FAR PART 23, 25, 27 Flashcards
1
Q
Title of 4 CFR ( FAR ) Part 21
A
Certification Procedures for Products and Articles.
2
Q
14 CFR Part 23:
A
Airworthiness Standards: Normal Category Airplanes
3
Q
14 CFR Part 25:
A
Airworthiness Standards: Transport Category Airplanes
4
Q
14 CFR Part 27:
A
Airworthiness Standards: Normal Category Rotorcraft
5
Q
It contains airworthiness standards for airplanes in the normal,
utility, aerobatic, and commuter categories.
A
Part 23
6
Q
It dictates the standards required for issuance and change of type
certificates for airplanes in these categories.
A
part 23
7
Q
the maximum takeoff
weight of an airplane in the normal, utility or acrobatic category cannot
exceed ______-,
A
12,500 lb
8
Q
commuter category it cannot exceed
_______— lb.
A
19,000
9
Q
This part has a large number of regulations to ensure airworthiness in
areas such as structural loads, airframe, performance, stability,
controllability, and safety mechanisms, how the seats must be
constructed, oxygen and air pressurization systems, fire prevention,
escape hatches, flight management procedures, flight control
communications, emergency landing procedures, and other limitations, as
well as testing of all the systems of the aircraft.
A
FAR part 23
10
Q
It also determines special aspects of aircraft performance such as stall
speed, rate of climb, take-off speed, and weight of each pilot and passenger
A
FAR part 23
11
Q
normal category
_ seats (excluding pilot)
MTOW ___________
______ movement
normal flying maneuvering
lazy eights chandelles
steep turn with bank angl with __________ degrees
A
9 or less
12,500 lbs or less
non-acrobatic
less than 60
12
Q
uitility category
_ seats (excluding pilot)
MTOW ___________
______ movement
normal flying maneuvering
lazy eights chandelles
steep turn with bank angl with __________ degrees
A
9 or less
12,500 lbs or less
limited acrobatic
greater than 60 but less than 90
13
Q
acrobatic category
_ seats (excluding pilot)
MTOW ___________
______ movement
A
9 or less
12,500
acrobatic - no-limitations
14
Q
commuter category
_ seats (excluding pilot)
MTOW ___________
______ movement
A
19 or less
19,000 lbs or less
normal
15
Q
except for commuter category, airplanes be certified in more than _ category
A
1
16
Q
This part contains airworthiness standards for airplanes in the transport
category.
A
FAR part 25
17
Q
Transport category airplanes are either:
A
jet, propeller-driven aircraft,
18
Q
*Jets with ___________seats or a maximum takeoff weight (MTOW)
__________ than ___________;
A
10 or more
greater 12,500 pounds (5,670 kg)
19
Q
*Propeller-driven airplanes with_______________ seats or a MTOW ______________________.
A
greater than 19
greater
than 19,000 pounds (8,618 kg)
20
Q
The ____________ and later types, and __________ series, are well-known
airplane types that were certificated to FAR Part 25.
A
Boeing 737
Airbus A300
21
Q
This part contains airworthiness standards for
rotorcraft in the normal category.
A
FAR part 27
22
Q
FAR part 27 contains airworthiness standards for
rotorcraft in the _________ category
A
normal
23
Q
Rotorcraft up to _______– lb Maximum Takeoff Weight
and ____________ are type certified in this part.
A
7,000
9 or fewer passengers
24
Q
Examples of rotorcraft certified in this part are the
A
Schweizer 300 and the Bell 429.
25
Airplane performance levels are:
(1) Low speed - for airplanes with a Vno and Vmo ≤ ___Knots Calibrated
Airspeed (KCAS) and a Mmo ≤ ____.
(2) High speed - for airplanes with a Vno or Vmo > ____ KCAS or a M > ___.
