Final Flashcards
(297 cards)
1
Q
What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine secretions?
A
endocrine: dumps secretions INTO the bloodstream
exocrine: exocrine dumps secretions ONTO surfaces such as the skin
2
Q
Why is the same chemical (epinephrine for example) called a neurotransmitter in one area and a hormone in another?
A
neurotransmitters come from nerve cells in the brain
while hormones are produced in endocrine glands and released into the bloodstream
3
Q
Know the structural classification of each hormone (remember, it is much easier to just remember the amino-
acid derivatives and lipid derivatives)
A
steroid hormones (lipid derivatives)
Estrogens
testosterone
androgens
aldosterone
cortisol
thyroxin
triiodothyronine
4
Q
What are the steroid hormones made from?
A
cholesterol
5
Q
What makes a lipid derivative hormone behave differently than the water-soluble protein based hormones? Why are
the thyroid hormones the exception?
A
lipids cross thru plasma membrane w/o receptor
thyroid hormones has it’s own messaging system and goes into cell
6
Q
Is a hormone bound to a transport protein active?
A
no, they are in storage
7
Q
How does a hormone find its target cell? (lock and key
analogy)
A
hormones are the keys
target cells are the locks
the only things that can respond to the hormones are their target cells
8
Q
What are the 3 ways that the hypothalamus (part of the nervous system) can control the endocrine system?
A
1) hypo. produces regulatory hormones that control the anterior pituitary
2) hypo. makes ADH and oxytocin
3) hypo. controls the adrenal medulla and releases epinephrine and norepinephrine
9
Q
what is a regulatory hormone?
A
hormone produced by the hypothalamus
10
Q
What 2 hormones are made by the hypothalamus? Where are they stored?
A
ADH and oxt.
stored and released at the posterior pituitary gland
11
Q
TSH
A
thyroid stimulating hormone
comes from anterior pituitary
stimulates the release of thyroid hormones, regulates metabolism
12
Q
ACTH
A
adrenocorticotropic hormone comes from anterior pituitary
induces target cells to produce glucocorticoids, regulates metabolism and stress responses
13
Q
Luteinizing hormone
A
comes from anterior pituitary
targets the reproductive system and stimulates production of sex hormones (progesterone and testosterone)
14
Q
prolactin
A
comes from anterior pituitary
promotes milk PRODUCTION by targeting mammary glands
15
Q
What is a second messenger?
A
small molecules/ions that relay signals received by first messengers, the ones that can’t come in
15
Q
GH
A
comes from anterior pituitary
targets ALL cells but mostly liver, bone, and muscles cell to increase protein synthesis and mobilize fat reserves
16
Q
what is the most important second messenger?
A
cAMP
17
Q
what part of the adrenal gland can the hypothalamus control?
A
adrenal medulla
18
Q
FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
A
comes from anterior pituitary
targets reproductive system and stimulates sperm & egg production
estrogen
19
Q
MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone)
A
comes from anterior pituitary
stimulates melanocytes to make melatonin
20
Q
name all the hormones from the anterior pituitary
A
GH
MSH
LH
FSH
prolactin
ACTH
TSH
21
Q
name the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary
A
ADH and oxytocin
22
Q
ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
A
stored and released in the posterior pituitary gland but produced in the hypothalamus
increases reabsorption of water in the kidneys by opening water channels (makes the body not pee)
23
Q
Oxytocin
A
stored and released in the posterior pituitary gland but produced in the hypothalamus
causes muscle contractions during labor and ejection of breast milk
24
T4
thyroxine
from the thyroid gland
regulate oxygen consumption and metabolism
25
T3
triiodothyronine
from the thyroid gland
regulate oxygen consumption and metabolism
26
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
comes from parathyroid gland
raises blood calcium levels
27
calcitonin
comes from parathyroid gland
lowers blood calcium levels
28
name all the parathyroid hormones
calcitonin, t3, t4, and pth
29
name all the adrenal hormones
aldosterone and stress hormones (cortisol)
30
aldosterone
from adrenal gland
increases sodium reabsorption at the kidneys to increase blood volume and pressure
31
cortisol (stress hormone)
from adrenal gland
mobilize energy for the fight or flight response (increases blood sugar)
32
pineal gland hormones
melatonin
33
melatonin
comes from pineal gland
pineal gland will sense if theres light or darkness, light = nothing produced, dark = hormone produced by pineal gland
34
what hormones do the pancreas (endocrine portion) produce
insulin (beta cells) and glucagon (alpha cells)
35
Insulin
hormone produced by the pancreatic islets
lowers blood sugar after a meal (think IN)
36
glucagon
hormone produced by the pancreatic islets
raises blood sugar in between meals (think GONE)
37
what hormones do the kidney produce?
