LC BLK I & II Flashcards
1
Q
a. Use the word ____ only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.
A
“immediately”
2
Q
Use the word____ only when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an
imminent situation.
A
“expedite”
3
Q
Vehicles may operate in the RSA up to the runway edge as long as the ___ IAW FAA JO 7110.65, Air Traffic Control, but not in the ___.
A
aircraft and vehicle are given an advisory
over or underrun areas
4
Q
Personnel, vehicles, and equipment must be removed from the __ and __ prior to an arriving aircraft crossing the threshold of the underrun and prior to an aircraft starting a __ phase.
A
over underruns
departure
5
Q
If a pilot insists upon utilizing a runway with personnel and/or vehicle(s) in the RSA, Kingsley Tower will ___
A
provide an advisory to the aircraft and the personnel and/or vehicle(s).
6
Q
In the event the full runway remains open, ___ retains the option to instruct all personnel and equipment to exit the RSA, or to permit limited operations if the controller determines that air and ground operations will not be adversely impacted (not applicable to air carrier aircraft)
A
Kingsley Tower
7
Q
___is responsible for issuing a NOTAM following the coordination, and before construction work begins.
A
Klamath Falls Airport Manager
8
Q
If the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft callsign, radio communications___ been established and the pilot may not enter the Class D airspace.
A
have not
9
Q
If the controller responds to an initial radio call ___ then radio communications have been established and the aircraft may enter the Class D airspace.
A
using the aircraft callsign,
10
Q
LC must ___ of the runway not released or it is assumed GC has full runway access to include crossings.
A
restrict crossings
11
Q
The primary purpose of the ATC system is to ___ involving aircraft operating in the system.
b. In addition to its primary purpose, the ATC system also:
2.
A
prevent a collision
Provides a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.
Supports National Security and Homeland Defense missions.
12
Q
Air Traffic Control services are not provided for model aircraft operating in the NAS or to any UAS operating in the NAS at or below ___ AGL.
A
400ft
13
Q
Give first priority to ___ as required in this order.
A
separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts
14
Q
Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a ___ basis as circumstances, except:
a. An ___ has the right of way over all other air traffic.
A
“first come, first served”
aircraft in distress
15
Q
The ATCT ___determines which runway/s are designated RUNWAY IN USE/ACTIVE RUNWAY/DUTY RUNWAY.
A
supervisor/controller−in−charge (CIC)
16
Q
Assign the runway/s most nearly aligned with the wind when __ knots or more, or the ___ runway when less than 5 knots unless:
Use of another runway is operationally advantageous.
A
5
“calm wind”
17
Q
___ personnel determine the runway in use
A
Kingsley Tower
18
Q
___is the primary calm wind runway. All runway information will be broadcast on the ATIS. ___ is the primary instrument runway for the ILS.
A
Runway 14
Runway 32
19
Q
The intent of LUAW is to ___
A
position aircraft for an imminent departure.
20
Q
When an aircraft is authorized to line up and wait, inform it of the closest traffic within __−flying miles requesting a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop− and− go, option, or unrestricted low approach to the same runway.
A
6
21
Q
____ authorize an aircraft to line up and wait when the ___, unless the aircraft’s position can be verified by ASDE or the runway is used for departures only.
A
Do not
departure point is not visible from the tower
22
Q
___ aircraft at a time is permitted to line up and wait on the same runway.
A
Only one
23
Q
Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at anytime when ___.
Do not authorize aircraft to simultaneously line up and wait on the same runway, between sunrise and sunset, unless ___
A
the intersection is not visible from the tower
the local assist/local monitor position is staffed.
24
Q
When two or more aircraft call the tower ready for departure, one or more at the full length of a runway and one or more at an intersection, state the ___ of the runway when clearing that aircraft for takeoff.
Phraseology-
A
location of the aircraft at the full length
(ACID) RUNWAY (number), FULL LENGTH, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.
(ACID) RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator) CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.
25
Whenever a runway length has been temporarily or permanently shortened, state the word ____ as part of the takeoff clearance. This information must be issued in conjunction with the takeoff clearance.