250
0.6
250
0.6
26
meaning of KCAS
Knots Calibrated Airspeed
27
Vno meaning
maximum structural cruising speed
28
Vmo/Mmo meaning
Maximum operating operating limit speed
29
A slope most frequently expressed in terms of altitude gain per 00 feet of horizontal distance whereupon it is stated as a percentage
climb gradient
30
unlike rate of climb, climb gradient is affected by ___
wind
31
The Flight Data Recorder container must:
(1) Have reflective tape affixed to its external surface to facilitate its location under water;
(2) Be either bright green or bright red;
(3) Have an underwater locating device, on or adjacent to the container, which is secured in such manner that they
are not likely to be separated during crash impact
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 and 3 only
32
Approved and installed cockpit voice recorder required by the operating rules of 14 CFR records the following:
a) Voice communications of flightcrew members on the
flight deck, using the airplane's interphone system.
b) Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or
approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker.
c) Voice communications transmitted from or received in
the airplane by radio.
d) Voice communications of flight crew members on the
flight deck.
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
33
TRUE OR FALSE. Continued safe flight and landing means an airplane is capable of continued controlled flight and
landing, possibly using emergency procedures, without requiring exceptional pilot skill or strength. Upon landing,
some airplane damage may occur as a result of a failure condition.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
a) TRUE
34
Certification in this category applies to airplanes with a passenger-seating configuration of 19 or less and a
maximum certificated takeoff weight of 19,000 pounds or less.
a) Utility
b) Acrobatic
c) Normal
d) Commuter
c) Normal
35
What Airplane Certification Level is for airplanes with a maximum seating configuration of 7 to 9 passengers?
a) Level I
b) Level II
c) Level III
d) Level IV
c) Level III
36
Airplane performance levels in a _______ speed - for airplanes with a Vno and Vmo ≤ 250 Knots Calibrated Airspeed
(KCAS) and a Mmo ≤ 0.6.
a) LOW
b) HIGH
a) LOW
37
TRUE OR FALSE. In 14 CFR Part 21, the stall speed or minimum steady flight speed determination must account
for the most adverse conditions for each flight configuration with power set at Idle or zero thrusts for propulsion
systems that are used primarily for thrust.
a) FALSE
b) TRUE
b) TRUE
38
In takeoff performance, for single engine airplanes and levels 1, 2, and 3 low-speed multiengine airplanes, takeoff
performance includes the determination o ground roll and initial climb distance to _______ feet (15 meters) above
the takeoff surface.
a) 40 feet
b) 50 feet
c) 70 feet
d) 60 feet
b) 50 feet
39
The airplane must be controllable and maneuverable, without requiring exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or
strength, within the operating envelope :
a) All of the above
b) At all loading conditions for which certification is requested;
c) With likely reversible flight control or propulsion system failure; and
d) During all phases of flight;
e) During configuration changes.
a) All of the above
40
It is the calibrated airspeed at which, following the sudden critical loss of thrust, it is possible to maintain control of
the airplane.
a) VLOF
b) VD
c) V B
d) VMC
d) VMC
41
The airplane must maintain lateral and directional trim without further force upon, or movement of, the primary flight
controls or corresponding trim controls by the pilot, or the flight control system, under the following conditions:
(1) For levels 1, 2, and 3 airplanes in ________.
(2) For level 4 airplanes in _______________.
a) Landing;
Normal Operations
b) Climb;
Normal Operations
c) Cruise;
Normal Operations
d) Take-off;
Normal Operations
c) Cruise;
Normal Operations
42
The airplane must maintain longitudinal trim without further force upon, or movement of, the primary flight controls or
corresponding trim controls by the pilot, or the flight control system, under the following conditions:
(1) Climb.
(2) Level flight.
(3) Descent.
(4) Approach.
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 1,2,3 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
43
In 14 CFR 23.2145 Stability, Airplanes not certified for aerobatics must have the following except:
a) Provide stable control force feedback throughout the
operating envelope
b) Exhibit any divergent longitudinal stability
characteristic so unstable as to increase the pilot's
workload
c) Have static longitudinal, lateral, and directional
stability in normal operations;
d) Have dynamic short period and Dutch roll stability in
normal operations
e) None of the above
b) Exhibit any divergent longitudinal stability
characteristic so unstable as to increase the pilot's
workload
44
TRUE OR FALSE. For airplanes intended for operation on land or water, the airplane must have controllable
longitudinal and directional handling characteristics during taxi, takeoff, and landing operations.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
c) None of the above
a) TRUE
45
In 14 CFR Part 23, the applicant must determine the limit loads;
(1) which are equal to the structural design loads
(2) which are equal to the limit loads multiplied by a 1.5 factor of safety
(3) which are equal to the limit loads multiplied by a 2.5 factor of safety
a) 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 1 only
e) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
46
With respect to materials and parts used to confine fire in a designated fire zone, means the capacity to withstand at
least as well as steel in dimensions appropriate for the purpose for which they are used, the heat produced when
there is a severe fire of extended duration in that zone.
