FINAL Flashcards
1
Q
Identify and describe the four kinds of information that sensory inputs transmit (special senses)
A
TYPE - Hearing, smell, taste etc
INTENSITY - Strength of stimulus (decides which fibers respond, how many respond and how fast they are responding)
LOCATION - Where is it located? arm, finger etc
DURATION - How long does the stimulus last? (how long does it take you to adapt? clothes on skin, smell in a room etc)
2
Q
Identify and describe the classifications of receptors by stimulus modality. What do they each respond to?
A
Thermoreceptors - temperature
Photoreceptors - light
Nociceptors - pain
Chemoreceptors - chemicals
Mechanoreceptors - physical pressure
3
Q
Identify the name and number of the cranial nerve(s) involved in olfaction
A
Olfactory Nerve (I)
4
Q
Identify the three auditory ausicles
A
Malleus
Incus
Stapes
5
Q
What window does he stapes cover?
A
Oval Window
6
Q
What is the function of the Organ of Corti?
A
Has hairs (stereocilia) that converts vibration to nerve signals as they open up potassium channels
7
Q
How is loudness determined within the ear?
A
The vibrations
- Soft sounds are associated with low vibrations
- Loud sounds are associated with higher vibrations
8
Q
How is pitch determined within the ear?
A
The length or distance of the vibrations within the basilar membrane
- High pitch is at the closer end of the basilar membrane
- Low pitch is at the further end of the basilar membrane
8
Q
Describe linear acceleration and its associated structures
A
A change in velocity in a straight line detected by the saccule and utricle
9
Q
Describe angular acceleration and its associated structures
A
A change in rate of rotation detected by the semicircular ducts
9
Q
Identify the components of the fibrous layer of the eye
A
Sclera
Cornea
10
Q
Identify the tunics of the eye in order from most superficial to least superficial
A
Fibrous Layer -
Vascular Layer -
Neural Layer -
10
Q
Identify the components of the vascular layer of the eye
A
Choroid
Iris
Ciliary Body
(ChIC)
11
Q
Identify the components of the neural layer of the eye
A
Retina
Beginning of the Optic Nerve
12
Q
Identify and describe the common causes of blindness
A
Cataracts - Clouding of the lenses
Glaucoma - Result of pressure within the eye and damage to cells and the optic nerve
Macular Degeneration - Death of receptor cells in the retina
Diabetic Neuropathy - Caused by diabetes which affects the retinal blood vessels
12
Q
What is the clinical term for normal vision?
A
Emmetropia
12
Q
What is the clinical term for farsightedness? Nearsightedness?
A
Hyperopia
Myopia
13
Q
What is an astigmatism?
A
An eye disorder caused when the lens or cornea is curved more steeply in one direction than another
14
Q
What are the two photoreceptors? What type of vision are they both responsible for?
A
Rods - Night Vision, Shades of Gray
Cones - Day Vision, Color
15
Q
What causes color blindness?
A
Lack of Cones in the eye that help process color (day vision)
16
Q
Identify the name and number of the cranial nerve(s) involved in vision
A
Optic Nerve (II)
17
Q
Exocrine vs Endocrine Glands
A
Exocrine - have ducts and EXTERNAL secretions
Endocrine - Lack ducts, INTERNAL secretions have affects on the internal mechanisms of a cell
18
Q
List the 8 hormones produced by the hypothalamus
A
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone
Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone
Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone
Somatostatin
Corticotropin Releasing Hormone
Oxytocin
Antidiuretic Hormone
19
Q
What 2 hormones are stored in the posterior pituitary? What are their functions?
A
Oxytocin - Stimulate labor contractions and milk release
Antidiuretic Hormone - Retain water in the kidneys
ON AVERAGE
20
List the 6 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland
Adrenocorticotropic H.
Thyroid Stimulating H.
Follicle Stimulating H.
Growth H.
Luteinizing H.
Prolactin
ALL THE FAT GIRLS LIKE PIZZA
21
HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
Anterior Pituitary
Stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids
22
HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
Anterior Pituitary
Stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland
23
HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Follicle Stimulating Hormone
Anterior Pituitary
Stimulates secretion of femal sex hormones and sperm production
24
HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Growth Hormone
Anterior Pituitary
Stimulates mitosis and growth
25
HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Luteinizing Hormone
Anterior Pituitary
Stimulates ovulation and testosterone secretion
"LOT"
26
HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Prolactin
Anterior Pituitary
Stimulates mammary glands to synthesize milk
27
Identify and describe the three homeostatic imbalanaces associated with Growth Hormon
Gigantism - Hyperecretion in children
Acromegaly - Hypersecretion in adults
Pituitary Dwarfism - Hyposecretion in children
28
HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Parathyroid Hormone
Parathyroid Gland
Increases blood calcium by taking it out of the bone
29
What is the fuction of the adrenal medulla?
It is an endocrine gland and a main center for the sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight)
30
What types of hormones are released from the adrenal medulla? What are the two specific hormones? What is their function?
Catecholamines: Epinephrine, Norepinephrine
Increase alertness and prepare body for physical activity; decrease digestion and urine production
31
Identify the three layers of the adrenal cortex (outer to inner), what types of hormones they secrete, and their function
Zona Glomerulosa - Mineralocorticoids - regulate electrolyte balance
Zona Fasciculata - Glucocorticoids and Androgen
Zona Reticularis - Glucocorticoids and Androgen - Regulate metabolism
32
How do glucagon and insulin work?