calcitriol and erythropoietin (EPO)
38
calcitriol
hormone produced by the kidneys
increases calcium at the kidneys
39
EPO
erythropoietin
produced by kidneys
increase red blood cells
40
What are the 3 phases of the general adaptation syndrome (stress response)?
alarm
resistance
exhaustion
41
What is the primary hormone of the alarm phase?
epinephrine
42
what is the primary hormones of the resistance phase?
cortisol
43
When does the exhaustion phase begin?
when homeostatic regulation breaks down
only seen in extremely starved/malnourished people
44
What does it mean when someone is “resistant” to a hormone (Insulin resistance, cortisol resistance, leptin resistance, etc)
cells are less sensitive to a hormone because there's too much of it
45
the body mainly uses _____ ______ to maintain homeostasis
negative feedback
46
Does blood play a role in the generation or regulation of body temperature?
regulation
47
What is the fluid portion of blood called? What percent of it is water?
plasma
plasma is 92% water
48
If you were looking at a tube of centrifuged blood what would you find at the bottom of the tube? The top?
RBCs would be at the bottom and plasma would be at the top
49
What are the 3 formed elements of blood? Why are they called formed elements instead of blood cells?
RBCs, white blood cells, and platelets
called formed elements because RBCs and platelets are not actually cells
50
What is the temperature of blood? What is the pH of blood?
temp is 100.4 F and pH is 7.35-7.45
51
How much blood does an adult male have? Adult female?
males have 5.5 L
females have 4.5 L
52
what's the difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid
blood plasma lies within blood vessels
interstitial fluid is the liquid between cells and tissues (outside blood vessel)
53
Where are most plasma proteins produced?
liver
54
name the plasma proteins
albumins, globulins, fibrinogens
55
out of the plasma proteins, which is the most numerous and why does it matter?
albumin
it's important because it prevents leakage of fluid into tissues
56
How many RBC’s are in a microliter of the average adult makes blood?
4-6 million per microliter
57
What is the protein in a RBC that allows it carry oxygen through your circulation? What mineral is needed?
hemoglobin and iron
58
What kind of cell is released into general circulation where it matures into a RBC?
reticulocyte
59
With regard to blood typing, what is an antigen?
it is a surface marker on the OUTSIDE of a RBC
60
With regard to blood typing, what is an antibody?
proteins found in plasma that detect germs and alert the immune system
61
Your patient has Type A blood. What kind of surface antigens do they have? What kind of antibodies would be in their plasma?
they have A antigens and B antibodies
62
What is the most common blood type in America?
O+
63
What role does Rh factor play? Why does it only matter during a woman’s 2nd pregnancy (if at all)?
Rh is where the + or - comes from
Rh can affect a woman's pregnancy the 2nd time if the mother is Rh- but the baby is Rh+. the moms antibodies will attack the baby
64
neutrophils are elevated during
bacterial infections
65
neutrophils are the least common WBC
true or false
false, they are the most common
66
eosinophils are elevated during
allergic reactions and parasitic infections
67
eosinophils release antihistamines
true or false
true
68
basophils release histamine and....
heparin
69
why do basophils release histamine but eosinophils releases antihistamines?
because the immune system will overreact and kill itself without antihistamines releasing in response to histamine
70
Monocytes become...
tissue macrophage
71
lymphocytes are elevated during
viral infections
72
name the types of lymphocytes
Nk cells, T-cells, and B-cells
73
what WBC usually shows up first because they're more numerous
neutrophils
74
Which of the white blood cells (Leukocytes) are classified as granulocytes?
basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils
75
What type of cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity?
T-cells
76
what type of cells are involved in humoral immunity?
B-cells
77
All blood cells come from myeloid stem cells except for which type? What kind of stem cell do they come from?
lymphocytes, they are made from lymphoid stem cells
78
What kind of cells does a B-cell become before it make antibodies?
small lymphocytes
79
Platelets are fragments of a much larger cell. What is it called?
megakaryocyte
80
How long does the average platelet “live”?
7-10 days
81
Blood clotting is a complex positive feedback driven process, but the end result is the conversion of water soluble fibrinogen into what?
fibrin
82
What is fibrinolysis?
dissolving of a clot
83
A loss of blood volume would stimulate which kidney hormone to increase red blood cell production?
erythropoietin (EPO)
84
What is the difference between an artery and a vein (and it is not oxygenated versus deoxygenated blood)?
arteries carry blood away from the heart (almost every artery carries oxygen-rich blood except for pulmonary artery carrying blood to lungs)
veins carry blood back to the heart
85
What is the key thing that occurs at capillaries that doesn’t occur at arteries and/or veins?
capillaries are where we exchange things
(dropping off oxygen and picking up CO2, etc)
arteries and veins are the transport system
86
the path blood takes through the heart
IVC or SVC --> right atrium --> tricuspid valve --> right ventricle --> pulmonary valve --> pulmonary artery --> lungs
RIGHT SIDE OF HEART (pulmonary circuit)
87
the path blood takes BACK through the heart
lungs --> pulmonary vein --> left atrium --> mitral valve --> left ventricle --> aortic valve --> aorta
LEFT SIDE OF HEART (systemic circuit)
88
the path blood takes THROUGH the heart is done through
pulmonary circuit (right side of heart)
89
the path blood takes BACK through the heart is done through
systemic circuit (left side of heart)
90
What is the mediastinum?
space between the lungs, where the heart, thymus, etc lies
91
Visceral vs parietal pericardium.