a) Fireproof
b) Flammable
c) Flame resistant
d) Flash Resistant
e) Fire-resistant
c) Flame resistant
47
With respect to other materials and parts, means the capacity to withstand the heat associated with fire at least as
well as steel in dimensions appropriate for the purpose for which they are used.
a) Fire-resistant
b) Flash Resistant
c) Fireproof
d) Flammable
e) Flame resistant
c) Fireproof
48
It means not susceptible to combustion to the point of propagating a flame, beyond safe limits, after the ignition
source is removed.
a) Fire-resistant
b) Flame resistant
c) Fireproof
d) Flammable
e) Flash Resistant
b) Flame resistant
49
It means not susceptible to burning violently when ignited.
a) Flame resistant
b) Fire-resistant
c) Flash Resistant
d) Flammable
e) Fireproof
c) Flash Resistant
50
With respect to a fluid or gas, means susceptible to igniting readily or to exploding.
a) Fireproof
b) Flash Resistant
c) Flame resistant
d) Fire-resistant
e) Flammable
e) Flammable
51
With respect to fluid-carrying lines, fluid system parts, wiring, air ducts, fittings, and powerplant controls, means the
capacity to perform the intended functions under the heat and other conditions likely to occur when there is a fire at
the place concerned.
a) Flame resistant
b) Flammable
c) Fireproof
d) Fire-resistant
e) Flash Resistant
d) Fire-resistant
52
Airplanes intended for operations on water, must provide buoyancy of_______percent in excess of the buoyancy
required to support the maximum weight of the airplane in fresh water.
a) 70%
b) 80%
c) 20%
d) 50%
e) 30%
b) 80%
53
TRUE OR FALSE. If a pressurization system is installed in the airplane, it must be designed to protect against
decompression to an unsafe level.
a) FALSE b) TRUE
TRUE
54
Each airplane engine and propeller must be type certificated, except for engines and propellers installed on level
_____low-speed airplanes, which may be approved under the airplane type certificate in accordance with a standard
accepted by the FAA that contains airworthiness criteria the Administrator has found appropriate and applicable to
the specific design and intended use of the engine or propeller and provides a level of safety acceptable to the FAA.
a) LEVEL 1
b) LEVEL 3
c) LEVEL 4
d) LEVEL 2
a) LEVEL 1
55
TRUE OR FALSE. Any position lights, if required must include a green light on the left side of the airplane, a red light
on the right side of the airplane, spaced laterally as far apart as practicable, and a white light facing aft, located on
an aft portion of the airplane or on the wing tips.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
b) FALSE
56
For seaplanes or amphibian airplanes, riding lights must provide a ____ light visible in clear atmospheric conditions.
a) Red b) Green
c) White d) Yellow
c) White
57
58
The Airplane Flight Manual must contain the following information
(1) Airplane operating limitations;
(2) Airplane operating procedures;
(3) Performance information;
(4) Loading information; and
(5) Other information that is necessary for safe operation because of design, operating, or handling characteristics.
a) 1, 3 and 5
b) 2 and 4
c) 1,2,3,4 and 5
d) 1,2,4 and 5
c) 1,2,3,4 and 5
59
Which part of the 14 CFR provides information regarding instrument range markings for an airplane certificated in
the acrobatic category?
a) 27 b) 25
c) 21 d) 23
d) 23
60
This part identifies the requirements of and the procedures for obtaining type certificates, supplemental type
certificates, production certificates, airworthiness certificates, and import and export approvals.
a) 27 b) 25
c) 21 d) 23
c) 21
61
Aircrafts certificated under this part represent the greatest portion of what the industry refers to as “general aviation.”