Glucagon - Glucose out of the cell
Insulin - Glucose in the cell
33
Water vs Lipid Soluble Hormones
Water Soluble - Cannot Enter the Cell (by simple mechanism), likes being outside of the cell
Lipid Soluble - Can Enter the Cell
34
Identify and describe the three modes of hormone secretion
Neural Stimuli - Within the nervous sytem, brain
Hormonal Stimuli - Hormones causing other hormones to be released
Humural Stimuli - Stimuli from blood
35
Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Insulin Resistance, treated with healthy diet or physical activity
36
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Autoimmune disorder that destroys and causes low levels of insulin
37
What are the formed elements of blood?
Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Thrombocytes
38
Define Hematocrit. How can it be affected (identify three)?
The total volume of whole blood that is red blood cells
Hydration
Blood Loss
Production Issues
Gender Differences (lower values in women)
39
What stem cell gives rise to all formed elements of blood?
Hemocytoblasts
40
What molecule in hemoglobin binds to oxygen? How many oxygen molecules can one hemoglobin molecule carry?
Iron
4
41
What is the term for erythrocyte production? What hormone controls this?
Erythropoiesis
Erythropoietin
42
What is Polycythemia? What are some causes?
Excess amount of RBCs that increase blood viscosity making it thicker and sticky
- Bone Marrow Cancer
- When minimal oxygen is available (high altitudes)
- Erythropoietin production increase
43
Identify and describe the types of anemia that result from insufficient erythrocytes
Hemorrhagic Anemia - Bleeding
Hemolytic Anemia - RBC destruction
Aplastic Anemia - Inability to form RBC
44
Identify and describe the types of anemia that result from low hemoglobin content
Iron-deficiency Anemia - Iron deficient
Pernicious Anemia - Deficiency of vitamin B12
45
Hypoxemia vs Hypoxia
Hypoxemia - Low Oxygen in Blood
Hypoxia - Low Oxygen going to Tissues
46
What antigens are on the surface of RBCs for each blood type?
A - Antigen A
B - Antigen B
AB - Antigens A AND B
O - NONE
47
What are the antibodies within the plasma for each blood type?
A - Antibody B
B - Antibody A
AB - NONE
O - Antibody A AND B
48
What pathogens do each of the five leukocytes respond to?
Neutrophils - Bacteria
Lymphocytes - Viruses
Monocytes - Bacteria
Eosinophils - Parasitic Worms
Basophils - Allergies
BVBPA
49
What is thrombocytopenia?
Deficiency of thrombocytes (platelets)
50
Identify and briefly describe the three steps of hemostasis
Vascular Spasm - Constiction of Blood Vessels
Platelet Plug Formation -
Coagulation (Blood Clotting) - Reinforcing the plug
51
Identify and describe the phases of blood clotting
- Factor X forms Prothrombin Activator
- Prothrombin Activator forms Thrombin
- Thrombin causes fibrinogen to form a fibrin mesh
52
What is hemophilia?
A family of hereditary diseases where the patient cannot form blood clots
53
What is the goal of the pulmonary circuit?
Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs for gas exchange and back to the heart
54
What is the goal of the systemic circuit?
Supplies oxygenated blood to all tissues of the body and returns it to the heart
55
What are the two circuits?
What side are they each associated with?
Does it deal with oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?
Pulmonary Circuit - Right
Deoxygenated Blood
Systemic Circuit - Left
Oxygenated Blood
LORD
56
Identify the three layers of the pericardium from most to least superficial (outside to inside). Where is serous fluid found?
- Fibrous Pericardium
- Parietal Layer
- *Serous Fluid* (Pericardial Cavity)
- Visceral Layer (Epicardium)
57
Identify and describe the layers of the heart wall from most to least superficial (from outside in)
Epicardium - Directly covers the heart and has coronary blood vessels traveling through it
Myocardium - Cardiac muscle. Fibrous skeleton anchors muscle fibers
Endocardium - Inner lining of the heart and blood vessles
58
What is the goal of the SL Valves?
SL Valves prevent backflow of blood into the right and left ventricle
59
List the pathway of blood through the heart
1 - Superior + Inferior Vena Cava, Coronary Sinus
2 - Right Atrium
3 - Tricuspid Valve
4 - Right Ventricle
5 - Pulmonary Valve
6 - Pulmonary Arteries
7 - Lungs
8 - Pulmonary Veins
9 - Left Atrium
10 - Mitral Valve
11 - Left Ventricle
12 - Aortic Valve
13 - Aorta
5-8 VALV
60
List the order of the cardiac conduction system
SA Node
AV Node
Bundle of His
Bundle Branches
Purkinje Fibers
61
Systole
Heart Contraction
62
Diastole
Heart Relaxation
63
What is a the absolute refractory period?
Compared to skeletal muscle, is a cardiomyocyte cell's absolute refractory period longer or shorter? Why?
Absolute refractory period is a time in which a cell cannot be excited again
Cardiomyocytes have a longer absolute refractory period that allows the heart to beat continually (rather than remaining contracted for longer periods of time)
64
What causes the first heart sound?
When the tricuspid and mitral valves close (AV VALVES); this happens almost simultaneously
65
What causes the second heart sound?