What is another name for the visceral pericardium?
visceral - organs (layer on heart)
parietal - body wall (layer that lines the cavity the heart is in)
helps friction be reduced when heart is pumping
another name is epicardium
92
What are the 3 ways that we have classified cardiac muscle tissue? For example, do cardiac muscle cells have a single nucleus or multiple nuclei?
1) striated (organized)
2) involuntary
3) cardiac muscle cells only have one nucleus
93
What is an intercalated disc? Why do they matter?
they are special connection points between heart muscle cells
important bc the discs are electric, one stimulus is able to cause the entire heart muscle to contract
they function as ONE UNIT
94
What is the function of the valves?
prevent backflow of blood
95
name all the valves of the heart
right AV valve (tricuspid valve)
pulmonary valve (pulmonary semilunar valve)
left AV valve (bicuspid valve or mitral valve)
aortic valve (aortic semilunar valve)
96
Which chambers of the heart are more muscular, the atria or the ventricles?
ventricles because they have to pump more blood
97
moderator band
small piece of the electrical system of the heart
powers papillary muscles, makes them tense up
98
Why is the left ventricle more muscular than the right ventricle?
left ventricle is 300x thicker
left ventricle has to pump blood blood all throughout the body through resistance, meaning it's stronger
99
If a valve fails, leading to regurgitation of blood, your doctor would hear it while ______________ your heart and call it a _____________.
auscultating, murmur
100
when a moderator band tells papillary muscles to _____________ ....
tense up, the papillary muscles tug on the chordae tendineae which straightens up the bicuspid and tricuspid valve
101
the path of the conducting system of the heart
SA node (pacemaker) --> AV, small delay --> AV bundle --> Bundle Branches --> Purkinje fibers (turn around and travel back up)
102
Where is the SA node (the heart's pacemaker)?
the back wall of the right atrium that sends signal DOWN the heart
103
Where in the conducting system is there a delay in the electrical signal? How long is the delay?
the delay is at the AV node bc the SA node depolarizes both atria
the delay is 100 milliseconds long
104
On an EKG/ECG, what is the P wave?
when the 2 atria depolarize
105
On an EKG/ECG, what is the QRS complex?
ventricles depolarize
106
On an EKG/ECG, what is the T wave?
ventricles repolarizing
107
Why can’t you see where the atria repolarize on an EKG?
the ventricles are depolarizing at the same time
the atria repolarization is hidden because the ventricles are more powerful
108
If you see a problem on an EKG, what is it called?
arrhythmia
109
systole vs diastole
Systole = contraction
Diastole = relaxation
110
Your normal heart sounds are labeled S1-S4. Which two are the most important?
S1 (lub, 2 AV valves closing) and S2 (dupp, 2 semilunar valves closing)
111
stroke volume
how much blood (ml) you move per beat
112
Cardiac output
stroke volume x heart rate
113
What is your cardiac reserve?
resting output vs maximal output
average resting cardiac output: 5 L per min
athlete resting cardiac output: 30 L per min
114
What are the key differences between the structure of
arteries and veins? How does this relate to their function?
arteries: thick, tough, and elastic to withstand high pressure
veins: thin with a widen open lumen to offer as little resistance to blood flow as possible
115
What function do the valves in veins perform?
prevent backflow of blood
116
Sympathetic stimulation (fight or flight) causes vasoconstriction. Doesn't that make blood vessels bigger or smaller? Does that lead to an increase or decrease in blood pressure?
vasoconstriction makes blood vessels smaller. this makes the blood pressure higher.
vasodilation makes blood vessels bigger.
117
There are 3 types of capillaries (continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoids). Which have the smallest openings? The largest? What do sinusoids need that the other 2 do not?
continuous capillaries are the smallest, the most numerous
fenestrated capillaries can let medium sized things through
sinusoids are the largest, they have gaps between the cells. They need macrophages lining them because of the big gaps.
118
What is a portal system?
artery - arteriole - capillary - another capillary bed - venule - vein
moving a lot of material in a small area
119
Is there more blood in your arterial or venous system?
more blood in the venous system
120
How much of your blood is in the venous reserve?