PHRASEOLOGY− RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF
PHRASEOLOGY− RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator) INTERSECTION DEPARTURE SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.
“shortened” immediately following the runway number
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator) INTERSECTION DEPARTURE SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.
26
When issuing a clearance to land, first state the ___ . If the landing runway is changed, controllers must preface the landing clearance with ___. Controllers must then restate the runway number followed by the landing clearance.
PHRASEOLOGY−
runway number followed by the landing clearance
“Change to runway” followed by the runway number
PHRASEOLOGY− RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND.
Or
CHANGE TO RUNWAY (number, RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND.
27
Facilities without a safety logic system or facilities with the safety logic system inoperative or in the limited configuration must not clear an aircraft for a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option, or unrestricted low approach when___ The landing clearance may be issued once the aircraft in position has started __
a departing aircraft has been instructed to line up and wait or is holding in position on the same runway.
takeoff roll.
28
Inform the closest aircraft that is requesting a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option, or unrestricted low approaches when ___
Phraseology-
there is traffic authorized to line up and wait on the same runway.
“Delta One, Runway One−Eight, continue, traffic holding in position.”
29
Whenever a runway length has been temporarily or permanently shortened, state the word ___ as part of the landing clearance. This information must be issued in conjunction with the landing clearance.
PHRASEOLOGY−
“shortened” immediately following the runway number
RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED TO LAND.
30
If landing clearance is temporarily withheld, insert the word “shortened” immediately after the runway number to advise the pilot to continue.
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CONTINUE.
31
Anticipating separation must not be applied when conducting __operations, except as authorized in paragraph 3−10−5c2.
LUAW
32
When an arriving aircraft reports at a position where he/she should be seen but has not been visually observed, advise the aircraft as a part of the landing clearance that it is __ and restate the landing runway.
PHRASEOLOGY−
not in sight
NOT IN SIGHT, RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND.
33
Runway exiting or taxi instructions should not normally be issued to an aircraft prior to, or immediately after,___
touchdown.
34
Provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent only upon __ and other factors including limitations of radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion, and workload.
higher priority duties
35
Helicopter
Unless agreed to by the pilot, do not issue downwind takeoffs if the tailwind __
exceeds 5 knots.
36
− A technique to direct aircraft out of the approach stream. In the context of simultaneous (independent) parallel operations, a breakout is used to direct threatened aircraft away from a deviating aircraft.
BREAKOUT
37
Tower controller acknowledges and issues a verbal landing, touch-and go, stop and go, low approach or for the option clearance when the aircraft is no closer than __ miles, from touchdown or end of runway.
3
38
If the controller responds to the initial radio call __, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class D airspace.
without using the aircraft callsign
39
The ___ may waive runway inspections for 173 FW aircraft only.
173 FW SOF
40
If a military aircraft is disabled on the runway, ___ shall advise Kingsley Tower of the estimated length of time required to remove the aircraft and reopen the runway
the SOF or designated military representative, Klamath Falls Airport Manager, or designated representative,
41
LANDING CLEARANCE WITHOUT VISUAL OBSERVATION
Aircraft observance on the CTRD __
satisfies the visually observed requirement.
42
ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH A low approach with an altitude restriction of not less than __feet above the airport may be authorized except over ___ Do not clear aircraft for restricted altitude low approaches over personnel unless airport authorities have advised these personnel that the approaches will be conducted.
500
an aircraft in takeoff position or a departure aircraft.
43
ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH
The __ feet restriction is a minimum. Higher altitudes should be used when warranted. For example, 1,000 feet is more appropriate for super or heavy aircraft operating over unprotected personnel or small aircraft on or near the runway.
500
44
ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH
This authorization includes altitude restricted low approaches over __ Restricted low approaches are not authorized over __
preceding landing or taxiing aircraft.
aircraft in takeoff position or departing aircraft.
