Final Flashcards
(345 cards)
1
Q
To survive, microbial inhabitants have learned to adapt by varying all of the following except
A
Bacterial shape
2
Q
Who was considered the father of protozoology and bacteriology
A
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
3
Q
Prokaryotic cells have which of the following structures in their cytoplasm?
A
Ribosomes
4
Q
The form of DNA is commonly found in eukaryotic cells
A
Linear
5
Q
The nuclear membrane in prokaryotes is
A
Missing
6
Q
A microorganism that is a unicellular organism and lacks a nuclear membrane and true nucleus belongs to which classification?
A
Bacteria
7
Q
In the laboratory, the clinical microbiologist is responsible for all of the following, except
A
Selecting treatment for patients
8
Q
What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism?
A
Understanding the growth requirements of potential pathogens at specfic body site
9
Q
A clinical laboratory scientist is working on the bench, reading plates and notices that a culture has both a unicellular form and a filamentous form. What type of organism exhibits these forms?
A
Fungi
10
Q
All of the following statements are true viruses, except
A
Viruses do not need host cels to survive and grow
11
Q
Diagnostic microbiologists apply placement and naming bacterial organisms into all the following categories, except
A
Order
12
Q
Bacterial species that exhibit phenotypic differences are considered
A
Subspecies
13
Q
What structure is described as a phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins and sterols that regulates the type and amount of chemicals that pass in and out of a cell?
A
Plasma membrane
14
Q
What makes the interior of the plasma membrane potentially impermeable to water-soluble molecules?
A
The hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids molecules are found there
15
Q
The function of a cell wall is to
A
Provide rigidity and strength to exterior of the cell
16
Q
Name the number short (3-10 um) projections that extends from the cell surface and are used for cellular locomotion
A
Cilia
17
Q
A microbiology technologist performs a traditional bacterial stain on a colony from a wound culture that is suspected to contain bacteria from the genus clostridium. The unstained areas in the bacterial cell observed by the technologist called
A
Endospores
18
Q
This constituent of gram-positive cell walls absorbs crystal violet but is to dissolved by alcohol, this giving gram-positive cell its characteristics purple color
A
Peptidoglycan
19
Q
Mycobacteria have a gram-positive cell wall structure with a waxy layer containing these two compounds
A
Glycolipids and mycolic acid
20
Q
When performing a Gram stain on a gram-negative organisms, the crystal violet is absorbed into this outer cell wall layer and then washed away with the acetone alcohol. What is the main component of the outer layer of the cell wall?
A
Lipopolysaccharide
21
Q
The 3 regions of lipopolysaccharide include all of the following except,
A
Mycolic acid
22
Q
The outer cell wall of the gram-negative bacteria serves three important functions, which includes all the following except
A
It provides an attachment site for flagella, which will act in locomotion
23
Q
Mycoplasma and ureaplasma spp. must have media supplemented with serum or sugar at nutrients and because
A
They lack cell walls
24
Q
What is the purpose of a capsule?
A
Act as a virulence factor in helping the pathogen evade phagocytosis
25
The three basic shapes of bacteria include all the following except
Cell wall deficient
26
The gram stain is a routine stain used us bacteriology to determine gram-positive and gram-negative based on the
Composition of the bacterial cell wall
27
In what staining procedures does carbofuchsin penetrate the bacterial cell wall through heat or detergent treatment?
Acid-fast stain
28
What stain is used for medically important fungi?
Lactophenol cotton blue
29
All of the following are types of media, except
Fastidious
30
Which of the following environmental factors influence the growth of bacteria in the laboratory?
All of the above
31
Some bacteria grow at 25-42 C but diagnostic laboratories routinely grow pathogenic bacteria at what temperature?
35 C
32
Which of these bacteria cannot grow in the presence of oxygen ?
Obligate anaerobe
33
What class of organisms, such as the streptococcus spp., can survive in the presence of oxygen but do not use oxygen in its metabolic processes?
Aerotolerant anaerobe
34
The laboratory receives a specimen in which the doctor suspect that the infecting organism is carbon dioxide, it is therefore classified as what type of bacteria?
Capnophilic
35
The following describes the log phase of bacterial growth
Bacteria doubling with each generation time
36
Which is the biochemical process carries out by both obligate and facultative anaerobes?