20-21% of your blood is in this venous reserve
we have this in case we lose arteriole blood
121
Your blood pressure has to be high enough to overcome____________
peripheral resistance
122
Key contributors to vascular (peripheral) resistance?
vessel length - the longer the vessel is the harder the heart has to beat
viscosity - how well blood flows, too viscous makes heart beat harder
turbulence - plaque in arteries makes heart works harder -> high BP
123
What is normal blood pressure (in mm Hg)? What pressure is hypertension?
120/80 is normal
hypertension is 140/90
124
What role does filtration and reabsorption play in the movement of fluids in the body. Why is there more filtration than reabsorption at the capillaries? Why is this important?
filtration (arteriole) and reabsorption (venous, because of osmosis)
there is more filtration because the arteries are longer, this is important because this fluid becomes interstitial fluid
125
where are the cardiovascular centers of the brain?
medulla oblongata
126
Why is the endothelium of the tunica intima of your blood vessels so important? What disease state stems from endothelial dysfunction/damage?
the endothelium is important because it helps absorb and nourish blood vessels.
atherosclerosis (hardening of arteries) leading to heart disease is stemmed from endothelial dysfunction
127
What are the basics of the renin-angiotensin system. What role does Angiotensin II play in maintaining (or increasing) blood pressure?
the renin-angiotensin system starts in the kidneys where they have special cells called juxtaglomerular cells that can sense a drop in BP causing the release of renin(lead the production of angiotensin I)
angiotensin II (raises BP) stems from angiotensin I from an enzyme called angiotensin converting enzyme. this plays a role in BP because most BP meds (ACE inhibitors) target this process.
128
examples of portal systems
hypophyseal portal system (connects hypothalamus to pituitary gland)
hepatic portal system (allows liver to grab things it needs and get rid of things it doesn't)
129
What makes lymphatic fluid different than blood plasma?
blood plasma is 92% water but has a lot of proteins
lymphatic fluid is the 3.6L that was interstitial fluid but entered a lymphatic vessel causing it to become lymphatic fluid
130
Lymphatic vessels are not circular like the circulatory system. They begin with __________ lymphatics
terminal
131
Are lymphatic vessels more like arteries or veins?
veins
thin walls, large lumens
132
Are the “valves” in lymphatic vessels really valves? Do they still behave like valves?
they are not technically valves but they behave like a trap door
they function like valves
133
Which parts of the body drain into the thoracic duct? The right lymphatic duct? Where do they both drain into?
the right lymphatic duct is the right upper side of your body
thoracic duct is everything else
they drain into your subclavian veins and into circulatory system and to your heart
134
Why are they called T-cells and B-cells?
t-cells are thymus dependent
b-cells are bone marrow dependent
135
With T-cells, what role do cytotoxic T-cells play? Helper T-cells? Suppressor T-cells?
the cytotoxic t-cells - killers, cell mediated immunity (directly attacks)
helper t-cells - activates cytotoxic t cells and b cells
suppressor t-cells - makes sure response isn't too big
136
B-cells become Plasma cells. What do plasma cells make?
plasma cells make antibodies
137
Natural Killer cells are primarily involved in ___________________, and allows them to attack and (hopefully) destroy cancer cells and virus infected cells
immunological surveillance - looks for cells with abnormal surfaces
138
What is MALT?
mucosa associated lymphatic tissue
anywhere with a lot of mucus (digestive, reproductive, etc)
examples would be tonsils and appendix
139
How many tonsils are there?
5
ferrengia tonsils (adnoid)
2 palatine tonsils
2 lingual tonsils
140
Lymph nodes are filters. What percent of antigens are filtered out?
99% or more
141
What is the first step of your body’s immune response? Remember that you cannot fight an enemy that you do not know is there
the 1st step is antigen recognition and antigen presentation
142
The thymus gland plays a key role in the maturation of the immune system. What happens to the thymus gland as you reach puberty and beyond?
the thymus gland gets smaller as you age and is less effective
143
What is the function of the red pulp portion of the spleen? The white pulp portion?
red pulp filters out damaged RBCs
white pulp has all of the WBCs, monitoring
144
What is the difference between a specific and a non-specific defense?
non-specific doesn't care what is there (skin, stomach acid)
specific defenses go after a specific target
145
What kind of white blood cells are involved in the specific defense system?
t-cells and b-cells
146
Do interferons play a role in stopping bacterial or viral infections?
viral infections
decrease viral replication, stimulate NK cells and macrophages, engulfs and destroys virus infected cells
147
What kind of proteins are complement proteins? The complement system “compliments” the action of_____________
complement proteins are plasma proteins
antibodies and phagocytes
they can burrow holes into abnormal cells
148
What are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation?
