FLT BLK I

Question 1

Initial tower rating will be issued to Apprentice controllers who successfully.

Answer 1

complete SEI requirements

Question 2

The __ will ensure the trainee meets the requirements of CFETP/STS and local requirements. Accomplish the knowledge evaluation by using examiner-developed tests that ensure comprehensive CFETP/AF Form __ coverage based on the objectives set in the PCG

Answer 2

DE, Form 797

Question 3

The ________________ have the authority to revoke the ______________ of a controller whose control practices demonstrate a hazard to flying safety.

Answer 3

AOF/CC, CCTLR, NSE, and ANSE
position certifications

Question 4

A CTO facility rating may be suspended by a _________, when the controller’s performance of required duties adversely affects the facility efficiency, aviation safety, or at any time for just cause

Answer 4

facility chief, Designated Examiner, or higher authority

Question 5

______________ are conducted on controllers who have had ratings revoked as a result of a demonstrated hazard to flying safety or suspended due to a lack of proficiency.

Answer 5

Special evaluations

Question 6

Only the____may conduct special evaluations on controller’s whose ratings were revoked as a result of flying safety.

Answer 6

DE

Question 7

Lack of proficiency. A______ must recertify controllers with suspended ratings of ____ calendar days or more

Answer 7

DE 270

Question 8

Lack of proficiency. A __ or __ may perform a special evaluation for certifications suspended less than ____ calendar days.

Answer 8

WS DE 270

Question 9

____ must ensure the tower contains: (11 items)

Answer 9

CCTLR, current on base emergency management grid map, Airport diagram, visibility checkpoint charts, current sunrise/sunset table, diagram of the airfield lighting system, wake turbulence chart, FLIP, location and frequency of each navaid, RIF, RRF.

Question 10

_____It establishes procedures to ensure standardization of all flying and airfield/flight line activities at Kingsley Field.

Answer 10

13-204

Question 11

The ______ determines BWCs throughout the day by line of sight observations of wildlife activity around the airfield environment to include immediate approach and departure corridors.

Answer 11

177 OG SOF

Question 12

How does Bird Watch Condition MODERATE affect traffic pattern?

Answer 12

Multiple approach and traffic pattern activity for aircraft ceases. A departure and full stop landing are allowed if the departure and approach route avoids identified wildlife activities. Simulated Engine Out and chase procedures for currencies and check rides are not permitted

Question 13

Bird Watch Condition SEVERE

Answer 13

Traffic Pattern. Takeoffs and landings are prohibited unless approved by the 173 OG/CC or a greater emergency and/or an immediate operational necessity dictates a takeoff or landing is made (e.g. minimum fuel, in-flight emergency, contingency mission, etc.).

Question 14

Define Class D airspace

Answer 14

Class D airspace extends upward from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower.

Question 15

the Kingsley Field Class D airspace extends from the surface up to and including ___’ MSL (2,500’ Above Ground Level [AGL]) within a ___ NM radius.

Answer 15

6,600’, 5.4 NM

Question 16

The two Class E extensions are:

Answer 16

1. northwest extension is along the LMT 332° radial, 1.8 NMs each side, to 9.6 Nm.
2. southeast extension is along the LMT 171° radial, 3.5 NMs east and 1.8 NMs west to 7.4 NMs

Question 17

What are the 5 adjacent airports (ID, name, direction from LMT)

Answer 17

Butte Valley A32 SW
Malin 4S7 E
Tulelake Muni O81 SE
Chiloquin State 2S7 NW
Pinehurst State 24S W

Question 18

The AOA at Kingsley Field consists of all ________

Answer 18

runways, taxiways, and safety areas

Question 19

The following locations are considered part of the AOA: _______

Answer 19

Runway 14/32, Runway 8/26, Taxiways A, B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, F, G, H, K, and associated safety areas

Question 20

Runway ____ is the only runway designated for use by heavy aircraft. Taxiways ____ are the only taxiways designated for use by heavy aircraft.

Answer 20

14/32

B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, G, K, and F (between runway 14/32 and taxiway G)

Question 21

If a pilot requires a climb to above ___’ MSL before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a ____

Answer 21

5,400
“Quick Climb” on departure

Question 22

Hung ordnance includes _____ Kingsley Tower will activate the PCAS after notification of any hung ordnance.

