FD BLK I Flashcards
1
Q
VISIBILITY− The ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of ___ Visibility is reported as ___
A
distance, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night
statute miles, hundreds of feet or meters.
2
Q
Prevailing Visibility− ___ which need not necessarily be continuous
A
The greatest horizontal visibility equaled or exceeded throughout at least half the horizon circle
3
Q
Describe the wind as calm when the wind velocity is less than ___ knots.
A
three
4
Q
When the prevailing visibility at the usual point of observation, or at the tower level, is less than __ miles, tower personnel must take prevailing visibility observations and apply the observations as follows
Use the __ of the two observations (tower or surface) for aircraft operations.
A
4
lower
5
Q
Objects in the visibility reference tool must be clearly identified with __ as well as whether the markers are ___ aids
A
distance and direction from the observation point
day or nighttime
6
Q
The most suitable daytime markers are prominent ____; preferably the horizon sky
A
dark or nearly dark colored objects observed against a light-colored background
7
Q
The most suitable nighttime visibility markers are ____. Runway course lights as well as TV/radio/water tower obstruction lights make good markers
A
unfocused lights of moderate intensity
8
Q
Prevailing visibility is observed with ____ from a designated point of observation that permits the weather technician to evaluate the horizon circle at the surface.
A
un-aided vision
9
Q
When wind displays are unavailable, issue ___ contained on the ASOS display. If both are unavailable, issue wind from the ____, prefaced with the term “___.”
A
magnetic wind information
latest weather sequence
“Estimated.”
10
Q
No person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within __ nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than ____, Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC
A
4
200 knots
11
Q
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than ___ knots
A
250
12
Q
Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of___ feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of ___ feet of the aircraft.
A
1,000
2,000
13
Q
Over other than congested areas. An altitude of ___ feet above the surface, except ____. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than __ feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
A
500
over open water or sparsely populated areas
500
14
Q
Each pilot in command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within __ hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.
A
48
15
Q
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other’s _ has the right-of-way
A
right
16
Q
When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the __.
A
right
17
Q
Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the __ to pass well clear.
A
right
18
Q
Rules that govern the procedures for conducting flight under visual conditions
A
VISUAL FLIGHT RULES
19
Q
VFR weather minimums:
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E less than 10,000
Class E at or above 10,000
A
Vis and distance from clouds
B: 3sm, clear of clouds
C: 3sm, 500ft below, 1000ft above, 2,000ft horizontal
D: 3sm, 500ft below, 1000ft above, 2,000ft horizontal
E less than 10,000: 3sm, 500ft below, 1000ft above, 2,000ft horizontal
E at or above 10,000: 5sm 1000ft below, 1000ft above, 1sm horizontal
20
Q
an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless otherwise authorized by ATC
A
On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet
On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet
21
Q
There are five general aviation (GA) airports within 35 NMs of Kingsley Field listed by radial and distance from LMT.
A
Butte Valley (A32) SW,
Malin (4S7) E
Tulelake Muni (O81) SE
Chiloquin State (2S7) NW
Pinehurst State (24S) W
22
Q
The VFR practice area is located __ of Kingsley Field
A
southwest
23
Q
aircraft operating from Kingsley Field conducting multiple IFR or VFR instrument approaches may be issued instructions to execute a locally developed standard climb-out procedure. When issued, this standard climb-out procedure requires pilots to execute the following:
A
5 NMs or more from end of runway: Execute the Kingsley Departure, maintain 9,000’ MSL, and expect radar vectors
Less than 5 NMs from the end of the runway: Execute Kingsley Departure, maintain at or below 5,400’ MSL until departure end, climb and maintain 9,000’ MSL, expect radar vectors.
24
Q
Local Aircraft Priorities. Kingsley Tower will utilize the priorities listed below.
A
Emergencies.
Fire Tanker Aircraft.
Air Carrier/Air Taxi.
Aircraft Carrying Hazardous Materials.
IFR Arrival.
IFR Departure
VFR Arrival.
VFR Departure.
Transient Military Aircraft Operations.
25
Transient aircraft in the category of__ or __ will utilize the west VFR pattern at an altitude, no lower than __ MSL.
Large or heavy
5,400’
26
The breakout can be requested when departing the runway or at any point in the pattern. Pilots who breakout will climb to an altitude _ MSL and exit Class D airspace. Traffic advisories may not be available due to controller limitations; therefore, pilots retain the onus to avoid all other traffic.
at or above 7,500
27
_ are responsible for wake turbulence separation when maintaining visual separation or operating under VFR. When operating under IFR or ATC instructions, _ must ensure standard wake turbulence separation exists.