a) 27 b) 29
c) 23 d) 25
c) 23
62
When determining the empty weight of an aircraft, certificated under current airworthiness standards (14 CFR Part
23), the oil contained in the supply tank is considered
a) the same as the fluid contained in the water injection
reservoir
b) empty weight is void until oil is fully drained
c) a part of the empty weight
d) a part of the useful load
c) a part of the empty weight
63
Commuter aircrafts under 14 CFR Part 23 are those aircrafts that have a maximum certificated take-off weight of
_____.
a) 19,000 pounds or less
b) 12,500 pounds or less
c) 7,000 pounds or less
d) 12,500 pounds or more
a) 19,000 pounds or less
64
Normal, utility, and acrobatic category reciprocating engine-powered airplane of more than 6,000 pounds maximum
weight and turbine engine-powered airplanes in the normal, utility, and acrobatic category must have a steady
gradient of climb after takeoff of at least _____.
a) 1.5% b) 5.0%
c) 3.0% d) 4.0%
d) 4.0%
65
14 CFR Part _____ covers the airworthiness standards for normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter category
airplanes.
a) 27 b) 25
c) 23 d) 29
23
66
Normal, utility, and acrobatic aircrafts under 14 CFR Part 23 are those aircrafts that have a maximum certificated
take-off weight of _____.
a) 12,500 pounds or more
b) 12,500 pounds or less
c) 19,000 pounds or less
d) 7,000 pounds or less
b) 12,500 pounds or less
67
What is the maximum certificated take-off weight (kg) of airplanes under the normal, utility, and acrobatic categories?
a) 5670 b) 19000
c) 12500 d) 8615
a) 5670
68
Per 14 CFR 23, which of the following categories may not be type certificated in more than one category?
a) Acrobatic b) Commuter
c) Utility d) Normal
b) Commuter
69
What is the maximum certificated take-off weight (kg) of airplanes under the commuter category?
a) 5670 b) 12500
c) 19000 d) 8615
d) 8615
70
Excluding pilot seats, which among these airplane categories have a maximum seating configuration of nineteen
(19)?
a) Utility b) Acrobatic
c) Commuter d) Normal
c) Commuter
71
Per 14 CFR 23, airplanes that fall under the _____ category are intended for use without restrictions.
a) commuter b) utility
c) normal d) acrobatic
d) acrobatic
72
Excluding pilot seats, which among these airplane categories have a maximum seating configuration of nine (9)?
a) All are correct b) Utility
c) Normal d) Acrobatic
a) All are correct
73
Non-acrobatic operations does not include _____.
a) lazy eights, chandelles, and steep turns, in which the
angle of bank is not more than 60 degrees
b) stalls (except whip stalls)
c) spins
d) any maneuver incident to normal flying
c) spins
74
Airplanes under the _____ category/ies are intended for non-acrobatic operation.
a) normal and commuter
b) normal and utility
c) normal
d) utility
a) normal and commuter
74
What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for a utility category airplane?
a) 190 b) 77
c) 170 d) 86
d) 86
75
What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for a normal category airplane?
a) 170 b) 86
c) 190 d) 77
d) 77
76
What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for an acrobatic category airplane?
a) 170 b) 77
c) 190 d) 86
d) 86
77
What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for a commuter category airplane?
a) 190 b) 86
c) 77 d) 170
c) 77
78
Reciprocating engine-powered airplane having a maximum weight more than 6,000 pounds and turbine engine-
powered airplane under the normal, utility, and acrobatic category must have a steady climb gradient at sea level of
at least _____ with takeoff power on each engine, landing gear retracted, and wing flaps in the takeoff position.
a) 4.0%
b) 1.1%
c) 1.2%
d) 8.3%
e) 6.7%
a) 4.0%
79
Reciprocating engine-powered airplane under the normal, utility, and acrobatic category having a maximum weight
of 6,000 pounds or less must have a steady climb gradient at sea level of at least _____ for landplanes with the
landing gear retracted, wing flaps in the takeoff position, not more than maximum continuous power on each engine,
and a climb speed not less than the greater of 1.1 VMC and 1.2 VS1 for multi-engine airplanes and not less than 1.2
VS1 for single-engine airplanes.
a) 6.7% b) 4.0%
c) 1.2% d) 8.3%
e) 1.1%
d) 8.3%
80
Reciprocating engine-powered airplane under the normal, utility, and acrobatic category having a maximum weight
of 6,000 pounds or less must have a steady climb gradient at sea level of at least _____ for seaplanes and
amphibians with the landing gear retracted, wing flaps in the takeoff position, not more than maximum continuous
power on each engine, and a climb speed not less than the greater of 1.1 VMC and 1.2 vS1 for multi-engine
airplanes and not less than 1.2 VS1 for single-engine airplanes.