Answer 22

stores that fail to jettison or a gun that runs away, jams, or fails to fire.

Question 23

Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at ____ until emergency personnel have responded.

Answer 23

taxiway G hammerhead

Question 24

Gun Malfunctions: After landing, aircraft will de-arm at the south end of ______. When landing _____, aircraft will back taxi on the runway to the ____ end

Answer 24

runway 32 at the hammerhead on G pointing south.
aircraft will back taxi on the runway to the south end

Question 25

aircraft shall proceed to the hot brake area located on taxiways ___ and notify Kingsley Tower as soon as possible

Answer 25

taxiways C or G at the approach end of runway 14/32

Question 26

The arm/de-arm areas are located on _______

Answer 26

north and south ends of runway 14/32, taxiway C on the north end and the hammerhead area on taxiway G on the south end

Question 27

RWY length?

Answer 27

14/32 10302x150 7/25 5258x100

Question 28

Taxiways (A, C, D, E, G, and K)____wide

Answer 28

75 feet Taxiways

Question 29

Taxiways (B, B1, B2, B3 and F)_____wide

Answer 29

50 feet Taxiways

Question 30

Taxiway (H)_____wide

Answer 30

35 feet Taxiway

Question 31

Field elevation

Answer 31

4095ft

Question 32

Runway ____ is equipped with 1,400 foot ____. Runway ____ is equipped with _____.

Answer 32

14/32, medium intensity approach lighting sequenced flashers system with high intensity runway lights. 8/26, medium intensity runway lights.

Question 33

If a pilot requires a climb to above_____ before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a ____ on departure.

Answer 33

5,400’ MSL “Quick Climb”

Question 34

Runway ___ is the primary calm wind runway. Runway ___ is the primary instrument runway for the ILS.

Answer 34

14 32

Question 35

Hung Ordinance. - Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at ___ until emergency personnel have responded.

Answer 35

taxiway G hammerhead

Question 36

In any case where hot brakes are suspected or confirmed, aircraft shall proceed to the hot brake area located on ____ and notify Kingsley Tower as soon as possible.

Answer 36

taxiways C or G at the approach end of runway 14/32

Question 37

The arm/de-arm areas are located on north and south ends of ___ on the north end and the hammerhead area on __ on the south end

Answer 37

14/32, taxiway C taxiway G

Question 38

Emergency and civilian aircraft with __ cargo will be directed to park on the __ arm/de-arm end of runway __

Answer 38

explosive south 14/32

Question 39

Pattern altitudes: SFO: Combat initial (Overhead) Overhead/Closed Outside Downwind Conventional Light Aircraft/Helo (WX Minimums)

Answer 39

SFO High Key 100-170 Locw Key 70-90 Combat initial 100 Overhead/Closed 5,900 Outside downwind 6,500 Conventional 5,400 Light Aircraft/Helo 4,900

Question 40

173 FW and ADAIR pilots will maintain at or below __ until ___ during all departure phases of flight

Answer 40

5,400 departure end of runways

Question 41

The Tactical Initial is similar to the overhead pattern, but the formation is approximately ____ apart line abreast, with a simultaneous break.

Answer 41

4,000 to 6,000’

Question 42

TAC 90 Arrival Procedure. Pilots will enter the pattern at the “Gap” between ___. No other entry point is authorized. Pilots will enter the downwind between ___

Answer 42

5,900’ MSL and 10,000’ 5,900’ MSL and 6,500’ MSL

Question 43

Victor Airways and fixes

Answer 43

V25 N SPRAG V25 S MUREX V122 NE V122 W LANKS V452 SE TULIP V452 NW MIXUP

Question 44

Controlled Bailout

Answer 44

Aircraft will track outbound on the LMT 200° radial between 17 and 20 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) VFR between 6,000 and 14,000’ MSL, or IFR level at block 9,300 through 14,000’ MSL and perform a controlled bailout

Question 45

External Stores Jettison Procedures

Answer 45

Situation permitting, aircraft will track outbound on the LMT 200° radial at 17 to 20 DME. Aircraft will jettison at 1,000’ AGL in VMC and at 9,300 to 14,000’ MSL in IMC.