Pilots
controllers
28
Aircraft will track outbound on the LMT___ radial between ___ (DME) VFR between ___ MSL, or IFR level at block ___ MSL and perform a controlled bailout
200°
17 and 20 Distance Measuring Equipment
6,000 and 14,000’ MSL,
9,300 through 14,000’ MSL
29
173 FW aircraft, ADAIR, and transient military aircraft operating from Kingsley Field conducting multiple IFR or VFR instrument approaches may be issued instructions to execute a locally developed standard climb-out procedure. When issued, this standard climb-out procedure requires pilots to execute the following:
5 NMs or more from end of runway: Execute the Kingsley Departure, maintain 9,000’ MSL, and expect radar vectors.
Less than 5 NMs from the end of the runway: Execute Kingsley Departure, maintain at or below 5,400’ MSL until departure end, climb and maintain 9,000’ MSL, expect radar vectors.
30
for IFR flight. Pilots are reminded that in addition to altitude or flight level requirements, includes a requirement to remain at least __above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of__ nautical miles from the course to be flown.
1,000 feet (2,000 feet in designated mountainous terrain)
4
31
If a published IFR departure procedure is not included in an ATC clearance, compliance with such a procedure is the __
pilot’s prerogative.
32
SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION Ensure supervisor/controller-in-charge (CIC) is aware of conditions which impact sector/position operations including, but not limited to, the following:
Weather.
Equipment status.
Potential sector overload.
Emergency situations.
Special flights/operations.
Aircraft/pilot activity, including unmanned aircraft system (UAS) operation that is considered suspicious, as prescribed in FAA
33
The VFR practice area is located __ of Kingsley Field. . Generally, all aircraft will remain below __ MSL. GA aircraft may use this area at any time. Aircraft departing for the VFR practice area should advise Kingsley Tower and state the altitude(s) at which they will be operating.
southwest
9,000’
34
__Used by ATC or pilots when such
action compliance is required to avoid an imminent
situation.
IMMEDIATELY
35
Used by ATC when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an
imminent situation
EXPEDITE
36
Operational testing of a personnel, emergency, or crash locator beacon may not require a response when the test is conducted within the ___ of the hour and is no longer than three audio sweeps.
first five minutes
37
Kingsley Tower is operational __
0700L–2000L
38
Local Control Freq
133.975/257.8
39
Ground Control Freq
121.9/348.6
40
Atis Freq
126.5/263.0
41
ATIS Include __
PIREPs,
CWAs,
SIGMETs,
AIRMETs,
LLWS/LLWAS,
bird advisories,
braking action advisories/runway condition codes as required. Include other advisories as needed.
42
HAZARDOUS WEATHER INFORMATION FOR THE KLAMATH FALLS AREA AVAILABLE ON ___
Flight service freq 122.6
43
Unless safety of flight or necessity for the control of air traffic dictates otherwise, controllers should avoid transmitting to aircraft in the following critical phases of flight: ___
short final, touchdown, landing roll, departure roll, and initial climb-out.
44
The AOA at Kingsley Field consists of all ___
runways, taxiways, and safety areas
45
When advance information is received regarding an aircraft emergency at Kingsley Field, Kingsley Tower will activate the PCAS when an emergency is declared. The PCAS is connected to ___. __ have transmit and receive capability
173 FW AM, BDOC, and the Fire Department
173 FW AM and BDOC
46
In cases where the PCAS is out of service Kingsley Tower will utilize __ service to contact BDOC.
911
47
Monitor frequency UHF __ on the PET-2000 radio
339.7
48
When a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure, air traffic control is based on ___. The pilot should squawk transponder code __ and proceed
anticipated actions
7600
49
The __ or __ will be the central point for snow removal equipment movement on and off the active runways.
control vehicle or “Frosty 1”
50
a. “Shall” or “must”
b. “Shall not” or “must not”
c. “Should”
d. “May” or “need not”
e. “Will”
a. means a procedure is mandatory.
b. means a procedure is prohibited.
c. means a procedure is recommended.
d. means a procedure is optional.
e. means futurity, not a requirement for the application of a procedure.