45
Do not issue ___ that are dependent upon the movement of an arrival aircraft on or approaching the runway or a departure aircraft established on a takeoff roll
conditional instructions
46
Do not issue __instructions when authorizing movement on a runway/taxiway for the purpose of airfield checks or other airport operations.
unconditional
47
issue the official ceiling and visibility, when available, to a departing aircraft before takeoff as follows:
1. To a __ aircraft when weather is below VFR conditions.
2. To an __aircraft when weather is below VFR conditions or highest takeoff minima, whichever is greater.
VFR
IFR
48
When the aircraft is about __ mile beyond the runway end, instruct civil aircraft, and military transport, and cargo types to contact departure control, provided further communication with you is not required.
1/2
49
Before Takeoff:
Inform all departing IFR military turboprop/turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to __
change to departure control frequency.
50
USAF. When an aircraft is cleared for takeoff, inform it of the closest traffic within _ miles on final approach to the same runway. If the approaching aircraft is on a different frequency, inform it of the departing aircraft.
6
51
If a pilot advises Kingsley Ground that the Kingsley Departure procedure is not available and requests that it be provided, controllers will ensure the__
required climb gradient and lost communications procedure is included.
52
There are other textual departure procedures published for runways 14, 32 and 26. There is no departure procedure for runway _. Any of these textual departure procedures may be issued by ATC as part of the ATC clearance if pilot compliance is necessary to ensure separation.
8
53
If a published IFR departure procedure is not included in an ATC clearance, compliance with such a procedure is the__
pilot’s prerogative.
54
All other aircraft departing, making multiple approaches, or requesting closed traffic will be instructed to maintain at or below __ until departure end of the runway when necessary to protect the overhead pattern.
5,400
55
VFR aircraft __ automatically authorized to execute the missed approach procedure.
are not
56
Pilots who request __ are considered a flight.
“sequential closed traffic”
57
Transient aircraft in the category of__ will utilize the west VFR pattern at an altitude, no lower than 5,400’ MSL.
Large or Heavy
58
AIRCRAFT CLASSES− For the purposes of Wake Turbulence Separation Minima, ATC classifies aircraft as ___ as follows:
___ The Airbus A-380-800 (A388) and the Antonov An-225 (A225) are classified as super.
− Aircraft capable of takeoff weights of 300,000 pounds or more whether or not they are operating at this weight during a particular phase of flight.
− Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight, up to but not including 300,000 pounds.
− Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less maximum certificated takeoff weight.
Super, Heavy, Large, and Small
Super.
Heavy
Large
Small
59
___ to any aircraft if in your opinion, wake turbulence may have an adverse effect on it. When traffic is known to be a Super aircraft, include the word Super in the description. When traffic is known to be a Heavy aircraft, include the word Heavy in the description.
Issue cautionary information
60
SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION Separate a departing aircraft from a preceding departing or arriving aircraft using the same runway by ensuring that it does not begin takeoff roll until:
When only Category I aircraft are involved− __ feet.
When a Category I aircraft is preceded by a Category II aircraft− __ feet.
When either the succeeding or both are Category II aircraft− __ feet.
When either is a Category III aircraft− ___ feet.
5. When the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter,___ may be applied in lieu of using distance
3,000
3,000
4,500
6,000
visual separation
61
___small single−engine propeller driven aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less, and all helicopters.
___small twin−engine propeller driven aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less.
___all other aircraft.
CATEGORY I
CATEGORY II
CATEGORY III
62
The use of tower-applied visual separation is not authorized when ____.
wake turbulence separation is required
63
VFR aircraft must be separated from all VFR/IFR aircraft which weigh 19,000 pounds or less by a minimum of:
500 feet vertical separation, or
Visual separation,
64
Separate VFR aircraft from IFR aircraft by any one of the following:
Visual separation
500 feet vertical separation
65
Pilots are responsible for ___ when maintaining visual separation or operating under VFR. When operating under IFR or ATC instructions, ___ must ensure standard wake turbulence separation exists.
wake turbulence separation
controllers
66
WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION FOR INTERSECTION DEPARTURES
Apply the following wake turbulence criteria for intersection departures:
Separate a small aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less taking off from an intersection on the same runway (same or opposite direction takeoff) behind a departing small aircraft weighing more than 12,500 lbs. by ensuring that the aircraft does not start takeoff roll until at least __ minutes after the preceding aircraft has taken off.