Question 46

Hung Ordinance Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at ___until emergency personnel have responded.

Answer 46

taxiway G hammerhead

Question 47

Gun Malfunctions: After landing, aircraft will de-arm at ___When landing runway 32, aircraft will backtaxi on the runway to the south end.

Answer 47

the south end of runway 32 at the hammerhead on G pointing south.

Question 48

Hot Brakes In any case where hot brakes are suspected or confirmed, aircraft shall proceed to the hot brake area located on___

Answer 48

taxiways C or G at the approach end of runway 14/32 and notify Kingsley

Question 49

Arm/De-Arm Areas, Hazardous Cargo and Hydrazine Parking Procedures. The arm/de-arm areas are located on __

Answer 49

north and south ends of runway 14/32, taxiway C on the north end and the hammerhead area on taxiway G on the south end.

Question 50

the secondary hazardous cargo area at the __

Answer 50

approach end of runway 26.

Question 51

Aircraft and vehicle access to the ILS critical area must be controlled to ensure the integrity of ILS course signals whenever the official weather observation is __

Answer 51

a ceiling of less than 800 feet or visibility less than 2 miles.

Question 52

What Category is the LMT ILS?

Answer 52

CAT 1

Question 53

Kingsley Tower will evacuate to the ___ for sustained winds of ___

Answer 53

base building of the control tower 80 knots or more

Question 54

Kingsley Tower will evacuate to the ___ for natural or man-made destruction, fire, and bomb threat

Answer 54

270 ATCS

Question 55

The __ opening the facility must complete all equipment checks, as applicable, prior to officially opening the facility.

Answer 55

WS/SC

Question 56

Use __ or suitable substitute to document all abnormal conditions and occurrences during each shift in the airfield operations facilities

Answer 56

AF Form 3616

Question 57

____, USAF Hazard Reports as soon as possible and forward a copy to 173 FW/SEG, and Klamath Falls Airfield Management after a controlled movement area violation has occurred on the airfield

Answer 57

AF 457

Question 58

______, Position Log. Position logs, Attachment 4, are required for LC, GC, and FD positions for each day of the week. Position logs will be initiated at the beginning of the day, normally,.

Answer 58

AF Form 3626

Question 59

______Equipment Outage Log. This form, (Attachment 3), will be used to record all equipment outages other than those related to the building (elevator, water fountain, etc.).

Answer 59

AF Form 3624,

Question 60

____, Daily Traffic Count (Suitable Substitute). This facility is responsible for daily, monthly, and quarterly traffic count reports to both the FAA and ANG

Answer 60

AF Form 3623

Question 61

When a bomb threat is received by phone, attempt to obtain the information contained in WS RRF and ____, Bomb Threat Aid.

Answer 61

AF Form 440

Question 62

VFR reporting points and direction

Answer 62

Malin SE Keno W Modoc N Olene E

Question 63

The areas of the CMA that require no coordination from ATCT are ___

Answer 63

Taxiways A, C, D, E, G, K, and F (between D and rwy 14/32 VFR hold line)

Question 64

What is the VHF/UHF Freqs for Local, Ground, and ZSE 10?

Answer 64

Local: 133.975/257.9 Ground: 121.9/348.6 ZSE 10: 127.6/346.35

Question 65

The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is ____’ MSL, with the standard turn (break) to the ____. An east break may be requested by the pilot or directed by the tower.

Answer 65

10,000 west

Question 66

The Combat Initial reporting point is located between ____ nautical NMs from the approach end of the runway

Answer 66

3 to 10

Question 67

TAC 90 arrivals. Pilots will enter the pattern at ____ between ___.

Answer 67

the “Gap” 5,900’ MSL and 10,000’ MSL.

Question 68

A TAC 90 will normally be conducted by a flight of __ aircraft but can be conducted by _____

Answer 68

two a single aircraft or up to a flight of four aircraft

Question 69

Protection of the 360 Overhead Pattern. 173 FW and ADAIR pilots will maintain at or below ___ until _____ during all departure phases of flight

Answer 69

5,400 departure end of runways

Question 70

Jet route altitudes range from FL ____ to FL ____.

Answer 70

180 to 450