51
INTERPHONE TRANSMISSION PRIORITIES Give priority to interphone transmissions as follows:
a. First priority. Emergency messages including essential information on aircraft accidents or suspected accidents.
b. Second priority. Clearances and control instructions.
c. Third priority. Movement and control messages using the following order of preference when possible:
1.Progress reports.
2. Departure or arrival reports.
3. Flight plans.
4. Movement messages on VFR aircraft.
52
PRIORITY INTERRUPTION Use the words __ or __ for interrupting lower priority messages
“emergency” or “control”
53
Ensure supervisor/controller-in-charge (CIC) is aware of conditions which impact sector/position operations including, but not limited to, the following:
a. Weather.
b. Equipment status.
c. Potential sector overload.
d. Emergency situations.
e. Special flights/operations.
f. Aircraft/pilot activity, including unmanned aircraft system (UAS) operation that is considered suspicious
54
If you observe or are informed of any condition which affects the safe use of a landing area:
Relay the information to the airport manager/ military operations office concerned.
55
If you are unable to contact the airport management or operator, issue a NOTAM publicizing an unsafe condition and inform the management or operator as soon as practicable.
Furnish RwyCC, as received from the Airport Operator, to aircraft via the ATIS
56
When the weather is below __ or __ or the___, whichever is greater, issue current weather to aircraft executing an instrument approach if it changes from that on the ATIS or that previously forwarded to the center/ approach control.
1,000 feet or 3 miles
highest circling minimums
57
Headset and intercom use will be utilized in the following situations: __
173 FW operations, controller training, and when determined by the Watch Supervisor (WS) /Senior Controller (SC).
58
When Approach is closed, with the exception of Opposite Direction Operations, Kingsley Tower may provide visual separation within __ (NM) of Crater Lake-Klamath Regional Airport (KLMT), at and ___
20
below 10,000’ MSL
59
“Option Radar” is when an aircraft will conduct a ___
low approach or touch and go, after the completion of an instrument approach then return to Center. When Center coordinates “Option Radar,” Center will assign the Kingsley SID, fly runway heading, and maintain 10,000’ MSL.
60
Center must.
When Approach is closed, forward arrival information to Klamath Tower:
On IFR, Simulated Flameout Procedure (SFO) and practice approach aircraft,
at least ten (10) minutes prior to the aircraft’s airport ETA,
including:
a) Instrument approach procedure, if applicable.
b) Sequence, when necessary.
61
Center must
Instruct arriving aircraft to contact Kingsley Tower at __NM from
the airport.
EXCEPTION: ___
(10)
Instruct VFR 173rd FW aircraft to contact Kingsley Tower at least twenty (20) NM from the airport.
62
Notify Center prior to the aircraft climbing out of the Class D surface area to SFO
High Key and notify Center when the aircraft descends out of High Key. The High
Key block altitude is __
10,000 – 17,000 MSL (see Attachment 2)
63
The successive engagement interval has been determined as __
30 minutes
64
The pilot in command may request termination of the emergency. __ is the final authority on emergency termination.
Fire Command (FC)
65
Tower cab and approach control facilities may opt to broadcast hazardous weather information alerts only when any part of the area described is within __ of the airspace under their jurisdiction
50 NM
66
Minimum Distance Without Final Clearance. Do not continue a radar or radar monitored approach closer than ___miles from touchdown using PAR equipment or __miles from end of runway using ASR equipment without verbal clearance from the tower controller.
three miles
three miles
67
The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centerline of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centerline.
Runway Visual Range [RVR]
68
Procedures for task certified ATC personnel to report changes in tower visibility when it is less than __ and differs from the prevailing visibility by at __
4 SM
least one reportable value
69
issue wind direction and speed from __. When wind displays are unavailable, issue magnetic wind information contained on the __ display. If both are unavailable, issue wind from the __
wind displays
ASOS
latest weather sequence, prefaced with the term “Estimated.”
70
Solicit PIREPs when requested, deemed necessary or any of the following conditions exists or is forecast for your area of jurisdiction:
1. Ceilings at or below 5,000 feet. These PIREPs must include cloud bases, tops and cloud coverage when available. Additionally, when providing approach control services, ensure that at least one descent/climb–out PIREP and other related phenomena is obtained each hour.
2. Visibility (surface or aloft) at or less than 5 miles.
3. Thunderstorms and related phenomena.
4. Turbulence of moderate degree or greater.
5. Icing of light degree or greater.
6. Wind shear.
7. Braking action reports less than good.
8. Volcanic ash clouds.
9. Detection of sulfur gases (SO2 or H2S), associated with volcanic activity, in the cabin.
.