3
67
Separate a small aircraft taking off from an intersection on the same runway (same or opposite direction takeoff) behind a departing large aircraft (except B757) by ensuring that the aircraft does not start takeoff roll until at least __ minutes after the preceding aircraft has taken off.
3
68
Separate aircraft taking off behind a departing or landing aircraft on an intersecting runway if flight paths
will cross
Heavy, large, or small behind super − _ minutes.
Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − _ minutes.
3
2
69
Pilot requests to deviate from the required time intervals must ___ if the preceding aircraft requires wake turbulence separation
not be approved
70
Give first priority to___ as required in this order.
separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts
71
Separate an aircraft behind another aircraft that has departed or made a low/missed approach when utilizing
opposite direction takeoffs or landings on the same or parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet by the
following minima:
Heavy, large, or small behind super − __ minutes.
2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − __ minutes
4
3
72
Separate a small aircraft behind a large aircraft (except B757) that has departed or made a low/missed
approach when utilizing opposite direction takeoffs on the same runway by__ minutes unless a pilot has initiated
a request to deviate from the time interval. In the latter case, issue a ___
clearing the aircraft for takeoff. Controllers must not initiate or suggest a waiver of the time interval.
3
wake turbulence cautionary advisory before
73
Inform aircraft when it is necessary to hold in order to provide the required time interval.
PHRASEOLOGY−
HOLD FOR WAKE TURBULENCE.
74
Transient aircraft in the category of Large or Heavy will utilize the west VFR pattern at an altitude, no lower than___ MSL.
5,400’
75
The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is ___ MSL, with the standard turn (break) to the west. An east break may be requested by the pilot or directed by the tower.
The Combat Initial reporting point is located between 3 to 10 NMs from the approach end of the runway. Pilots will break at the departure end of the runway making a 180° turn to downwind and begin descent reaching ___ MSL at rollout.
10,000’
5,900’
76
173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct TAC 90 arrivals. Pilots will enter the pattern at the “Gap” between ___ MSL. No other entry point is authorized. Pilots will enter the downwind between___ MSL
5,900’ MSL and 10,000’
5,900’ MSL and 6,500’
77
RSRS standards are not authorized:
During any situation involving an ___
During any situation involving an aircraft ___or ___
During any situation involving an aircraft ___ behind a ___
During any situation involving an aircraft ___ behind a ___.
When the runway condition reading (RCR) is less than 14 or braking action reports of fair or less are received.
Anytime an aircrew member or air traffic controller determines safety of flight may be jeopardized. In these cases, appropriate separation standards as per the FAA JO 7110.65 will be applied.
emergency aircraft.
“Cleared Stop and Go.”
“Cleared Low Approach” “Touch-and-Go.”
“Cleared Touch-and-Go” full stop
78
The RSRS is ___ feet minimum separation for:
Similar fighter-type aircraft (except F-35A aircraft) for:
Full stop (FS) behind FS, low approach (LA) or touch-and-go (TG).
LA behind LA, or FS.
TG behind TG, or LA.
3,000
79
Formation landings in trail (not holding hands).
3.43.8.2. 6,000 feet minimum separation for:
3.43.8.2.1. Formation landings (holding hands).
3.43.8.2.2. Dissimilar fighter-type aircraft and F-35A fighter-type aircraft is 6,000 feet minimum in all cases.
3.43.9. Nighttime Standards. During night operations, RSRS is 6,000 feet minimum
80
issue traffic advisories to all aircraft (__ or __) on your frequency when, in your judgment, their proximity may diminish
to less than the applicable separation minima
VFR IFR
81
Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait when___
the departure point is not visible from the tower
82
Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at anytime when the intersection ___
is not visible from the tower.
83
When aircraft are authorized to line up and wait on runways that intersect, ___ must be exchanged between that aircraft and the aircraft that is authorized to line up and wait, depart, or arrive to the intersecting runway(s).
traffic
84
Traffic Patterns:
Closed/Overhead
Conventional
Light Aircraft/Helicopter
5,900
5,400
4,900
85
A standard formation is one in which a proximity of no more than __ mile laterally or longitudinally and within __ feet vertically from the flight leader is maintained by each wingman.