a) 4.0%
b) 1.2%
c) 8.3%
d) 6.7%
e) 1.1%
d) 6.7%
81
Which among the following statements is incorrect?
a) Many of these aircrafts are also used to transport
cargo.
b) 14 CFR Part 25 is usually referred to as “commercial
aviation.”
c) None of the above.
d) 14 CFR Part 25 includes most of the aircraft seen at a
large passenger airport, except for the commuter
aircraft included in part 23.
e) The ability to carry passengers is not a requirement
for aircraft certified to Part 25.
c) None of the above.
82
Which part of the 14 CFR applies to large aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off weight of more than 12,500
pounds?
a) 25 b) 29
c) 23 d) 27
25
83
The load distribution limits may not exceed
(1) The selected limits;
(2) The limits at which the structure is proven;
(3) The limits at which compliance with each applicable flight requirement
a) 1 only b) 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3 d) 2 only
c) 1,2 and 3
84
There must be a propeller ground clearance of at least ___ for each airplane with nose wheel landing gear
a) 10 inches b) 9 inches
c) 8 inches d) 7 inches
d) 7 inches
85
There must be a clearance of at least __ inches between each propeller and the water
a) 18 b) 20
c) 22 d) 24
a) 18
86
There must be a propeller ground clearance of at least ___ for each airplane with tail wheel landing gear
a) 10 inches b) 8 inches
c) 7 inches d) 9 inches
d) 9 inches
87
It is the highest weight at which compliance with each applicable requirement of this part is shown.
a) Design Maximum Weight
b) Design Minimum Weight
c) Maximum Weight
d) Minimum Weight
c) Maximum Weight
87
Which part of the 14 CFR deals with the airworthiness standards for normal category rotorcraft?
a) 23 b) 27
c) 25 d) 29
27
88
Normal category rotorcraft has a seating capacity of _____ and a maximum certificated weight of _____.
a) more than nine; less than 7,000 pounds
b) more than nine; more than 7,000 pounds
c) nine or less; less than 7,000 pounds
d) nine or less; more than 7,000 pounds
c) nine or less; less than 7,000 pounds
89
It means an alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications that might appreciably affect
weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities
affecting airworthiness; or
a) Major Repair b) Minor Repair
c) Minor Alteration d) Major Alteration
d) Major Alteration
89
It is the highest weight at which compliance with each applicable structural loading condition of this part (14 CFR
Part 27) is shown.
a) Minimum Weight
b) Maximum Weight
c) Design Maximum Weight
d) Design Minimum Weight
c) Design Maximum Weight
90
It is the lowest weight at which compliance with each applicable requirement of this part (14 CFR Part 27) is shown.
a) Minimum Weight
b) Maximum Weight
c) Design Maximum Weight
d) Design Minimum Weight
a) Minimum Weight
91
It means a repair that, if improperly done, might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance,
powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness.
a) Minor Repair b) Minor Alteration
c) Major Repair d) Major Alteration
c) Major Repair
91
Which among the following is not part of the empty weight?
a) Unusable fuel
b) Potable water, lavatory precharge water, and water intended for injection in the engine
c) Fixed ballast
d) Oil, hydraulic fluid, and other fluids required for normal operation of airplane systems
b) Potable water, lavatory precharge water, and water intended for injection in the engine
92
TRUE OR FALSE. There must be a propeller speed limiting means at the governor. It must limit the maximum
possible governed engine speed to a value not exceeding the maximum allowable r.p.m.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
FALSE
93
TRUE OR FALSE. VSR may be less than a 1-g stall speed.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
FALSE
94
TRUE OR FALSE. VCLMAX is calibrated airspeed obtained when the load factor-corrected lift coefficient
a) FALSE b) TRUE
TRUE
95
In the case of _____________________, the takeoff data must be based on
smooth, dry and wet, hard-surfaced runways
a) seaplanes and amphibians
b) skiplanes
c) landplanes and amphibians
c) landplanes and amphibians
96
In the case of _____________________, the takeoff data must be based on
smooth water.