71
Record with the PIREPs:
1.Time.
2.Type aircraft.
3. Aircraft position
4. Altitude.
72
When the PIREP involves icing include:
(a) Icing type and intensity.
(b) Air temperature in which icing is occurring.
73
Wind gust is defined as a __ minute peak wind speed only when the peak exceeds the wind speed lull by __.
10
10 knots or more.
74
Variable wind is defined as a wind direction change of__ degrees or more in the preceding __ minutes, when the wind speed is greater than __ knots
60
2
6
75
Gust spread is defined as the difference between wind speed lull and wind speed peak during the preceding __ minutes.
10
76
Continue the alert to aircraft until it is broadcast on the ATIS and pilots indicate they have received the appropriate ATIS code. A statement must be included on the ATIS for _ minutes following the last report or indication of the wind shear/microburst
20
77
ATIS Include ___
PIREPs, CWAs, SIGMETs, AIRMETs, LLWS/LLWAS,
bird advisories,
and braking action advisories/runway condition codes as required.
Include other advisories as needed.
78
Resume normal ATIS recording operations when weather observation are reduced to the __ and __ special observation per hour.
hourly
one
79
Controllers will receive and issue alerts based on Areas Noted for Attention (ARENA). An ARENA extends on the runway center line from a __ mile final to the runway to a __ mile departure.
3
2
80
BRAKING ACTION Reports:
1. GOOD
2. GOOD TO MEDIUM,
3. MEDIUM,
4. MEDIUM TO POOR,
5. POOR
6. NIL
81
Issue airport condition information necessary for an aircraft’s safe operation in time for it to be useful to the pilot. Include the following, as appropriate:
Braking conditions caused by __
ice, snow, slush, or water.
82
___ may be omitted if a pilot uses the phrase “have numbers.”
Runway, wind, and altimeter
83
“BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES ARE IN EFFECT.”
When tower controllers receive runway braking action reports which include the terms __ the tower will include on the ATIS broadcast the statement
medium, poor, or nil, or whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions,
84
During the time that braking action advisories are in effect, ATC will issue the most recent braking action report for the runway in use to each __ and __ aircraft
arriving and departing aircraft
85
Suspend runway operations when two __ braking action reports are received.
“Poor”
86
Suspend runway operations to any runway in which a braking action of ___ has been received.
“Nil”
87
___ An apparatus used to determine visibility by measuring the transmission of light through the atmosphere. It is the measurement source for determining runway visual range (RVR).
TRANSMISSOMETER
88
Issue both mid-point and roll-out RVR when the value of either is __ and ____ RVR.
less than 2,000 feet
the touchdown RVR is greater than the mid−point or roll−out
89
HAVE NUMBERS− Used by pilots to inform ATC that they have received ___
runway, wind, and altimeter information only
90
Issue current touchdown RVR for the runway(s) in use:
1. ___
2. ___
NOTE− Reportable values are RVR ___ feet or less.
3. When it is determined from a reliable source that the indicated RVR value differs by more than __feet from the actual conditions within the area of the transmissometer, the RVR data is not acceptable and must not be reported
4. ____
1. When prevailing visibility is 1 mile or less regardless of the value indicated.
2. When RVR indicates a reportable value regardless of the prevailing visibility.
6,000
3. 400
4. When the observer has reliable reports, or has otherwise determined that the instrument values are not representative of the associated runway, the data must not be used
91
Reportable values are RVR __ feet or __.
6,000 less
92
Visibilities which are determined to be less than __ miles, identify the obscuring atmospheric condition
7
93
When the prevailing visibility at the usual point of observation, or at the tower level, is less than__ miles, certificated tower personnel will take visibility observations in addition to those taken at the usual point of observation
4
94
The specialist __ must be responsible for ensuring that any pertinent status information of which he/she is aware is relayed to the relieving specialist
being relieved
95
Position relief:
__accepts responsibility for the facility by making an initial entry with the exact time and their operating initials in the remarks section
WS or SC
96
When Kingsley Tower is closed, aircraft, vehicles, and pedestrians are required to make runway crossing broadcasts on the__ to advise any aircraft in the area that a vehicle will be accessing the runway.