1
100
86
Kingsley Field Class D airspace extends from the surface up to and including 6,600’ MSL (2,500’ Above Ground Level [AGL]) within a 5.4 NM radius
87
Unless alternate instructions have been issued, IFR aircraft are automatically authorized to ___ depicted for the instrument approach being flown.
execute the published missed approach
88
Issue cautionary information to any aircraft if in your opinion, wake turbulence may have an adverse effect on it. When traffic is known to be a Super aircraft, include the word Super in the description. When traffic is known to be a Heavy aircraft, include the word Heavy in the description.
89
Except for super or heavy aircraft, __ feet vertical separation may be applied between VFR aircraft
and between a VFR and an IFR aircraft.
500
90
VFR aircraft must be separated from VFR/IFR aircraft/ helicopter/rotorcraft that weigh more than 19,000 pounds and turbojets by no less than:
1 ½ miles separation
2. 500 feet vertical separation, or
3. Visual separation,
91
1. Between a SVFR helicopter and an arriving or departing IFR aircraft:
(a) 1/2 mile. If the IFR aircraft is less than 1 mile from the landing airport.
(b) 1 mile. If the IFR aircraft is 1 mile or more from the airport.
92
1 mile between SVFR helicopters. This separation may be reduced to 200 feet if:
(a) Both helicopters are departing simultaneously on courses that diverge by at least 30 degrees and:
(1) The tower can determine this separation by reference to surface markings; or
(2) One of the departing helicopters is instructed to remain at least 200 feet from the other.
93
Do not assign a fixed altitude when applying vertical separation, but clear the SVFR aircraft at or below an altitude which is at least _ feet below any conflicting IFR traffic but not below the _ prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.119.
500
MSA
94
The MSAs are:
(a) Over congested areas, an altitude at least ___ feet above the highest obstacle, and
(b) Over other than congested areas, an altitude at least__ feet above the surface.
(c) ___ may be operated at less than the minimum altitudes prescribed in (a) and (b) above.
1,000
500
Helicopters
95
Opposite Direction Traffic.
3.30.1. IFR Operations.
3.30.1.1. Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: Opposite direction arrivals will not proceed closer than 10 NM final until the first aircraft has crossed the landing threshold for a full stop landing.
3.30.1.2. Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Departure: The departure aircraft must be airborne and turned out on radar vectors on a course of at least 45° of course divergence, prior to the opposite direction arrival reaching 10 NM final.
3.30.1.3. Opposite Direction Departure vs. Arrival: The opposite direction departure must be airborne and turned out on radar vectors on a course of at least 45° of course divergence prior to an arriving aircraft reaching 10 NM final.
96
Wake Turbulence application:
Separate aircraft taking off from the same runway
Heavy, large, or small behind Super -__ minutes
Heavy, large, or small behind Heavy - __minutes
3
2
97
Do not approve a pilot's requests to waive wake turbulence for___
Super or heavy aircraft
98
In the event of a missed approach involving a turn, unless otherwise cleared, the pilot ___ before starting that turn
will proceed to the missed approach point
99
Provide current landing information, as appropriate, to arriving aircraft. Landing information contained in the ATIS may be omitted if the pilot states ___
The appropriate ATIS code.
100
What is the correct phraseology to issue an aircraft a safety alert ___
Traffic alert ____
101
When information is received from any source that a bomb has been placed on, in, or near an aircraft for
the purpose of damaging or destroying such aircraft, notify your ___.
If the threat is general in nature, handle it as a ____
supervisor or the facility air traffic manager
“Suspicious Activity.”
102
When it is impractical or if the pilot takes an alternative action; e.g., parking and off-loading immediately, advise other aircraft to remain clear of the suspect aircraft by at least __ yards if able.
100
103
SURFACE AREA RESTRICTIONS
a. If traffic conditions permit, approve a pilot’s request to cross Class C or Class D surface areas or exceed the Class C or Class D airspace speed limit.
Do not, however, approve a speed in excess of ____ unless the pilot informs you a higher minimum speed is required.
