional lights
33
What kind of lights indicate the edge of a runway threshold in the direction of landing?
Green
34
What are Runway End Identifier Lights?
Provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. It consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold.
35
What are three methods uncontrolled airports may use to convey wind direction?
Tetrahedrons, wind tees, wind cones/socks
36
What does 14 CFR Part 91 require landing aircraft to do?
Circle the airport to the left (standard direction) unless approved markings indicate right turns
37
What color are class B and D airspace on Sectionals and TACs?
Blue
38
What color are class C and E boundaries on Sectionals and TACs?
Magenta
39
What color/pattern marks TRSA (Terminal Radar Service Area) on sectional charts and TACs?
Solid black lines
40
How are Special Use areas indicated on Sectional charts and TACs?
Blue or magenta coloration based on the use classification?
41
Describe class A Airspace
Not depicted on Sectional/TACs, Begins at 18,000 ft MSL and goes to 60,000 ft MSL
42
Describe class G airspace
Not depicted on sectional/TACs, is uncontrolled from the surface up to the overlaying controlled class E airspace
43
Describe class E airspace
Depicted on charts with magenta coloring. Starts at surface, 700 ft AGL, 1200 ft AGL, or higher. All airspace above 14,500 ft MSL is class E except areas within 1500 ft AGL
44
Describe class D airspace
Depicted on charts with blue coloring, generally starts at the surface to 2500 ft above airport elevation surrounding airports that have an operational control tower.
45
What class airspace are the primary airports of TRSA?
Class D
46
What is TRSA?
Terminal Radar Surface Area
47
How are TRSA's depicted on VFR sectional and TACs?
A screened black line with altitudes published for each segment.
48
How is Class C airspace depicted on charts?
Magenta coloring
49
Describe Class C airspace
Generally starts at the surface to 4000 ft above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
50
Describe the typical, but not required, shape of class C airspace
5nm radius circle with an outer circle of 10 nm radius that extends from 1200 ft to 4000 ft above airport elevation
51
How is Class B airspace depicted on charts?
Blue coloring
52
Briefly describe class B airspace
Airspace that goes from the surface to 10,000 ft MSL surroudning the nation's busiest airports
53
What is a Special use Airspace (SUA)?
Airspace wherein activities must be confined because of their nature, or wherein limitations are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not part of those activities, or both.
54
Which SUAs are considered regulatory?
Prohibited and restricted areas
55
Which SUAs are considered non-regulatory?
Warning areas, military operations areas, alert areas, and controlled firing areas
56
What information do the chart margins contain about SUAs?
Hours of operation, vertical dimensions, and the name of the controlling agency
57
How are Alert Areas depicted on charts?
With magenta coloring
58
What do Alert Areas mean?
There may be a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity. Pilot's must remain alert while flying in these areas and all activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with CFRs, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance
59
How are prohibited areas depicted on charts?
Blue coloration
60
What is a Prohibited Area?
An area of defined dimensions within which the flight of all aircraft is prohibited
61
How are Restricted Areas depicted on charts?
Identified with blue coloration
62
What is a Restricted Area?
An area within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. They denote the existence of unusual hazards such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles
63
What is a Warning Area?
Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 nm outward from the coast of the US that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.
64
What is a Military Operations Area?
Airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.
65
Can VFR pilots operate within military operations areas?
Yes, but they must exercise extreme caution
66
How can a pilot check the activity status (active/inactive) of an MOA?
Contact any FSS within 100 mils of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation
67
How are Military Training Routes depicted on charts?
Solid gray lines with the route designation printed on the line
68
What are IR and VR Military Training Routes?
IR: Accommodate training flights regardless of weather VR: Only flown in good weather of 5 miles of visibility or more and nothing below a ceiling less than 3,000 ft AGL
69
How are MTRs with no segments above 1500 ft AGl identified?
Four number characters (IR1206, VR1207)
70
How are MTRs that include one or more segments above 1500 feet AGL identified?
Three number characters (IR206, VR207)
71
What are federal airways?
The "highways in the sky" flown by aircraft operating under IFR. They depict radio courses between one or more NAVAIDs
72
What are Federal Airways also known as?
Victor Airways
73
How are Federal Airways/Victor Airways depicted on charts?
Crisscrossing blue lines
74
What type of airspace are Federal Airways considered?
Class E
75
How wide are Federal Airways?
4 nm from their centerlines
76
What are the altitude dimensions of Federal Airways?
Generally 1200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
77
What are Controlled Firing Areas?
Areas that contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft
78
What is the main difference between CFAs and other SUAs?
All activities must be suspended when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area that is not part of the activity
79
How are CFAs depicted on charts?
They aren't, since they do not cause nonparticipating aircraft to change their flightpaths
80
What are Special Conservation Areas?
National parks, wilderness areas, and wildlife refuges indicated by a blue box with dots along the inside border. The US fish and wildlife service requests pilots maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet AGL over these areas
81
What are Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs)?
Regulatory actions issued via the US NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground.
82
What are examples of TFRs?