redness, heat, swelling, pain
149
What do mast cells release? What does it do?
they release histamine and heparin
they allow your immune system to have a reaction (histamine) and allows more fluid to go to an area so more immune cells show up(heparin)
150
What kind of cells produce scar tissue?
fibroblasts and collagen
151
Notice that there is a fair amount of overlap between this chapter and the chapter on blood cells. For example, T-cells are involved in _______ mediated immunity, and B-cells are involved in _________ mediated immunity
cellular, humoral
152
What is the purpose of memory cells (memory T-cells and memory B-cells)?
they are why vaccines work, response should be quicker and stronger
153
What kind of T-cells have CD4 receptors? CD8 receptors?
helper t-cells have CD4 receptors
cytotoxic t-cells have CD8 receptors
154
In what ways are helper T-cells needed? Do they do more than just help T-cells?
they activate t-cells and b-cells
155
What do suppressor T-cells prevent? What is their other name?
they are also called regulatory t-cells or T-regs
prevent overactive immune response
156
What part of an antibodies structure determines which antibody it is (IgG versus IgA etc)?
constant segment - what type of antibody
variable segment - what target they're looking for
157
The 5 classes of antibodies are IgG, IgE, IgD, IgM, and IgA. Which of them...
Plays a key role in allergic reactions?
Is in glandular secretions?
Plays a role in the sensitization of B-cells?
Is the most numerous?
Is the first to show up?
Are passed to the infant through breast milk?
IgE in allergic reactions
IgA in glandular secretions
IgD in sensitization of b cells
IgG is the most numerous (only antibodies to make it through placenta)
IgM is the first to show up (not very good)
all are passed through breast milk
158
What are the key differences between primary and secondary immune responsel
primary immune response - slower, IgM show up first but they're weak, takes 10-14 days to mount response
secondary immune response - quicker, dominated by IgG antibodies, shouldn't get sick
159
What are the key issues with allergies, autoimmune diseases, and immunodeficiency diseases?
allergies - hypersensitivity (overactive immune response)
autoimmune disease - loss of tolerance, immune system attacks normal tissue
immunodeficiency - weak immune system
160
What is anaphylactic shock?
airways constrict, vasodilation of all blood vessels making the body not have enough blood
treatment is epinephrine
161
Where does the upper respiratory system end and the lower respiratory system begin?
larynx and below is lower respiratory, anything above it is upper
162
The goal of your respiratory system is to transport and
prepare air for the gas exchange surface of the lungs, aka
__________
alveoli
163
What are the parts of the respiratory defense system?
What do they do?
mucus: traps pathogens
immune cells: engulfs pathogens and alerts immune system
ciliary escalator: takes unwanted material from mucus and takes it out of your lungs and expels it
164
The function of the nasal conchae is to create
_______________ in the nasal cavity
turbulence
165
As the air swirls around in the nasal cavity, what 3 things
are happening to it?
being filtered, warmed, and humidified
nasal conchae creates swirling of air
166
Which laryngeal cartilage is larger in men than women
(hint: Adams apple)
thyroid cartilage
167
What is the function of the epiglottis?
covers trachea or glottis when you swallow
168
What is the opening of the trachea called?
glottis
169
What holds the trachea open at all times?
15-20 C shaped cartilage rings
170
How many bronchi are there (primary, secondary,
tertiary)? How many bronchopulmonary segments are in
each lung?
primary: 2 one for each lung
secondary: 5 1 for each lobe
tertiary: 19 for bronchopulmonary segments
10 in right lung, 9 in left lung
171
Why is the right primary bronchus larger than the left?
because right lung is bigger
172
Why does the left lung only have 2 lobes?
because of the heart, it's in the way
173
Sympathetic activation causes __________________
which opens the airways
bronchodilation
174
What is the function of surfactant? What kind of cells produce it?
surfactant reduces surface tension
type 2 alveolar cells produce it
175
What is tidal volume? What is the average amount of air
moved during the tidal volume?
tidal volume is the amount of air we move in a normal breathe (500 mL)
176
What is the most important respiratory muscle?
diaphragm - 75% of quiet breathing is caused by this contracting
177
Define anabolism
something that leads to growth and requires energy
build up of something
178
catabolism
break down of something that releases energy (food)
179
ingestion
putting something in your mouth and eating it
starting process
180
mechanical processing
chewing, churning in stomach
181
digestion
chemically breaking down food
182
secretion
secrete 6-7 fluids a day
buffers, mucus
183
absorption
once we've digested food, we can now absorb it
184
excretion
what we cant digest and absorb
185
What makes an organ an accessory digestive organ?
digestive system is just your GI tract
everything else is an accessory organ
salivary glands, gallbladder, pancreas, liver
186
visceral peritoneum
layer on organ
187
parietal pertioneum
lining on the cavity
188
What does the word retroperitoneal mean? How are these organs (or organ parts) protected?