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) VHF 133.975
97
173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct Tactical Initials at Kingsley Field. The Tactical Initial is similar to the overhead pattern, but the formation is approximately __apart line abreast, with a simultaneous break.
4,000 to 6,000’
98
Runway __ is the primary calm wind runway. All runway information will be broadcast on the ATIS. Runway __ is the primary instrument runway for the ILS.
14
32
99
Bird Watch Severe
Traffic Pattern.
Takeoffs and landings are prohibited unless approved
by the 173 OG/CC or a greater emergency and/or an immediate
operational necessity dictates a takeoff or landing is made
100
Bird Watch Moderate
Traffic Pattern.
Multiple approach and traffic pattern activity for aircraft
ceases.
101
Advise the RAPCON of the current ___ when the Airfield Automation System (AFAS) is out of service or the RAPCON alarm is not operational
ATIS code, runway in use, type approach, and other pertinent airfield conditions
102
___ determine the runway in use
Kingsley Tower personnel
103
Runway 14/32 is equipped with ___ cables located __ from the approach end of each runway.
BAK-12 Type H cables
1,500’
104
When utilizing the rapidly changing conditions procedures, make a new ATIS recording ____ as a minimum
hourly
105
Rapidly changing conditions:
Resume normal ATIS recording operations when weather observation are reduced to the __ and one special observation per __.
hourly
hour
106
___ balance air traffic demand with system capacity to ensure the maximum efficient utilization of the NAS.
The mission of the traffic management system is to
107
The ATIS recording must be reviewed for___ before being transmitted.
completeness, accuracy, speech rate, and proper enunciation
108
Identify the first resumed broadcast message with “Alpha” or the first assigned alphabet letter word in the event of a broadcast interruption of more than ___hours
12
109
When a pilot is unable to receive the ATIS, issue the current ___.
weather, runway in use, approach/ departure information, pertinent NOTAMs, and airport conditions
110
Terminal facilities must include reported unauthorized laser illumination events on the ATIS broadcast for __ hour following the last report. Include the time, location, altitude, color, and direction of the laser as reported by the pilot.
one
111
a. When a laser event is reported to an air traffic facility, broadcast on all appropriate frequencies a general caution warning every___ minutes for__ minutes following the last report.
five
20
112
When low level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots, Integrated Terminal Weather System (ITWS), or detected on wind shear detection systems:
Continue the alert to aircraft until it is broadcast on the ATIS and pilots indicate they have received the appropriate ATIS code. A statement must be included on the ATIS for __ minutes following the last report or indication of the wind shear/microburst
20
113
When runway braking action reports are received from__ which include the terms __ or whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway conditions, include on the ATIS broadcast the statement “Braking Action Advisories are in effect.”
pilots
“medium,” “poor,” or “nil,”
114
Advise the Airport Operator that runway braking action reports of ___ have been received
“good to medium,” “medium,” “medium to poor,” “poor,” or “nil”
115
Report the BWC as a part of the ATIS message when the condition has been reported as ___ or ____
moderate
severe
116
The __ and/or __ will determine the BWC during 173 FW flying operations
SOF
173 FW AM
117
ATIS broadcasts include: ___
PIREPs, CWAs, SIGMETs, AIRMETs, LLWS/LLWAS, bird advisories, and braking action advisories/runway condition codes as required. Include other advisories as needed.
118
Issue advisory information on pilot-reported, tower-observed, or radar-observed and pilot-verified bird activity. Include position, species or size of birds, if known, course of flight, and altitude. Do this for at least ___ minutes after receipt
15
119
ATIS information includes:
1. Airport/facility name
2. Phonetic letter code
3. Time of the latest weather sequence (UTC)
4. Weather information
5. Present weather
6. Instrument approach and runway in use.
120
Freq's
local
ground
atis
133.975/257.8
121.9/348.6
126.5/263.0
121
(PCAS). Limit agencies with two-way telephones to the ___. Additional agencies may have receive-only capability. (AFMAN)
control tower, AM (or agency responsible for the secondary crash net as required), fire department, and the medical center.
122
when an emergency is declared. The PCAS is connected to ___. ____ have transmit and receive capability.
173 FW AM, BDOC, and the Fire Department.
173 FW AM and BDOC
123
Activate primary crash alarm system (PCAS) when directed by the ___
WS/SC
124
All activations of the primary crash phone, the minimum required information for an inflight/ground emergency is ____
call sign, type aircraft, and nature of emergency
125
Kingsley Field Class D airspace extends from the surface up to and including __ MSL within a __ NM radius.
