Fastidious Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
Genera that belong to the family Pasteurellaceae
A
Haemophilus
Actinibacillus
Pasteurella
Aggregatibacter
2
Q
Known to cause zoonotic infections
A
Pasteurella
Brucella
Francisella
3
Q
Indigenous human flora and have been implicated in cases or bacterial endocarditis
A
Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
4
Q
Characteristics of Haemophilus
A
Non-motile
Facultative anaerobic
Oxidase positive
Catalase positive
Nitrate reductase positive
5
Q
Haemophilus is derived from the Greek word meaning _____
A
Blood-lover
6
Q
Haemophilus sp. obtains X factor from _____ and V factor from _____
A
Blood Agar Plate (BAP)
V factor-producing organisms
7
Q
Other organisms that produces B factor as products of metabolism
A
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria spp.
8
Q
All clinically important Haemophilus species may demonstrate satellitism except for
A
Haemophilus ducreyi
9
Q
Erroneously implicated in the influenza pandemic of 1889-1890
A
H. influenza
10
Q
Has an anti-phagocytic and anti-complementary property
A
Capsule
11
Q
Virulence factos of H.influenzae
A
Capsule
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) proteases
Adherence mechanism
Outer membrane proteins and lipopolysaccharide
12
Q
The serologic grouping of H. influenzae into six antigenically distinct types which are the:
A
A, B, C, D, E, and F
13
Q
Implicated in invasive infections such as meningitis in children.
A
Serotype B
14
Q
An enzyme capable of breaking down secretory IgA that protects the mucosal surfaces
A
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) proteases
15
Q
Lacks adherent properties which explains its tendency to cause systemic infections
A
Serotype B
16
Q
Two patterns of disease under H. influenzae
A
- Invasive and systemic disease by encapsulated strains
- Localized infection by non-typable H. influenzae or NTHi (unencapsulated strains)
17
Q
Examples of invasive disease:
A
Septicemia
Meningitis
Arthritis
Epiglottitis
Tracheitis
Pneumonia
18
Q
Examples of localized infection:
A
Conjunctivitis
Sinusitis
Otitis media with effusion (middle ear infections)
19
Q
Haemophilus influenzae serotype b (Hib) in children
A
Meningitis
20
Q
Rapid onset, acute inflammation, intense edema of the epiglottis
A
Epiglottitis
21
Q
May cause complete airway obstruction
A
Epiglottitis
22
Q
Epiglottitis occurs in children between what ages?
A
2 to 4 years old
23
Q
Life threatening disease in children; Can arise after an acute, viral respiratory infection
A
Bacterial tracheitis
24
Q
Observed in conjunctivitis exudates from Egyptians by Koch in 1883
A
H. aegypticus (Koch-Weeks Bacillus)
25
H. aegypticus is associated with _____
Pinkeye conjunctivitis
26
H. aegypticus is observed in conjunctivitis exudates from Egyptians by _____ in _____
Koch
1883
27
Agent of chancroid (soft chancre), a type of genital ulcer disease
H. ducreyi
28
Infects mucosal epithelium, genital and nongenital skin, and regional lymph nodes
H. ducreyi
29
H. ducreyi incubation period
4 to 14 days
30
Endocarditis of insidious onset. In which no signs and symptoms are seen before becoming apparent
H. parainfluenzae
31
Pharyngitis
H. parahaemolyticus
32
Specimens for Haemophilus spp.