a) skiplanes
b) seaplanes and amphibians
c) landplanes and amphibians
b) seaplanes and amphibians
97
For ___________ landing distance on land must be determined on a level, smooth, dry, hard-surfaced runway.
a) landplanes and amphibians
b) skiplanes
c) seaplanes and amphibians
a) landplanes and amphibians
97
For ___________ the landing distance on snow must be determined on smooth, dry, snow.
a) skiplanes
b) landplanes and amphibians
c) seaplanes and amphibians
a) skiplanes
98
V2MIN in terms of calibrated airspeed, may not be less than____ V for turbopropeller and reciprocating engine
powered airplanes with more than three engines
a) 1.13 b) 1.10
c) 1.08 d) 1.20
c) 1.08
98
For ___________ the landing distance on water must be determined on smooth water.
a) landplanes and amphibians
b) skiplanes
c) seaplanes and amphibians
c) seaplanes and amphibians
99
V2MIN in terms of calibrated airspeed, may not be less than____ VSR for two-engine and three-engine turbopropeller
and reciprocating engine powered airplanes
a) 1.13 b) 1.10
c) 1.08 d) 1.20
a) 1.13
100
During a closed throttle glide, at VNE (Velocity - Never Exceed), a fixed-pitch propeller may not cause an engine
speed above _____ of maximum continuous speed.
a) 103% b) 100%
c) 110% d) 90%
c) 110%
101
Which regulation provides the airworthiness standards for an airplane certificated in the normal category?
a) 14 CFR Part 21 b) 14 CFR Part 25
c) 14 CFR Part 23 d) 14 CFR Part 27
c) 14 CFR Part 23
102
Which of the following statement is not true regarding pressurized cabin?
a) The must be at least two reverse pressure differential
relief valves to automatically prevent a negative
pressure differential that would damage the structure.
b) The pressure differential is negative when the internal
pressure is greater than the external.
c) The relief valve/s must be large enough so that the
failure of the other/s would not cause an appreciable
rise in the pressure differential.
d) There must be at least two pressure relief valves to
automatically limit the positive pressure differential to
a predetermined value at the maximum rate of flow
delivered by the pressure source.
b) The pressure differential is negative when the internal
pressure is greater than the external.
102
With a governor inoperative, there should be a means to limit the maximum engine speed to _____ of the maximum
allowable takeoff RPM.
a) 110% b) 90%
c) 100% d) 103%
d) 103%
103
An aircraft was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to fly the aircraft
to another maintenance base. Which statement is correct?
a) The aircraft becomes a restricted category type until it
is approved for return to service
b) The aircraft may be flown without restriction up to 10
hours to reach another maintenance base
c) The owner must obtain a special flight permit
d) The aircraft becomes an experimental category type until it is approved for return to service
c) The owner must obtain a special flight permit
104
When an airworthy (at the time of sale) aircraft is sold, the Airworthiness Certificate
a) is returned to the authority for revision subject to
approval
b) is voided and a new certificate is issued upon
application by the new owner
c) is transferred with the aircraft
d) becomes invalid until the aircraft is reinspected and approved for return of service
c) is transferred with the aircraft
105
106
107
(1) A Supplemental Type Certificate may be issued to more than one applicant for the same design change,
providing each applicant shows compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirement
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no
further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the above statements,
a) only No. 1 is true b) only No. 2 is true
c) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 are true d) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
a) only No. 1 is true
108
Specifications pertaining to an aircraft model manufactured under a type certificate, of which less than 50 are shown
on the FAA Aircraft Registry, can be found in the _________.
a) FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Aircraft
Specifications
b) Summary of Discontinued Aircraft Specifications
c) Aircraft Listing
d) FAA Advisory Circular
c) Aircraft Listing
109
The issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by
a) 14 CFR Part 23 b) 14 CFR Part 21
c) 14 CFR Part 27 d) 14 CFR Part 25
b) 14 CFR Part 21
110
The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA-issued aircraft specification:
Normal operating speed 260 knots
Never-exceed speed 293 knots
Maximum landing gear operation speed 174 knots
Maximum flap extended speed 139 knots
The high end of the white arc on the airspeed instrument would be at
a) 139 knots b) 293 knots
c) 174 knots d) 260 knots
a) 139 knots
111
Which of the following is an instance when a special flight permit may not be issued?