6,600’
5.4
126
Class E extensions:
The northwest extension is along the LMT 332° radial, 1.8 NMs each side, to 9.6 NMs.
The southeast extension is along the LMT 171° radial, 3.5 NMs east and 1.8 NMs west to 7.4 NMs.
127
The segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix or the point where the aircraft is established on the intermediate course or final approach course.
Initial Approach
128
The segment between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach fix.
Intermediate Approach
129
Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ).
centered on the extended runway centerline, beginning at the runway threshold, 200 feet long and 800 feet wide with an Obstacle Clearance Surfaces (OCS) directed toward the final approach course
130
The fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed and which identifies the beginning of the final approach segment
FINAL APPROACH FIX
131
The segment between the final approach fix or point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point.
Final Approach
132
AF Form 651
Hazardous Air Traffic Report (HATR)
133
Active strips are sequenced from
___ to reflect the arrival sequence.
top to bottom
134
IFR Departure strip
Blocks: 6, 7, 8, 9.
6. Proposal time
7. Requested alt
8. Dept. Airport
9. Route of flight
135
IFR Arrival strip
Blocks: 6, 7, 8, 9.
6. Previous Fix
7. Coordination Fix
8. Arrival time
9. Alt
136
IFR Arrival strip
Blocks: 10 13 16. 11 14 17. 12 15 18.
Type of APCH
Type of landing
Landing or completion of APCH
137
IFR Departure Block 9a:
Place an “LD” for all IFR aircraft issued the Kingsley Departure. “FH”
followed by a vector may be used to indicate “Fly Heading.” Place an “M” (maintain
symbol) followed by the assigned altitude.
138
IFR Departure Block 9c:
Mark the appropriate frequency/channel and a large “B” to indicate the
clearance has been broadcasted to the pilot.
139
IFR Departure Block 10, 11:
10: Departure RWY
11: Release time
140
Flight strip on VFR arrival block 8
Initial call up time for arrivals.
141
b. Assign the runway/s most nearly aligned with
the wind when __, or the “calm wind”
runway when less than ___
5 knots or more
5 knots
142
The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is ___
10,000’ MSL
143
IFR
Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: Opposite direction arrivals will not
proceed closer than __ final until the first aircraft has crossed the landing threshold
for a full stop landing.
10 NM
144
VFR
Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: The arriving aircraft must cross
landing threshold prior to the opposite direction arrival reaching___ mile final.
2
145
The transfer of position responsibility must be
accomplished in accordance with the “__ and __
each time operational responsibility for a position is
transferred from one specialist to another
“Standard
Operating Practice (SOP) for the Transfer of Position
Responsibility,”
appropriate facility directives
146
VFR aircraft are __ automatically authorized to execute the missed approach
procedure. This authorization must be specifically requested by the__ and approved by
__.
not
pilot
ATC
147
Radar separation services for VFR aircraft are not provided unless ___
executing
practice instrument approaches
148
Overhead Pattern Entry Procedures. 173 FW and ADAIR pilots maintain__
MSL or above, weather conditions permitting. Descend to ___ MSL no later than __ NM
from the __ end of runway. Aircraft may be vectored to a 3-10 NM
initial upon request.
7,500’
5,900’
3
approach
149
bomb threat
If the threat is general in nature,
handle it as a “___
“Suspicious Activity.”
150
At least 3 things ATC will do in event of a bomb threat__
1. Advise the pilot of the threat.
2. Inform the pilot that technical assistance can.
be obtained from an FAA aviation explosive expert.
3. Ask the pilot if he/she desires to climb or
descend to an altitude that would equalize or reduce
the outside air pressure/existing cabin air pressure
differential
151
Bomb threat:
advise other aircraft to
remain clear of the suspect aircraft by at least
__ yards if able.
100
152
Variable vis
If the prevailing visibility rapidly increases and decreases
by 1/2 mile or more during the time of the observation, and the average prevailing visibility is
less than 3 miles, the visibility is considered to be variable.on
153
Less than the marker
Test question
154
The cutoff distance utilized for aircraft inbound to a runway reciprocal to the advertised runway is __ NM from the runway threshold. Once an arriving aircraft reaches __ NM from runway threshold, all IFR opposing departures must be suspended, unless an emergency exists.
five (5)
five (5)