250 knots
104
Closed traffic crosswind legs that are turned before the departure end of the runway are considered___ and shall be requested by the pilot and subject to tower approval. PHRASEOLOGY– ___
non-standard maneuvers
“PRESENT POSITION CLOSED TRAFFIC APPROVED, REPORT (additional information as req.).”
105
Pilots who request___ are considered a flight.
“sequential closed traffic”
106
If a pilot requires a climb to above 5,400’ MSL before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a___ on departure.
“Quick Climb”
107
Tactical Initial. 173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct Tactical Initials at Kingsley Field. The Tactical Initial is similar to the overhead pattern, but the formation is approximately ___ apart line abreast, with a simultaneous break.
4,000 to 6,000’
108
The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is __MSL, with the standard turn (break) to the west. An east break may be requested by the pilot or directed by the tower.
10,000’
109
TAC 90 Arrival Procedure.
173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct TAC 90 arrivals. Pilots will enter the pattern at the “Gap” between ___ MSL. No other entry point is authorized. Pilots will enter the downwind between ___ MSL
5,900’ MSL and 10,000’
5,900’ MSL and 6,500’
110
Provide _____to civil air ambulance flights when the pilot, in radio transmissions, verbally identifies the flight by stating “MEDEVAC” followed by the FAA authorized call sign or the full civil registration letters/numbers.
priority handling
111
Provide aircraft engaged in the flight inspection of NAVAIDs with ___. Unless otherwise agreed to, maintain direct contact with the pilot and exchange information regarding known traffic in the area and his/her intentions.
maximum assistance
112
Provide ____ as required, to FAA aircraft conducting flight inspections using the call sign “Flight Check.” The call sign “Flight Check (Nr) recorded” indicates automated flight inspections are in progress in terminal areas.
special handling,
113
Direct a general warning signal, alternating red and green, to aircraft or vehicle operators, as appropriate, when:
a. Aircraft are converging and a collision hazard exists.
b. Mechanical trouble exists of which the pilot might not be aware.
c. Other hazardous conditions are present which call for intensified pilot or operator alertness.
114
If radio communications have not been (re) established with the aircraft after __ minutes, consider the aircraft’s or pilot’s activity to be suspicious and report it to the OS/CIC per FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 7, Procedures for Handling Suspicious Flight Situations and Hijacked Aircraft, and paragraph 2−1−26f, Supervisory Notification, of this order.
5
115
When a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure, air traffic control is based on ___
anticipated actions.
116
When notified by the pilot of an RA, the controller is___ from issuing traffic advisories and safety alerts.
not prohibited
117
The runway(s) involved in an emergency situation will have operations suspended upon touchdown of the emergency aircraft for all arrivals and departures. Operations will remain suspended until resumption is authorized/inspection accomplished by the ___
incident Commander,
Crater Lake-Klamath Falls Airport Manager,
or designated representative
118
If the estimated suspension/closure of runway 14/32 is expected to exceed __ minutes Kingsley Tower shall broadcast the suspension/closure over 243.0. The intention is to ensure 173 FW aircraft are aware of the runway condition.
ten
119
Information
requirements will vary, depending on the existing situation. Minimum required information for inflight
emergencies is:
1. Aircraft identification and type.
2. Nature of the emergency.
3. Pilot’s desires.
120
Use of the term ___ indicates recognition by a pilot that his/her fuel supply has reached a state where, upon
reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue delay.
“minimum fuel”
121
___ handling to civil air ambulance flights when the pilot, in radio transmissions, verbally
identifies the flight by stating “MEDEVAC” followed by the FAA authorized call sign or the full civil registration
letters/numbers.
Provide priority
122
Consider an aircraft to be overdue and initiate the procedures stated in this section to issue an ALNOT when
neither communications nor radar contact can be established and __ minutes have passed since:
1. Its ETA over a specified or compulsory reporting point or at a clearance limit in your area.
2. Its clearance void time.
3. A VFR or IFR aircraft arriving at an airport not served by an air traffic control tower or flight service
station fails to cancel a flight plan after receiving instructions on how to cancel.
30