Blood, CSF, middle ear exudate, joint fluids, respiratory tract specimen, swabs from conjunctiva, vaginal swabs, and abscess drainage
33
For the isolation of H. ducreyi, the site should be cleaned with _____ moistened with _____
Sterile gauze
Sterile saline
34
A swab pre moistened with _____ saline is used to collect material from the ulcer
Sterile phosphate buffered saline
35
H. influenza grow on _____
Chocolate Agar Plate (CAP)
36
For respiratory specimens, CAP supplemented with _____ can be used
Bacitracin
37
Milligrams required for bacitracin to be supplemented with CAP
300 mg/L
38
For H. aegypticus and H. ducreyi, CAP is supplemented with _____
1% Iso-VitaleX or Vitox
39
For _____ and _____, CAP is supplemented with 1% Iso-VitaleX or Vitox
H. aegypticus
H. ducreyi
40
Chemical supplements intended to nourish fastidious organisms
Vitox
41
Chocolate agar plate is a commonly used medium incubated between _____ and _____ in an atmosphere of 5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO2)
33 degree Celsius and 37 degree Celsius
42
Chocolate agar plate is a commonly used medium incubated between 33Ā°C and 37Ā°C in an atmosphere of _____ to _____ carbon dioxide (CO2)
5% to 10%
43
In contrast to other species Haemophilus ducreyi grows best at _____
33 degree Celsius
44
In contrast to other species _____ grows best at 33Ā°C
Haemophilus ducreyi
45
Colonies of H. influenzae on CAP appear:
Translucent, tannish, moist, smooth and convex, with distinct odor
46
H. ducreyi appears as:
Small, flat, smooth, nonmucoid, transparent to opaque colonies or appears tan or yellow
47
Capsules of _____ may be observed in gram-stained smears, as clear, non-staining halo surrounding the bacteria
H. influenzae
48
Appear as pale staining gram-negative coccobacilli arranged singly or in groups
H. ducreyi
49
Used to differentiate heme-producing species of Haemophilus
Porphyrin Test
50
Principle of Porphyrin Test
Tests the ability of the organism to convert d-aminolevulinic acid (d-ALA) into porphyrins or porphobilinogens
51
Detection of porphobilinogen is detected by addition of _____
Kovacsā reagent
52
Porphyrins can be detected using an _____ with a wavelength of about 360 nm
Ultraviolet light
53
Porphyrins can be detected using an ultraviolet light with a wavelength of about _____
360nm
54
Risk factors for infective (bacterial) endocarditis include:
Tooth extraction, history of endocarditis, gingival surgery, heart valve surgery, and mitral valve prolapse
55
Found in dental plaque and gingival scrapings
Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
56
Describe the colonies of Aggregatibacter aphrophilus:
Convex, granular, and yellow with an opaque zone near the center on CAP
57
The most frequently isolated member of the HACEK group that is seen in cases of endocarditis.
Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
58
Infected patients of Aggregatibacter aphrophilus typically present with;
Fever, congestive heart failure, and embolism
59
Small bacilli to coccoid gram-negative bacilli that are nonmotile
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
60
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is isolated from:
Blood, lung tissue, abscesses of the mouth and brain
61
Implicated in endocarditis and periodontitis
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
62
An infection of the gums that may exacerbate into destruction of the bones that support the teeth
Periodontitis
63
Pleomorphic, nonmotile, fastidious, gram-negative bacillus
Cardiobacterium hominis
64
Form rosettes or flower like symmetries or patterns agar depression, swellings, long filaments, or sticklike structure in yeast extract
Cardiobacterium hominis
65
Normal flora, of the nose mouth and throat and has been implicated in endocarditis following oral infections or dental procedures
Cardiobacterium hominis
66
Normal flora of the oral cavity and infections, typically occur after trauma such as human bites
Eikenella corrodens
67
Implicated in periodontitis, meningitis, empyema, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, arthritis, and postoperative tissue infections
Eikenella corrodens
68
Fastidious, gram-negative coccobacilli that grows best in increased carbon dioxide with hemin
Eikenella corrodens
69
Eikenella corrodens risk factors:
Poor oral hygiene and oral surgery
70
Members are coccobacillary to short bacilli with squared ends that occur in pairs or short chains
Kingella
71
Grows on Thayer-Martin agar and can resemble Neisseria spp.
Kingella
72
Kingella grows on _____ and can resemble Neisseria spp.
Thayer-Martin agar
73
Kingella grows on Thayer-Martin agar and can resemble _____
Neisseria spp.
74
Associated with bacteremia and abscesses
K. dinitrificans
75
An important pathogen in pediatric population, causing degenerative joint and bone infection or osteoarthritis in children younger than three years
K. kingae
76
Soul glucose non-fermenter
Eikenella corrodens
77
The most common isolate of Pasteurella
P. multocida
78
Describe the colonies of Pasteurella
Gram negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic coccobacilli that appear ovoid, filamentous or as bacilli
79
Pasteurella grows on _____ and _____, but not on _____
BAP and CAP
MAC
80
Produces non hemolytic colonies that may appear mucoid after 24 hours, followed by the production of a narrow green-to-brown halo around the colony after 48 hours, with a characteristic mushroom smell
P. multocida
81
Also known as Undulant fever, Mediterranean, Crimean, and Malta fevers
Brucella
82
Brucella is also known as _____
Undulant fever, Mediterranean, Crimean, and Malta fevers
83
The organism can gain entry to the body through aerosols, percutaneous or oral routes. Transmission through sexual contact and breastfeeding has also been reported.