When the pulmonary and aortic valves close (SL VALVES); this happens almost simultaneously
66
Identify and describe the phases of the cardiac cycle
Ventricular Filling - As the ventricles expand, the pressure drops and blood is filled from the RA into the RV via the tricuspid valve
Isovolumetric Contraction - A short period where all the valves are closed and the ventricles begin to contract, as this happens the pressure increases
Ventricular Ejection - The increased pressure triggers the SL Valves to open and blood flows out of the ventricles
Isovolumetric Relaxation - T wave ends
(Diastolic period) and ventricles begin to expand
67
End Diastolic Volume (EDV)
The amount of blood that remains in each ventricle after relaxation
68
End Systolic Volume (ESV)
The amount of blood remaining after contraction
69
What is the equation for cardiac output?
CO = HR x SV
Cardiac Output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume
70
What happens to cardiac output if you increase or decrease your HR or SV?
Increase HR or SV - Increases CO
Decrease HR or SV - Decrease CO
71
Tachycardia
Persistent resting HR above 100 bpm
72
Bradycardia
Persistent resting HR below 60 bpm
73
What is the effect of positive chronotropic agents? Identify some examples
Raise HR
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
74
What is the effect of negative chronotropic agents? Identify some examples
Lower HR
Acetylcholine
75
Stroke Volume (SV)
Amount of blood ejected from the ventricles with each contraction
76
Identify and describe how Preload affects SV
The amount of stretch in ventricles. The more stretch the more blood it can hold
(Increased preload leads to Increased SV)
77
Identify and describe how Contractility affects SV
How forcefully the heart muscle contracts for a given preload
(DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL; Increased contractility leads to Increased SV)
78
Identify and describe how Afterload affects SV
Afterload - The sum of the forces a ventricle must overcome to eject blood. If you have high blood pressure the heart must work more forcefully to get blood into the aorta
(Increased afterload leads to decreased SV)
79
Identify and describe the three layers of vessels from least to most superficial (inside to out)
Tunica Intima - simple squamous epithelium; keeps blood cells from sticking
Tunica Media - Smooth Muscle; vasodilation and vasoconstriction
Tunica Externa - Collagen fibers anchors the vessel to surrounding tissue
80
Identify and describe the components of an aneurysm. What commonly causes it?
A weak point in an artery or within the heart wall that are likely to rupture causing hemorrhaging
Most commonly caused by atherosclerosis and HTN
81
Identify and describe the capillary types
Continuous - Least leaky; found in skin and muscles
Fenestrated - More permeable than continuous capillaries; found in organs that require rapid absorption + filtration: Kidneys + Small Intestine
Sinusoid - Most leaky, contain blood filled spaces + large fenestrations; found in liver, bone marrow, spleen
82
Pressure in Veins vs Arteries
Veins are steady, slow, and continuous unlike arteries
83
How are pressure, flow, and resistance related?
Flow = △ PRESSURE / RESISTANCE
84
If you increase or decrease pressure, how does that affect flow? Is this relationship inversely or directly proportional?
Flow = △ PRESSURE / RESISTANCE
If you increase pressure, you increase flow
If you decrease pressure, you decrease flow
Directly proportional
85
If you increase or decrease resistance, how does that affect flow? Is this relationship inversely or directly proportional?
Flow = △ PRESSURE / RESISTANCE
If you increase resistance, you decrease flow
If you decrease resistance, you increase flow
Inversely proportional
86
Define arteriosclerosis; how does it impact blood pressure?
The stiffening of arteries due to deterioration of elastic tissues
Increases blood pressure to try to increase flow
87
Define atherosclerosis; how does it impact blood pressure?
The buildup of fats, cholesterol, ad other substances on the artery wall
Increases blood pressure to try to increase flow
88
Hypertension
Chonic high resting BP
(any of the two numbers)
89
Hypotension
Chronic low resting BP
(any of the two numbers)
90
What three variables determine blood pressure? How does changing any of these factors effect BP
- Cardiac Output
- Blood volume
- Resistance to flow
These are all directly proportional to BP; if you increase any you increase BP, If you decrease any you decfrease BP
91
What is peripheral resistance?
The resistance of flow that blood encounters away from the heart
92
What three factors affect peripheral resistance?
Blood Viscosity
Directly Proportional
Vessel Length
Directly Proportional
Vessel Radius
Inversely Proportional
93
HORMONAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify and describe the function + production of Angiotensin II
Angiotensin I > Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) > Angiotensin II
It is a potent vasoconstrictor that raises blood pressure
94
NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Aldosterone
Increase BP by retaining sodium + water in the kidneys
95
NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Natriuretic Peptides
Secreted by the heart causing the kidneys to excrete sodium + water and has a vasodilator effect which both lower BP
96
NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Promotes water retention and raises BP
97
NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
Stimulates vasoconstriction and raises BP
98
What is edema?