a) Delivering or exporting the aircraft
b) Flying the aircraft to a location where repairs or maintenance can be performed
c) Flying passengers on a scheduled operation
d) Flying a customer demonstration flight
c) Flying passengers on a scheduled operation
112
The amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding CG is
a) empty fuel tanks
b) the amount of fuel necessary for 1⁄2 hour of operation
c) undrainable fuel
d) unusable fuel
d) unusable fuel
113
A flight test demonstration of the m brake kinetic energy accelerate-stop distance must be conducted with not more
than ___ percent of the allowable brake wear range remaining on each of the airplane wheel brakes.
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 15% d) 25%
a) 10%
114
At each point along the takeoff path, starting at the point at which the airplane reaches 400 feet above the takeoff
surface, the available gradient of climb may not be less than:
(1) 1.2 percent for two-engine airplanes;
(2) 1.5 percent for three-engine airplanes;
(3) 1.7 percent for four-engine airplanes
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 only d) 1 and 3 only
e) 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
115
The net takeoff flight path data must be determined so that they represent the actual takeoff flight paths reduced at
each point by a gradient of climb equal to
(1) _____ percent for two-engine airplanes;
(2) ____percent for three-engine airplanes; and
(3) _____percent for four-engine airplanes.
a) 0.8
0.9
1.0
b) 0.8
0.7
0.6
c) 0.6
0.7
0.8
d) 1.0
0.9
0.8
a) 0.8
0.9
1.0
115
TRUE OR FALSE. The takeoff flight path shall be considered to begin 35 feet above the takeoff surface at the end
of the takeoff distance determined in accordance with CFR Part 23 Takeoff distance on dry or wet runway as
appropriate for the runway surface condition.
a) FALSE b) TRUE
TRUE
116
TRUE OR FALSE. The takeoff path extends from a standing start to a point in the takeoff at which the airplane is
1,500 feet above the takeoff surface, or at which the transition from the takeoff to the en route configuration is
completed and V is reached, whichever point is higher.
a) FALSE b) TRUE
TRUE
117
The one-engine-inoperative net flight path data must represent the actual climb performance diminished y a
gradient of climb of
(1) ___ percent for two-engine airplanes
(2) ___percent for three-engine airplanes
(3) ___ percent for four-engine airplanes
a) 1.3
1.5
1.7
b) 1.6
1.4
1.1
c) 1.7
1.5
1.3
d) 1.1
1.4
1.6
b) 1.6
1.4
1.1
118
TRUE OR FALSE. The airplane is considered to be out of the ground effect when it reaches a height equal to its
wing span.
a) FALSE b) TRUE
TRUE
119
120
Which denotes the calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible
to maintain control of the airplane?
a) VMC (Minimum control speed)
b) VREF (Landing reference speed or threshold crossing speed)
c) VMCG (Minimum control speed ground)
d) VSSE (Safe single-engine speed)
a) VMC (Minimum control speed)
121
It means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce
thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance
a) V1
b) V2
c) V S1
d) VR
e) VEF
a) V1
121
Which of the following statement is/are true in the phases of takeoff:
(1) Accelerate on the ground to the desired speed
(2) Climb to a minimum height, at a required minimum speed, to clear potential obstacles: 35 feet height for civil
transports
(3) Climb to a minimum height, at a required minimum speed, to clear potential obstacles: 50 feet height for general
aviation and military
a) 2 only b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 nd 3
d) 1, 2 nd 3
122
It is the minimum control speed on the ground, and is the calibrated airspeed during the takeoff run at which, when
the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane using the rudder
control alone.
a) VMCG (Minimum control speed ground)
b) VREF (Landing reference speed or thresholD crossing speed)
c) VSSE (Safe single-engine speed)
d) VMC (Minimum control speed)
a) VMCG (Minimum control speed ground)
123
It is the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane first becomes airborne.
a) VMU
b) VSRO
c) V SO
d) VLOF
e) VNO
d) VLOF
123
It means rotation speed.
a) V1
b) VR
c) V EF
d) VS1
e) V2
b) VR
124
It means takeoff safety speed.
a) VEF
b) V2
c) V 1
d) VS1
e) VR
b) V2
125
It means design speed for maximum gust intensity.