retroperitoneal means behind peritoneal cavity
they're protected by being attached to the posterior abdominal wall
examples: duodenum, pancreas, rectum, ascending and descending colon
189
What is a mesentery? What is its function?
mesentery is a double layer of a peritoneal membrane
it holds the organs in place so they stay in place
190
What is the difference between peristalsis and
segmentation?
peristalsis is movement from one area to another
segmentation is a churning process that takes place in one area to help mech. break down food
191
What is your enteric nervous system?
subconscious part of nervous system that oversees digestion
192
Remember the type of epithelia that covers each part of the GI tract from the Tissue chapter. What parts are stratified squamous? Simple columnar? What areas are keratinized? What areas have microvilli?
beginning and end of GI tract are stratified squamous epithelium (mouth, anus, esophagus)
middle of GI tract is simple columnar (stomach, small intestine, large intestine)
keratinized tissue would be the roof of your mouth
microvilli are located in simple columnar cells of the stomach, large intestine
193
How many pairs of salivary glands do you have? Why are they so important? Which glands produce the majority of your saliva?
3 pairs of salivary glands
they're important bc they produce salivary amylase, lingual lipase, and water to swallow food
70% of saliva comes from submandibular glands
194
What is the primary function of Lysozyme in saliva?
control oral bacteria
195
What is the technical term for chewing?
mastication
196
How many primary dentition (baby teeth) do we have? Permanent dentition (adult teeth)?
20 dentition teeth
32 permanent teeth
197
What are the 2 primary muscles of mastication?
temporalis muscles and masseter
198
What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?
nasal pharynx (top)
oropharynx (middle)
laryngeal pharynx (bottom)
199
What is the technical term for swallowing?
deglutition
200
There are 3 directions food and drink could possible go.
Which 2 are closed off during swallowing? How?
food can go out of your nose, through the glottis in trachea (down wrong pipe), into esophagus (correct place)
when you swallow, internal nostrils and glottis are covered
201
What is unique about the smooth muscle of the stomach?
the stomach has a third layer of smooth muscle
202
How can the stomach be full of a powerful acid and a
protein digesting enzyme without being destroyed?
a layer of mucus full of bicarbonate that protects the stomach from gastric juice
203
What are the 4 parts of the stomach?
cardia
fundus (highest portion)
body (biggest)
pylorus (attaches to duodenum)
204
Know what the parietal cells and chief cell secrete
parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
chief cells secrete pepsinogen
205
When does digestion truly begin? (called the cephalic
phase)
when we think about food
206
What are the 3 parts of the small intestine? What is the
key feature about each part?
duodenum - mixing, where chyme is mixed with bicarbonate
jejunum - where most digestion & absorption takes place,
ileum - longest portion, has peyer's patches (immune component)
207
what are the endocrine functions of the pancreas? What are the exocrine functions of the pancreas?
ENDOCRINE glands dump secretions into bloodstream, only 1%, insulin
EXOCRINE glands dump secretions through ducts
208
What are the 4 lobes of the liver?
left lobe
right lobe
caudate lobe
quadrate lobe
209
what is a liver cell called?
hepatocyte
210
What are the functional units of the liver called?
liver lobule
211
We cannot cover every one of the hundreds of things that the liver does, but what are the 3 categories of functions that it does perform?
bile production
metabolic regulation
logical regulation (cleans up old RBCs)
212
What is the function of bile? Where is it made? Where is it stored?
function is to emulsify fats (doesn't digest fat)
made in liver
stored in gallbladder
213
What are the 2 primary functions of the large intestine?
reabsorption of water
temp storage of feces
214
What are the pouches of the colon called?
haustra
215
What is the key vitamin produced by the bacteria in the large intestine?
vitamin K
216
Understand the defecation reflex
normally passing a stool
217
when inhaling, you have to __________ the volume/size of the thoracic cavity to _____________ the pressure
increase, decrease
218
when exhaling, you have to ___________ the volume/size of the thoracic cavity to ______________ the pressure
decrease, increase
219
you inhale when the pressure in your lungs is ___________ than atmospheric pressure
lower
220
you exhale when the pressure in your lungs is _____________ than atmospheric pressure
higher
221
What 2 muscles are involved in quiet inspiration? Are there any muscles involved in quiet exhalation?
quiet inspiration: diaphragm and external intercostals
quiet exhalation: no, no muscles used
222
How do you calculate respiratory minute volume?
tidal volume x respiratory rate
223
Is costal/chest breathing better or worse than
diaphragmatic/belly breathing? Why?
costal/chest breathing is worse for you because you exhaust your neck
224
What is inspiratory reserve volume? Expiratory reserve
volume?