Accumulation of excess fluid in a tissue
99
Identify and describe the three primary causes of edema
Increased Capilary Filtration- Too much liquid leaving the capillaries
Reduced Capillary Reabsorption - Not enough fluid is being absorbed by the capillaries
Obstructed Lymphatic Drainage - Lymphatic issues with draining excess fluid
100
What is venous return? Identify and describe the five mechanisms that help achieve this
Flow of blood back to the heart
Pressure Gradient - difference in pressure that drives flow
Gravity - Drains blood from the head to the neck
Skeletal Muscle Pump - Moving muscles to help milk blood through the veins
Thoracic Pump - Pressure changes that come from breathing allows blood to be sucked up to the heart
Cardiac Suction - Suction draws blood from the vena cava into the atria
GPS TC
101
Identify and describe the two types of circulatory shock
Cardiogenic Shock - Inadequate pumping of the heart
Hypovolemic Shock - Most common; due to a loss of blood
102
Identify the functions of the immune system
Fluid Recovery - Look out for and filter pathogens from excess fluid from the capillaries
Immune Surveilance - picks up foreign cells and chemicals from tissues
Lipid Absorption - Uses lacteals in the small intestines to absorb fat that is not absorbed by the capillaries
FRISLA
103
What is the flow of lymph starting at the capillaries
Capillaries
Vessles
Trunks
Ducts
Subclavean Veins
104
Identify the two collecting ducts and describe the regions of the body that they each drain
Right Lymphatic Duct - Right head, Right Arm + Right throax region
Thoracic Duct - Everywhere else; Most of the body
105
Identify and describe the cells associated with the lymphoid system
Neutrophils - Antibacterial
Natural Killer (NK) Cells - Destroy infected host cells and cancerous cells
Macrophages - Eat unwanted material; hold + display antigens for other immune cells
Dendritic Cells - Hold + Display antigens for other immune cells
T Cells - Mature in Thymus
B Cells - Make antiBodies
Nice nancy moves downtown (for) TB
106
Identify primary lymphoid organs and decribe their function
Red Bone Marrow + Thymus
This is where T and B cells learn to be active lymphocytes and are sent to secondary lymphoid organs
107
Identify secondary lymphoid organs and decribe their function
Lymph Nodes, Tonsils, Spleen
After leaving primary lymphoid organs they do thier job within the lymphatic system
108
What is the function of red bone marrow?
Create the formed elements of blood + provide immunity; Develop B Cells
109
Lymphadenitis
Inflammation in response to foreign pathogens and antigens
110
Lymphadenopathy
Term used to describe lymph node diseases
111
Identify and describe the four functions of the spleen
- Breakdown RBC
- Blood cell production for fetal life
- Lymphocytes within the white pulp that destroy pathogens
- Stabilizes blood volume
112
Innate vs Adaptive Immune Systems
Innate - Defenses we are born with; has a local effect
First and Second Lines of Defense
Adaptive - Defends against specific pathogens; has memory
Third Line of Defense
113
Identify the type and components of the second line of defense
Internal Defences: PINK AF
- Phagocytes
- Inflammation
- NK Cells
- Antimicrobial Proteins
- Fever
114
Identify the role of pyrogens and what happens during this state
Raise the body's thermostat causing a fever
- Promotes interferon activity (alarm nearby cells)
- Elevate metabolism and tissue repair
- Inhibit reproduction of bacteria and viruses
115
What is the impact of antipyretics?
These are fever reducing medications like tylenol.
Reducing the fever slows down the speed it takes for our bodies to recover
116
Identify the four cardinal signs of inflammation
Swelling
Heat
Redness
Pain
SHRP (Sherp)
117
Identify and describe the steps and purpose of phagocyte mobilization
Phagocyte Mobilization is the process by which we get phagocytes to injured areas
- - - - -
Leukocytosis - Neutrophils enter the blood from bone marrow
Margination - Stick to the wall of the capillaries
Diapedesis of Neutrophils - Flatten and squeeze between capillary gaps
Chemotaxis - Chemical trail that tells neutrophils where to go (chemical taxi)
*Let Me Drive Cars*
118
Identify and describe the two branches of the adaptive immune system
Cellular Immunity - T Cells attack foreign and affected host cells
Humoral Immunity - B Cells tag pathogens for destruction
119
Define Antigen
A foreign substance that triggers immune response in our bodies
120
Define Haptens; Identify some examples
"Half" or incomplete antigens. When they interact with someone's *specific* proteins it creates antibodies against them
Examples include things that some people are allergic to, but not others:
Poison Ivy, Animal Dander, Detergent, Cosmetics
121
Identify and describe Mature T Cell Selection Processes
Positive Selection - Must be able to bind to MHC Proteins (an antigen presenting cell)
Negative Selection - Must NOT bind to self antigens
122
What are antigen presenting cells? What cell types are included?
Cells that have MHC on their surface and present the antigens
Includes:
Dendritic Cells, Macrophages, and B Cells
123
Describe what happens if an APC displays a self-antigen OR a non-self antigen to a T-Cell
SELF Antigen - T Cell Disregards it
NONSELF Antigen - T Cell attacks is
124
When a B Cell undergoes clonal selection what do most cells differentiate to? What do they secrete ?