a) VC
b) VB
c) V D
d) VDF/MDF
e) VEF
b) VB
125
It means design maneuvering speed.
a) VDF/MDF
b) VD
c) V C
d) VA
e) VB
d) VA
126
It means reference stall speed.
a) VSR
b) VDF/MDF
c) V D
d) VREF
e) VC
a) VSR
127
It means speed for best rate of climb.
a) VX
b) VDF/MDF
c) V C
d) VD
e) VY
e) VY
127
It means speed for best angle of climb.
a) VTOSS
b) VDF/MDF
c) V Y
d) VX
e) VC
d) VX
128
It means maximum speed in level flight with maximum continuous power.
a) VH
b) VDF/MDF
c) V TOSS
d) VX
e) VY
a) VH
129
It means takeoff safety speed for Category A rotorcraft.
a) VSRO
b) VSO
c) V TOSS
d) V2MIN
e) V2
c) V TOSS
130
_____ means minimum unstick speed.
a) V SRO
b) VNO
c) V 2
d) VMU
e) VS0
d) VMU
131
It means minimum takeoff safety speed.
a) V SRO
b) VS0
c) V 2MIN
d) V2
e) VMCL
e) V2MIN
132
______the minimum control speed during approach and landing with all engines operating, is the calibrated
airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the
airplane with that engine still inoperative, and maintain straight flight with an angle of bank of not more than 5
degrees.
a) VSRO
b) VS0
c) V 2MIN
d) V2
e) VMCL
VMCL
133
The airplane must maintain longitudinal, directional, and lateral trim (and for the lateral trim, the angle of bank may
not exceed five degrees) at 1.3 V during climbing flight with -
(1) The critical engine inoperative;
(2) The remaining engines at maximum continuous power;
(3) The landing gear and flaps retracted.
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only d) 1 only
a) 1,2 and 3
134
For level wing stalls, the roll occurring between the stall and the completion of the recovery may not exceed
approximately ____ degrees.
a) 50 b) 30
c) 40 d) 20
20
134
For turning flight stalls, the maximum bank angle that occurs during the recovery may not exceed approximately
_____degrees in the original direction of the turn, or 30 degrees in the opposite direction, for deceleration rates up
to 1 knot per second.
a) 30 b) 40
c) 60 d) 20
e) 50
60
135
TRUE OR FALSE. For turning flight stalls, the action of the airplane after the stall may not be so violent or extreme
as to make it difficult, with normal piloting skill, to effect a prompt recovery and to regain control of the airplane.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
TRUE
135
Unless otherwise specified, a factor of safety of ______must be applied to the prescribed limit load which are
considered external loads on the structure
a) 2.5 b) 4.5
c) 1.5 d) 3.5
c) 1.5
136
TRUE OR FALSE. The airplane must be demonstrated in flight to be free from any vibration and buffeting that
would prevent continued safe flight in any likely operating condition.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
TRUE
136
Strength requirements are specified in terms of ___________ loads - the maximum loads to be expected in service
and____________ loads - limit loads multiplied by prescribed factors of safety.
a) Ultimate load;
Limit loads
b) Limit loads ;
Ultimate load
b) Limit loads ;
Ultimate load
137
TRUE OR FALSE. The structure must be able to support ultimate loads without failure for at least 3 seconds.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
TRUE
138
TRUE OR FALSE. The structure must be able to support ultimate loads without failure for at least 3 seconds.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
TRUE
139
A positive load factor is one in which the aerodynamic force acts _____ with respect to the airplane.
a) downward b) backward
c) upward d) sideward
c) upward
140
It means design cruising speed.
a) VF
b) VD
c) V C
d) VDF/MDF
141
It means design diving speed.
a) VDF/MDF
b) VD
c) VLE
d) VF
VD
142
It means design flap speed.
a) VFTO
b) VF
c) V FE
d) VLE
b) VF
143
It means maximum speed for stability characteristics.
a) VFC/MFC
b) VLE
c) V FE
d) VFTO
a) VFC/MFC
144
It means maximum flap extended speed.
a) VFTO
b) VLO
c) V FE
d) VLE
c) V FE
145
It means final takeoff speed.
a) VNE
b) VLE
c) VR
d) VFTO
d) VFTO