IRV: how much more you can inhale than normal
ERV: how much more you can exhale than normal
225
Why is the vital capacity of your lungs not the same as
your total lung capacity?
because we can't control all the air in our lungs
226
Understand how diffusion of gases occurs at both the alveoli of the lungs and at a peripheral capillary bed. Can you follow a molecule of oxygen from the air you breathe until it reaches a cell? Can you follow a molecule of CO2 from the cell it was produced until you breathe it out?
diffusion: CO2 diffuses OUT of lungs. Oxygen diffuses IN your lungs from pulmonary circuit. -->
Oxygen diffuses IN and hopped on hemoglobin AND OUT when it's needed in blood. CO2 diffuses INTO blood in peripheral tissues & diffuses OUT at the lungs
227
How is most of the O2 in your bloodstream carried to and fro? How about CO2?
almost all of your O2 is carried on hemoglobin
70% of CO2 is carried as carbonic acid (CO2 becomes a weak acid).
228
Which of the above 2 gases has to be the most tightly controlled?
CO2
229
What part of the brain controls breathing? How about rate of respiration?
medulla oblongata controls breathing
pons controls rate of respiration
230
What effect does hyperventilation have on your blood gases? How about hypoventilation?
hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis --> blood ph is too high
hypoventilation is the most common cause of respiratory acidosis --> blood ph is too low
231
What is a pneumothorax? Atelectasis?
pneumothorax is the damage that separates the visceral and parietal pleura
atelectasis is a collapsed lung
232
What are the 3 primary functions of the urinary system?
1) maintaining blood volume and blood pressure
2) maintaining blood pH
3) control plasma concentration
233
Can you follow a drop of fluid on its way from the blood, to filtrate, to tubular fluid, to urine, to toilet?
capillaries --> glomerulus to become filtrate --> proximal convoluted tubule to become tubular fluid --> nephron loop/loop of henle --> distal convoluted tubes --> collecting system --> nephron --> renal papilla --> minor calyx --> major calyx --> renal pelvis --> ureter --> bladder --> urethra --> toilet
234
What is the proper term for urination?
micturition
235
What does it mean that the kidneys are retroperitoneal?
behind the peritoneal membrane
attached to posterior abdominal wall
236
Know the key parts of the kidney from a sectional anatomy standpoint.
renal pyramid
a minor calyx
major calyx
renal pevis
ureter
237
renal corpuscle
glomerulus and glomerular capsule
filtration (small things) is the key function
238
PCT
proximal convoluted tubules
reabsorption --> 70% of the water almost 100% of the small good things
239
nephron loop
water reabsorb further, 20% absorbed here
240
DCT
distal convoluted tubules
secretion is key function
drugs & toxins
241
collecting system
determines final concentration and volume of your urine
urine should be pale yellow
242
There are 2 types of nephrons. Which is more numerous? Which is better at concentrating urine?
85% of nephrons are cortical nephrons the better ones are juxtamedullary nephrons
243
How much filtrate is produced each day? How much fluid enters the collecting system?
48-50 gal of filtrate is produced at the glomerulus
less than 27 liters enters the collecting system
244
What kind of cells create the filtration slits of the renal corpuscle? What are their false feet called? What kind of capillary beds would be found here?
podocytes (feet cells)
false feet are called pedicles
fenestrated capillaries would be here (large openings)
245
What is the biggest weakness of the filtration slit/membrane?
filters out small good things, if we didn't reabsorb we would die
246
Urea and creatinine are the 2 key metabolic waste products that the kidney must deal with. Where do they come from?
urea is from breakdown of amino acids (21-23 g a day)
creatinine comes from creatinine phosphate
uric acid is the 3RD KEY METABOLIC WASTE PRODUCT (500 mg a day) too much can lead to GOUT
247
What is the renal threshold/transport maximum?
transport maximum is how many receptors do we have and how fast are they, determines renal threshold, if glucose is in urine, patients BP has to be at least 180 or higher
248
What is glomerular filtration rate? What does it tell you?
GFR is how much you filter thru kidneys per minute (123 millimeters a minute)
kidneys functioning at 100% should be able to filter 48-50 gal of filtrate
249
Why is a small drop in blood pressure at the kidneys disastrous?
they're powered by hydrostatic pressure
20% drop in renal BP would kill the kidneys
250
What percent of the filtrate that is produced a day reabsorbed as a result of obligatory water reabsorption?
85%
251
What role does ADH play in concentrating urine?
without it you would have diabetes
you would produce 27 Liters a day without it
252
What anatomical feature of the ureters prevents the
backflow of urine?
they have a funnel shape, the openings are slits all designed to keep urine from flowing back
253
What is a diuretic?
anything that increases the loss of water
ex alcohol
254
How many layers of smooth muscle are in the urinary bladder? What is this muscular layer called?