Plasma Cells: Antibodies
125
Identify Antibody Class:
Pentamer and the first to be secreted in immune response
IgM
126
Identify Antibody Class:
Found in plasma, mucus, saliva, tears, and breast milk
IgA
127
Identify Antibody Class:
Functions in B Cell activation
IgD
128
Identify Antibody Class:
Constitutes 80% of circulating antibodies
IgG
129
Identify Antibody Class:
Bound to Basophils and mast cells. Functions in inflammation and allergy response
IgE
130
Agammaglobulinemia
Deficient number of antibodies
131
Identify and describe the mechanisms in which antibodies assist the immune system
Neutralization - Neutralize epitopes on the antigens so that the antigens cannot cause harm
Complement Fixation - Activate Complement System
Agglutination - Causing enemy cells to clump, lose mobility, and phagocytes easily eat them
Precipitation - Antigen molecules clump together, lose mobility, and phagocytes easily eat them
132
Primary Immune Response
Brought by the first exposure to an antigen:
Has a lag phase where it takes our B and T cells to be activated and start responding
133
Secondary Immune Response
Immune response when you have already been exposed to the antigen:
Has no lag phase and immediate response; you often do not know you were infected or resolves in shorter time
134
HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Naturally Acquired Active
Infected with a pathogen (getting sick) and creating memory to respond in later time
135
HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Artificially Acquired Active
Vaccine with inactive viral particles and creating memory to respond in later time
136
HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Naturally Acquired Passive
Antibodies pass from mother to fetus or infant from placenta or milk; has no memory
137
HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Artificially Acquired Passive
Injection of immune serum or someone else's antibodies and has no memory
138
Conducting vs Respiratory Zone
Conducting Zone: Passage of airway
- Nostrils down through the major bronchioles
Respiratory Zone: Regions that participate in gas exchange
- Alveoli and the surrounding capillaries
139
Identify the three divisions of the pharynx from most to least superior (top to bottom); identify the tissue that lines each of these
Nasopharynx: Ciliated Pseudostratified Columnar Epithelium
Oropharynx: Stratified Squamous Epithelium
Laryngopharynx: Stratified Squamous Epithelium
140
What is the clinical term for a temporary opening in the trachea to allow for a tubal insert
Tracheotomy
141
Which main bronchus is wider and more vertical? Why is this important to know?
The RIGHT Main Bronchus; this is important because foreign objects (through aspiration) often lodge in the right main bronchus more often than the left
142
What type of tissue lines the alveoli?
Simple Squamous Epithelium
143
Identify and describe the function of the different cells found in the alveoli?
Great Alveolar Cells: Secrete pulmonary surfactant that keep our alveoli from closing as we exhale; keeps them open
Alveolar Macrophages: Most numerous of all cells, and keep alveoli free from debris by phagocytosing dust particles
Squamous Alveolar Cells: Composed of simple squamous epithelium and allows for gas exchange
GAS
144
What happens during inspiration?
- Ribs + Intercostal Muscles Expands
- Diaphragm Moves Down
- Volume Increases (the size of our lungs) + Pressure decreases until the intrapulmonary pressure matches with that of the atmosphere
145
What happens during expiration?
- Ribs + Intercostal Muscles Relax
- Diaphragm moves Up
- Volume Decreases (the size of our lungs) + Pressure Increases until the intrapulmonary pressure matches with that of the atmosphere
146
What factors influence airway resistance? How?
Bronchiole Diameter
- Bronchodilation lowers resistance and increases airflow (epinephrine)
- Bronchoconstriction increases resistance and decreases airflow (cold air, allergies)
Pulmonary Compliance
- Stretchiness and ability of the lungs to expand
- Increasing pulmonary compliance, decreasing resistance and increasing airflow
- Decreasing pulmonary compliance, increasing resistance and decreasing airflow
147
Chemoreceptors
Brainstem neurons that responds to a chnage in pH of the CSF (reflected by the amount of CO2 in the blood)
148
Stretch Receptors of the Respiratory System
Found in the smooth muscles of bronchi and bronchioles that responds to the amount of stretch as we are breathing in. This helps prevent us from breathing in for too long and avoiding damage to our muscles (Hering-Breur Reflex)
149
Irritant Receptors
Nerve endings in the airway that restricts bronchioles in response to harmful substances to keep them out. This can causes us to hold our breath, take shallow breathing, or coughing.
Harmful substances include smoke, dust, pollen, fumes etc
150
What is AVR and what does it tell us?
The amount of air that reaches the alveoli per minute of breathing. This tells us about our body's ability to get oxygen to the tissues and dispose of CO2
151
What is total lung capacity
The total amount of air the lungs can hold
ALL OF IT
152
Restrictive vs Obstuctive Pulmonary Disorders
Identify an Example of Each
+ Where does Emphysema Fall
Restrictive: Loss of functional tissue that limits how much our lungs can inflate (ex: tuberculosis)
Obstructive: Interferance or block of the airway (ex: asthma)
Emphysema combines elements of both
153
Identify (DO NOT DESCRIBE) the variables that affect alveolar gas exchange efficiency
- PRESSURE GRADIENT
- MEMBRANE SURFACE AREA
- MEMBRANE THICKNESS
- SOLUBILITY OF GASES
- VENTILATION PERFUSION COUPLING
People Make Money (for) Speedy Vehicles
154
VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Pressure Gradient
The pressure gradient of oxygen and carbon dioxide (the difference in concentrations across the membrane) draw oxygen into the blood and carbon dioxide out of the blood
155
VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Solubility of Gases
Although CO2 has a lower pressure gradient (much closer to isotonic than O2) this balances out because CO2 is much more soluble and diffuses across the membrane much faster
156
VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Membrane Surface Area
Higher surface areas are more efficient at gas exchange than lower suface areas
157
VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Membrane Thickness
In pulmonary edema and pneumonia the respiratory membrane thickens and makes the gas exchange process much more difficult
158
VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Ventilation-Perfusion Coupling
Pulmonary blood vessels dilating or consticting in relation to how much airflow is coming into a particular area of the lungs
159
Identify the ways CO2 is transported in the body (what is percentage occurence of each)
90% - reacts with water to form carbonic acid which dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions to balance the pH of the blood
5% - binds to amino groups of proteins and hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin; this allows us to transfer oxygen and carbon dioxide AT THE SAME TIME
5% - settles as dissolved gas within plasma
160
Why is carbon monoxide dangerous?