A disaster or hazard area, an area being visited by the President or other public figure, space flight operations, etc
83
What are the three main guidelines for minimum altitudes
1) Not below an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface 2) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement at under 1,000 ft of the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft of the aircraft 3) Over other congested areas, under 500 feet AGL or within 500 ft of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
84
What is VASI?
Vertical Approach Slope Indicator, a system consisting of two or three bars to indicate glide slope
85
What are Tri-Color Approach Visual Approach Slope Inidicators (tri-color VASIs)?
A single light source projecting a three color beam to indicate relationship to the path
86
What are the color indicators for tri-color VASIs?
``` Red = Below glide slope Amber = Above glide slope Green = On glide slope ```
87
What is PAPI?
Precision Approach Path Indicator; similar to VASI but uses only a single row of lights
88
What is a Pulsating Visual Approach System?
Provides a single, two-color light source to indicate glide slope
89
What are the color indicators for a PVAS?
Steady white = On Path Steady red = slightly below glide path Pulsating white = Too high Pulsating red = Too low
90
When are LAHSO operations put in use?
At tower-controlled airports when multiple runways are in use
91
Does the PIC have the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearances?
Yes
92
Should student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO participate in the program?
No
93
What is the most common cause of engine malfunction or failure?
Fuel contamination or mismanagement
94
What two radio and transponder settings should you use if you need to perform an emergency landing without engine power?
Transmit mayday on 121.5 and Squawk 7700
95
What are two main reasons or indicators to abort the takeoff during takeoff roll?
Abnormal engine sounds or instrument indications
96
What is the first and foremost immediate action step in response to an emergency?
Maintain control of the aircraft
97
What is the chief cause of engine fires?
Over-priming during starting
98
What can eliminate fire hazards during starting?
Proper use of the primer and the use of pre-heat in cold weather
99
What do you do if you suspect a possible engine fire?
Continue cranking the engine with the starter, then once the engine starts, shut it down and inspect for damage
100
How many inches of mercury does air pressure decrease for each 1000 ft gain in altitude?
One inch
101
How should you set the altimeter if current setting is unavailable?
Set it to the ground elevation of the airport
102
What are the two types of information that the VSI displays?
``` Trend = General direction (climbing or descending) Rate = Rate of change in FPM ```
103
What are IAS, CAS, and TAS and what is the difference between them?
Indicated Airspeed = The uncorrected instrument reading read of the ASI Calibrated Airspeed = Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument error True Airspeed = Calibrated airspeed corrected for density error; it's used in flight planning and can be determined from performance charts or calculated with a computer
104
What gyroscopic instruments does the vacuum system power?
Heading and attitude
105
What gyroscopic instruments does the electric system power?
The turn coordinator
106
What is precession with respect to gyroscopes?
The tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force
107
Why will the heading indicator tend to drive after a while?
Due to precession caused by bearing friction
108
What does the turn coorindator indicated?
Rate and direction of turn, NOT bank angle
109
What is the indicator line on the magnetic compass called?
The Lubber Line
110
What causes the most errors of the magnetic compass?
Magnetic dip, caused by lines of magnetic force differing around the earth
111
Under what conditions are magnetic compasses ONLY accurate?
Straight and level, un-accelerated flight
112
What is acceleration error for magnetic compasses?
A type of magnetic dip error caused by the acceleration or deceleration of the aircraft
113
What are the acceleration errors for directions North and South?
ANDS: Accelerate = North, Decelerate = South
114
What are the directions of error for banking errors of magnetic compasses?
When turning from North, compass briefly shows a turn in opposite direction. When turning from South, it will show the correct direction of turn but the rate will be faster than the actual rate of the airplane
115
What is oscillation error of the magnetic compass?
Errors caused by turbulence causing the magnetic compass to move around
116
What is Magnetic Deviation of the magnetic compass?
Magnetic compass errors causing by magnetic fields from the plane's electrical equipment.
117
What is the Compass Correction Card and what is it used for?
The card will show you the amount of Magnetic Deviation at different headings and combinations of electrical equipment in use
118
What does accurate control of airplane attitude require?
1) Can maintain a constant attitude 2) Known when and by how much to change the attitude 3) Can smoothly change the attitude by a definite predetermined amount
119
When is the plane correctly trimmed?
When it is maintaining a constant attitude with all control pressures relieved
120
Generally, when should you adjust trim to relieve control pressure?
Once the airspeed has stabilized
121
What is the only sense that is reliable during flight by instrument reference?
Sight
122
What should you do with reference to the attitude indicator while on the ramp?
Set it for level flight
123
How should instrument scanning generally be structured?
From the attitude indicator out, and then back to the attitude indicator
124
What is the standard rate of turn?
Three degrees per second; 360 degrees in two minutes
125
At cruise airspeed of 110 knots, what is the required bank angle to achieve a standard rate of turn?
18 degrees
126
What is the rule of thumb for determining the lead to roll out on a desired heading?
Half the degree of bank
127
What is the rule of thumb for rate of ascent/descent for correcting for altitude error?
The rate should be about twice the altitude error
128
What is the rule of thumb for what bank angle to use to correct for a heading error?
Same bank angle as number of degrees off; bank to that angle, and return to level
129
In most small airplanes, what is the resulting airspeed change while maintaining level flight when reducing power 150 to 200 rpm?
~10 knots