3 layers
detrusor is the muscular layer
255
What are the folds in the urinary bladder called?
rugae
same as in stomach
256
What are the 3 parts of the male urethra? Which gland causes problems urinating in men?
1) prostatic urethra
2) membranous urethra
3) spongy/penile urethra
prostate gland causes problems in urinating
257
The micturition and defecation reflexes are quite similar. Are they positive or negative feedback loop driven? Which sphincter (internal or external) is smooth muscle? What is
the key difference between the 2?
they are positive feedback loops
internal sphincter is smooth muscle
to urinate you have to relax, to defecate you have to put pressure
258
What are the male gonads? What do they produce? (both hormones and gametes)?
testicales are male gonds
they produce sperm (gamete) and testosterone/androgens (hormones)
259
What are the female gonads? What do they produce? (both hormones and gametes)?
ovaries are female gonades
estrogen/progesterone (hormone) and the egg/oocyte (gamete)
260
What are the key differences between Mitosis and Meiosis? How are they alike?
mitosis is division of body cells, one round of division
meiosis is division of sex cells, two rounds of division
261
When do the testicles descend in males? What potential anatomical problem does that cause?
7th month of development
testicles not descending is cryptorchidism
262
What is cryptorchidism?
tesicles are too warm and are sterile (if both don't descend)
263
Why are the testicles outside of the body?
because testicles need to be colder than the rest of our body
264
What is produced in the seminiferous tubules?
immature sperm
265
What cells in the testicles produce testosterone?
interstitial cells
266
What is capacitation?
process of making a functional sperm
267
Which of the 3 accessory glands (seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland) contribute the largest volume to semen?
70% of semen comes from seminal vesicles
268
What is the difference between emission and ejaculation?
emission: secretions into tubes
ejaculation: discharging of semen
269
How many corpus cavernosa are in the penis? Corpus spongiosum?
corpus cavernosa: 2
corpus spongiosum: 1
270
Is an erection caused by vasoconstriction or vasodilation?
vasodilation
271
Which pituitary hormone leads to the production of testosterone at the testis?
luteinizing hormone
272
What does testosterone become when it has been aromatized?
conversion of testosterone into female sex hormones
273
What are a couple of the reasons that women have a much larger reproductive investment than men?
takes a huge metabolic investment and calories away from mom
274
Which pituitary hormone triggers the start of the ovarian cycle?
follicle stimulating hormone
275
When does an embryo become a fetus?
8th week of pregnancy
276
What are the 2 phases of the ovarian cycle?
folicular phase: FSH and estrogen
luteal phase: LTH and progesterone
277
What are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle?
menstrual phase - getting rid of last months uterus
proliferin phase
secretory phase - grandular secretions
278
How are the 2 connected? Menses and the proliferative phase occur during which phase of the ovarian cycle?
menstrual and proliferative phase occur during the first half
279
How can you tell when ovulation occurs?
caused by spike in LH
effects temp, dip in body temp but climb in basal temp
280
What role does the Corpus Luteum play?
becomes a temp. endocrine organ that churns out progesterone
does placentas job before placenta exists
281
Where does fertilization of an oocyte typically occur?
ampula area in uterine tube
282
What is menarche? Menopause?
menarche: 1st menstrual cycle
menopause: last menstrual cycle
283
__________ is the primary hormone prior to ovulation
piuitary hormone: FSH
sex hormone: estrogen
284
Is basal body temperature higher under the influence of estrogen or progesterone?
progesterone
285
What hormone signals that fertilization and implantation
have taken place?
HCG
human chorionic gonadotropin
286
what type of epithelium is in the urinary system
cuboidal epithelium
287
urinary system and the role in acid/base balance
kidneys play a big role in maintaining pH balance
too much acid in blood --> shunt to kidneys
288
hormones in urinary system
ADH - antidiuretic, make less urine
aldosterone - decrease urine
EPO - makes more RBCs when drop in BP
renin angiotensin - raises BP
calcitriol - works w/ parathyroid hormone, absorbs as much calcium as possible
289
Know the male reproductive tract, testis to urethra
testis --> seminiferous tubule --> epididymis --> ductus deferens --> scrotum --> ejaculatory duct--> urethra
290
Know the female reproductive tracts, ovaries to urethra
ovary --> uterine tube --> uterus --> birth canal --> vagina
291
albumin
transporter and maintains osmotic concentration
prevents leakage
292
globulins
transporter and immune function
293
fibrinogen
blood clotting
294
hematocrit
the percentage of blood made up of red blood cells
295
why are RBCs shaped as discs?
to carry more oxygen and so they can slip into blood vessels (more surface area)
296
universal and recipient donor?
universal: O-
recipient: AB+