Competes with oxygen binding sites on our hemoglobin and is much better at occupying these spaces
161
What is the Haldane Effect?
As we use up our oxygen and give it to our tissues we create deoxyhemoglobin which enables our blood to transport more carbon dioxide to the lungs
162
What do hyperventilation and hypoventilation do?
They moderate our breathing to get our blood pH back to healthy range
Hyperventilation occurs in response to acidosis and increases blood pH
Hypoventilation occurs in response to alkalosis and decreases blood pH
163
How does exercise impact the respiratory rhythm?
Exercise stimulates our proprioceptors present in our muscles and joints; this stimulation sends excitatory signals to our brain and respiratory centers to increase breathing
164
Hypoxia
Oxygen deficiency or the inability to use oxygen
165
Cyanosis
Blueness of the skin; indicative of low oxygen in those tissues
166
Hypoxemic Hypoxia
Not enough oxygen in the arteries and thus lower volumes in the tissues
167
Identify and describe the different types of hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia - Poisons that affect the use of oxygen in tissues
Anemic Hypoxia - Inability of blood to carry oxygen
Ischemic Hypoxia - Inadequate circulation of blood
HAIpoxia
168
Identify 5 (/8) functions of the kidneys
- Filter blood and excrete wastes
- Regulate blood volume and pressure
- Regulate electrolytes and pH
- Clear hormones from the blood
- Detoxify free radicals
- Secrete Erythopoietin to synthesize RBCs
- Secrete Calcium to regulate calcium levels
- Synthesize glucose from amino acids in starvation
169
List the pathway of fluid through the urinary system
Glomerular Capsule
PCT
Nephron Loop
DCT
Collecting Duct
Papillary Duct
Minor Calyx
Major Calyx
Renal Pelvis
Ureter
Urinary Bladder
Urethra
170
Juxtamedullary vs Cortical Nephrons
Which is more numerous?
Which one maintains the osmotic gradient?
Juxtamedullary - VERY long nephron loops get close into the renal medulla (~15% of nephrons); maintains osmotic gradient
Cortical - Short nepphron loops dip slightly into the renal medulla (~85% of nephrons)
171
Identify and describe the stages of urine development
Glomerular Filtration - The high pressure in the glomerulus allows waste products to leave and create a plasmalike filtrate of the blood
Tubular Reabsorption - Removes useful solute from the filtrate and returns them into the blood
Tubular Secretion - Removes harmful or waste solute from the blood and takes them into the nephron
Water Conservation - Removes excess water from urine to return to the blood (works to ensure that we are keeping enough water in our body)
172
What type of molecules can freely pass through the filtration membrane in glomerular filtration?
Identify four examples
Any molecule smaller than 3nm;
ex: water, electrolytes, amino acids, glucose, vitamins
173
Proteinuria and Hematuria; why does this happen and why is it dangerous?
Proteinuria - Albumin in urine
Hematuria - Blood in urine
This is caused by damage to the filtration membrane (which in a healthy person albumin and RBCs are normally too large to pass through the membrane) (this is dangerous because we lost important substances from our blood )
174
Define Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR); What factors is this directly proportional to?
The amount of filtrate formed per minute by the two kidneys combined
- NFP: The slight outward pressure that draws solutes out of the glomerulous and into the glomerular space
- Surface area available for filtration
- Filtration membrane permeability
175
How does GFR affect blood pressure?
High GFR leads to increased urine output which lowers blood pressure
Low GFR leads to urine retention whihc increases blood pressure
176
Briefly describe the Myogenic Mechanism and describe the role of the afferent arteriole in this renal autoregulation
Regulating blood flow based on the stretching and contraction of smooth muscle
When arteriole blood pressure increases the afferent arteriole is stretched. The muscle recognizes this response and reacts by consticting and regulating blood flow to the glomerulus
When arteriole blood pressure falls the afferent arteriole relaxes. The muscle recognizes this response and reacts by dilating and regulating blood flow to the glomerulus
177
What cells are involved in the juxtaglomerular apparatus? What do they do and how do they respond to chnaging GFR?