Brucella
84
There are three stages of brucellosis infection:
1. Acute infection
2. Subchronic or undulant form
3. Chronic form
85
Nonspecific symptoms (such as fever, malaise, headache, anorexia, myalgia, and back pain), occurs within 1-4 weeks of exposure
Acute infection
86
Undulating fevers (characterized by normal temperatures in the morning followed by high temperatures in the afternoon and evening), arthritis, and epididymo orchitis (inflammation of the epididymis and testis).
Subchronic or undulant form
87
Depression, arthritis, and chronic fatigue syndrome. The chronic form commonly manifests 1 year after exposure with symptoms.
Chronic form
88
Four commonly isolated species of Brucella
B. melitensis
B. abortus
B. suis
B. canis
89
The preferred sample for isolation for Brucella spp.
Blood
Bone marrow
90
Capnophilic member of the genus Brucella
B. abortus
91
Implicated in most human infections; the causative agent of tularemia
F. tularensis
92
A zoonotic disease also known as rabbit fever, deer fly fever, lemming fever, and water rat trappersā disease
Tularemia
93
The most common form of the disease is characterized by ulcers at the site of inoculation and enlargement of the regional lymph nodes
Ulceroglandular
94
Appear as small, nonmotile, non-spore forming, gram-negative bacilli or coccoid bacteria that are strictly aerobic
Francisella
95
Agar where Francisella can grow
Chocolate agar, Modified Thayer-Martin, and Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar
96
The infectious dose of Francisella is about _____ making it highly infectious
50 organisms
97
Ubiquitous gram-negative bacilli
Legionella
98
Legionella is responsible for _____ of community acquired pneumonia
2 to 15%
99
Febrile disease with pneumonia
Legionnaireās disease
100
Legionnaireās disease incubation period
2-10 days
101
Characterized by dry cough, fever, headache, and myalgia
Legionnaireās disease
102
Bacteremia, kidney failure, liver disorders, diarrhea, and central nervous system abnormalities can also be present
Legionnaireās disease
103
Incubation period of Pontiac fever
2 days
104
Flu-like symptoms, these include fever headache and myalgia that resolves without medical intervention legionella can be present
Pontiac fever
105
Primary mode of transmission of Legionella
Inhalation of aerosolized water particles
106
Specimens for diagnosis of Legionella spp.
Sputum and bronchial washing
107
Detection of Legionella antigen in urine specimen using radioimmunoassay and enzyme immunoassay. What is this test?
Urine Antigen Test
108
Fluorescein isothiocyanate labeled antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface, and the Ag-Ab complexes are detected using a fluorescent microscope. What is this test?
Direct Fluorescent Antibody test
109
Primary human pathogens of Bordetella
B. pertussis and B. parapertussis
110
Causes whooping cough or pertussis
Bordetella
111
An opportunistic pathogen, causing respiratory and wound infection
B. bronchiseptica
112
Small, gram-negative, aerobic bacilli or coccobacilli
Bordetella
113
Obligate aerobes that grow at 35-37 degrees
Bordetella
114
Bordetella are obligate aerobes that grow at _____
35 to 37 degree Celsius
115
Bordetella spp. that exhibits motility
B. bronchiseptica
116
Virulence factors of B. pertussis and B. parapertussis
1. Filamentous hemagglutinin and pertactin
2. Pertussis toxin
3. Tracheal cytotoxin
117
Used to facilitate attachment to epithelial cell
Filamentous hemagglutinin and pertactin
118
Interferes with signal transduction within cells
Pertussis toxin
119
Promotes cell death
Tracheal cytotoxin
120
Three phases of disease of B. pertussis and B. parapertussis
1. Catarrhal phase
2. Paroxysmal phase
3. Convalescent phase
121
ā Nonspecific signs such as sneezing, cough, runny nose, and conjunctivitis can be present; infection is highly communicable.
- Respiratory distress can be seen in infants
Catarrhal phase
122
Sudden onset of sever, repetitive coughing followed by the characteristic āwhoopā at the end of the coughing spell
Paroxysmal phase
123
Decrease in frequency and severity of coughing spells; patients recover within weeks or months
Convalescent phase
124
ā A human disease with no animal reservoir or vector
ā Acquired through respiratory droplet or direct contact with secretions
ā One of the most highly communicable diseases of childhood
ā Adults may or may not experience respiratory symptoms
Pertussis
125
ā Respiratory tract pathogen of animals including dogs, in which it causes kennel cough
ā Humans can acquire disease, such as those who have contact with animals or the immunosuppressed
B. bronchiseptica
126
Specimen of choice for Brucella spp.
Nasopharyngeal aspirates or swab