Macula Densa - When we have high GFR, we have more NaCl. They absorb excess NaCl and secrete ATP to stimulate nearby granular cells
Granular Cells - When triggered by the ATP, they constrict afferent arterioles, lower blood flow, and thus lowering and correcting GFR
178
Identify the primary function of Angiotensin II
INCREASE Blood Pressure
179
Describe the three actions by angiotensin II that work to increase blood pressure
- Triggers hypothalamus telling us that we are thirsty and triggering us to drink water to raise BP
- Triggers vasoconstriction which raises BP
- Triggers the secretion of aldosterone which tells our kidneys to retain water and minerals to raise BP
180
Where does most reabsorption occur in the nephron? Compare the two routes of reabsorption
- PCT
Trancellular Route: substances travel THROUGH cells
Paracellular Route: substances travel AROUND cells
181
Tubular reabsorption vs secretion
Reabsorption: The process by which we remove useful solute from the filtrate and return them to the blood
Secretion: The process by which we remove harmful or waste solutes from the blood and take them into the nephron
These both relate to the blood:
in reabsorption we are reabsorbing into the blood and in secretion we are secreting from the blood
182
Describe how aldosterone, ANP, ADH, and PTH impact the DCT and Collecting Duct
Aldosterone: Increases Na+ reabsorption and increases BP
ANP: Inhibits NaCl reabsorption and lowers BP
ADH: Increases water reabsorption and increases BP
PTH: Increases Ca reabsorption and increases blood calcium
183
Collecting Duct activity when body is dehydrated vs hydrated
Dehydrated: ADH increases water reabsorption in the collecting duct and making our urine more yellow and concentrated
Hydrated: ADH function decreases and we decrease water reabsorption in the collecting duct making our urine more clear and less concentrated
184
What is a diuretic and why are they used to treat hypertension?
A chemical that increases urine volume;
This works for reducing the body's fluid volume and thus blood pressure
185
Identify and describe the five stages of digestion
Ingestion - Intake of food
Digestion - Mechanical and chemical breakdown
Absorption - Uptake of nutrients into cells and blood
Compaction - Absorbing water and building up waste
Defacation - Elimination of feces
186
Identify the 6 structures of the digestive tract
Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small Intestine
Large Intestine
187
Identify the 5(/6) accessory structures/organs of the digestive tract
Teeth
Tongue
Salivary Gland
Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas
188
Identify and describe the two reflexes regulate the digestive tract
Short Reflexes - Triggers peristalsis as we stretch organs in swallowing, MYENTERIC
Long Reflexes - Parasympathetic stimulation, VAGOVAGAL
189
Identify and describe the function of the components of saliva
IgA - Antimicrobial antibody found in secretions
Mucus - Lubricates Food
Salivary Amylase - Enzymatic Starch Digestion
Electrolytes - Salty Environment
Lingual Lipase - Enzymatic Fat Digestion
Lysozyme - Enzyme Kills Bacteria
IM SELL
190
What are the three pairs of salivary glands?
Sublingual Gland
Submandibular Gland
Parotid Gland
191
Identify the tissue type found in the stomach, small intestine and (MOST OF THE) large intestine
Simple Columnar Epithelium
192
Identify and describe the function of the cells found in the stomach mucosa
Parietal Cells - Secrete HCl, Intrinsic Factor, Ghrelin
Enteroendocrine Cells - Secrete hormones that regulate digestion
Chief Cells - Most Numerous, Secrete Gastric Lipase and Pepsinogen
Mucous Cells - Secrete Mucus
People Eat Cow Meat
193
What is the function of Pepsin? What is its inactive form and what stomach cell secretes it?
Pepsin digests protein
PEPSINOGEN: Secreted by Chief Cells
194
What is the function of gastric lipase and what stomach cell secretes it?
Gastric lipase digests fats
- Secreted by Chief Cells
195
What is the function of intrinsic factor and what stomach cell secretes it?
Intrinsic factor absorbs vitamin B12 which is necessary to synthesize hemoglobin
- Secreted by Parietal Cells
196
Where does most digestion and absorption of food occur in the digestive system?
Small intestine (Mainly Jejunum)
197
What chemicals of the intestinal phase suppress gastric secretion?
Secretin and 9CCK
198
What is the liver's role in digestion? What cells make up the liver?
In digestion, the liver functions in the secretion of bile in the DUODENUM.
Hepatocytes
199
Where is bile made and stored, and what is its function in digestion?
Bile is made in the liver, stored in the gallbladder and works by digesting fats
200
What is the exocrine function of the pancreas? What are the associated structures?
Excreting pancreatic juice into the duodenum
201
Identify the enzymes the pancreas provides to the small intestines and what they digest
Pancreatic Amylase - Starch
Pancreatic Lipase - Fats
Ribonuclease - RNA
Deoxyribonuclease - DNA
202
What molecules stimulate the release of pancreatic juice and bile?
ACh, CCK, Secretin
203
What three structures increase the surface area within the small intestine? Which includes capillaries and lacteals? What is the function of lacteals?
Circular Folds
Villi - Capillaries and lacteals (absorb lipids)
Microvilli
204
What enzymes breaks down starch? Where are they found?
Salivary amylase breaks down most of the starch in the mouth but is continues again in the small intestine by pancreatic amylase
205
What enzymes digest proteins? Where are they found? Where are they absent
Protease and peptidases(carboxypeptidase, aminopeptidase, dipeptidase) found in the stomach and small intestine
not in saliva
206
What enzymes digest fats? Where are they found and what else happes in the stomach?
Lingual Lipase - MOUTH
Pancreatic Lipase - Duodenum
Gastric Lipase - antral pumping in the stomach breaks down clumps of fat
207
What enzymes break down nucleic acids
Deoxyribonuclease
Ribonuclease
Nucleosidase
Phosphatase
208
Diarrhea vs Constipation
Diarrhea - Food causes irritation and passes too quickly, not allowing enough time for the large intestine to absorb water
Constipation - Fecal movement is too slow and large intestine absorbs too much water
209
Internal vs External Anal Aphincters. Intrinsic and Parasympathetic Defacation Reflexes control which sphincter?
Internal - Involuntary, smooth muscle
External - Voluntary, skeletal muscle
INTERNAL is controlled by the intrinsic and parasympathetic defacation reflexes (external is controlled by you)
210
What are the primary sex organs in a male and in a female?
Male - Testes
Female - Ovaries
211
Where in the testes are sperm produced?
Seminiferous Tubules
212
What is the role of nurse cells?
Protect germ cells, promote their development, and regulate sperm production
213
Identify and describe the three sets of accesory glands of the male reproductive system
Seminal Vessicles - Empy into ejaculatory duct and form 60% of semen
Prostate - Provides thin milky secretions and forms 30% of semen
Bulbourethral Glands - Produces pre-ejcaulate that lubricates the penis in preparation for intercourse, neutralizes acidity of residual urine in the urethra (ensures that sperm dont die)
214
What is Spermatogenesis
The process of sperm production
215
Identify the following:
A - Head
B - Middle Piece of Tail
C - Principal Piece of Tail
D - Endpiece of Tail
E - Acrosome
F - Nucleus
216
Describe the composition of semen
- The prostate forms a clotting enzyme to activate proseminogelin
- Converts it into a sticky like substance semenogelin
- This allows sperm to stick in the inner walls of the vagina and that they are not drained outward
- 20-30 mins after ejaculation serine protease liquifies the semen
217
List the pathway of sperm through the male reproductive system
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
(Nothing)
Urethra
Penis
SEVEN UP
218
How do Phosphodiesterase Inhbitors Work? Provide an example
They slow the breakdown of cGMP to prolong an erection (this is usually broken down by phosphodiesterase and leads to the loss of an erection)
ex: Viagra
219
Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system
Mesovarium - covers the enture overy and anchors it in place
Ovarian Ligament - Attaches the ovaries to the uterus
Suspensory Ligament - Contains an artery, vein, and nerves. Attaches to the pelvic wall
220
What commonly causes cervical cancer? How can it be detected?
Almost always caused by HPV
- Detected with a papsmear
221
List the layers of the uterus from outside to inside
Perimetrium - Outermost layer
Myometrium - Middle, muscular layer
Endometrium:
Basal Layer - Deep layer and regenerates a new layer with every menstrual cycle
Functional Layer - Superficial layer shed in every menstrual cycle
222
What is the name of the arteries that enter the endometrium?
Spiral Arteries
223
What is the goal of Leptin
Monitors how much fat you have and if you have enough fat you will start puberty by the release of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
224
What is the goal of Follicle Stimulating Hormone in females
Stimulates overian follicles causing them to secrete estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and small amounts of androgen
225
What is the goal of gonadotropin releasing hormone in females
Stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinizing Hormone
226
What is the goal of estrogens in females?
Feminizing hormones that have widespread effects on the body
227
What is the goal of luteinizing hormone in females
Triggers the release of an egg from the ovary
228
Identify and describe the puberty timeline in females
Thelarche - Breast development, earliest notable sign of puberty
Pubarche - Pubic and axillary hair, sebaceous and axillary glands
Menarche - First menstrual period
229
Describe the role of progesterone and inhibin in the female reproductive system
Progesterone - Prepares for possible pregnancy
Inhibin - Selectively regulates FSH secretion
230
Define sexual cycle. What two cycles fall under this sexual cycle category?
Events that recur every month when fertilization does not happen.
- Ovarian Cycle
- Menstrual Cycle
231
What is oogenesis?
The process of egg (ova/ovum) production
232
What is folliculogenesis? Describe the different follicles that form as a result of this process
The development of the follicle as the egg undergoes oogenesis:
Primoridal follicles surround primary oocytes
Primary follicles surround secondary oocytes
Secondary follicles grow layers of cells around the egg
Tertriary follciles build up follicular fluid and develop a structure called the antrum (pools)
Mature follicle - one follicle wins and all others die off. Oocyte begins to float within the follicle
233
Describe the hypothalamo-pituitary-ovarian axis
Hormones of the hypothalamus regulate the pituitary gland
Pituitary hormones regulate the ovaries
Ovaries secrete hormones that regulate the uterus
234
What occurs during the follicular and luteal phase of the sexual cycle?
Follicular: first two weeks, menstruation occurs within the first 3-5 days. Uterus replaces lost tissue by forming the corpus luteum
Luteal Phase: second two weeks, corpus luteum stimulates endometrial secretion and thickening. If pregnancy does not occur endometrium breaks down
235
Identify and descirbe the phases of the ovarian cycle
Follicular Phase - days 1-14. follicles grow and the dominant one is chosen
Ovulation - Mature follicle releases the egg
Luteal Phase - days 15-28. ovulated follicle becomes the corpus luteum and hormones prepare for pregnancy. If pregnancy does not occure the corpus luteum shrinks and leaves the behind the corpus albicans
236
Identify and describe the four phases of the menstrual cycle
Proliferative Phase - functional layer of endometrium is rebuilt
Secretory Phase - Endometrium thickens
Premenstrual Phase - Corpus luteum atrophies
Menstrual Phase - Menstrual fluid is discharged
237
Endometriosis
Growth of the endometrial tissue outside of the uterus