Fermentation
37
What type of fermentation produces lactic, acetic, succinic and formic acids as the end products?
Mixed acid
38
If bacteria utilize various carbohydrates for growth, they are usually detected by
Acid production and change of color from the pH indicator
39
In the medical microbiology laboratory, the ability of gram-negative bacterium to ferment this sugar is the first set in its ID
Lactose
40
A ________ is a single, closed, circular piece of DNA that is supercoiled to fit inside a bacterial cell
Chromosome
41
Genes that code for antibiotic resistance are often found on small, circular pieces of DNA. The DNA pieces are called
Plasmids
42
What process involves transferring or exchanging genes between similar regions on two separate DNA molecules?
Recombination
43
Diphtheria is a disease produced by corynebacterium diphtheria. However, not all C. Diphtheriae bacteria produce the toxin that causes this disease. To produce the toxin, the bacteria must first become infected with a bacteriophage. The process by which bacterial genes are transferred to new bacteria by the bacteriophage is called
Transduction
44
Lysogeny occur when
Gene present in the bacteriophage DNA are incorporated into the bacteria’s genome
45
These are enzymes that cut the bacterial DNA at specific locations
Restriction enzymes
46
Organisms that participate in a biological relationship where both benefit from one another are called
Symbionts
47
Parasitism is
A biological relationship in which one species gains benefits at the expense of the host
48
The bacterial state occurs when a host harbors a disease-causing organism, but does not show signs of disease
Carrier
49
Healthy people are colonized by many different sites. These bacteria are referred to as
Indigenous flora
50
Diabetics may sometimes be infected with their own resident flora. This type of infection is called
An opportunistic infection
51
Mechanism used by the skin to prevent infection and protect the underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens include all of the following except
Antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms
52
A laboratory professional is testing a new antimicrobial soap. The tech washes her forearm, then does a culture of the skin. Which organisms should the most likely expect to find growing in the culture?
Staphylococcus epidermis and propionbacterium
53
What mechanism allow strict anaerobes to grow in the cervices and areas between the teeth plaque is present?
A low oxidation-reduction potential occurs at the tooth surface under the plaque
54
The stomach can be considered a first line of defense against microbial infections because
Most microorganisms are susceptible to the acid pH stomach
55
This type of bacteria is able to live in the colon with little to no oxygen and is the predominant organisms
Anaerobes
56
After perforation of the colon , surgeons must guard against infection in the ________ because of leakage of the contents of the colon
Peritoneal cavity
57
The human body is constantly challenged by pathogens in the environment. It is not infected by every pathogen it encounters because the microbial flora
Produce conditions at the microenvironment level that block colonization
58
The ability of an organism to produce disease in an individual is called
Pathogenicity
59
A patient with an in dwelling catheter develops a fever and lethargy. In addition, the urine in the catheter bag has turned a brownish and smells foul, which suggests an infection is present. What type of infection is present. What type of infection does this describe?
Iatrogenic
60
The smaller the number of microorganism necessary to cause infection in competent host, the more ____ and the microorganism
Virulent
61
Factors that determine the pathogenicity and increase the virulence of organism include all of the following except
An organisms ability to produce infection when host conditions change
62
The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is called
Polysaccharide capsule
63
This is a leukocidin that is lethal to leukocytes and produces by staphylococci
Payton-Valentine
64
Changes in these host structures can result in lower virulence of microorganism q
Adhesion receptors
65
After the attachment to host cells, a pathogen may use the following mechanisms to establish itself and cause disease except
Produces lysozyme to kill the host cell
66
Dissemination of a pathogen is
When infection with a pathogen spreads from the initial infection site to distant site such as organs and tissues
67
The effects off endotoxins consist of dramatic changes in all the following except
Fluid imbalance
68
A patient is brought to the emergency room with the following symptoms: body temperature of 102 F, low blood pressure, elevated WBC, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. This person has gram-negative rods growing in the blood. What is responsible for these symptoms?
Endotoxin
69
Healthy skin secretes these substances to help prevent colonization by pathogenic organisms
Long-chain fatty acids
70
Lysozyme is
A low-molecular-weight enzyme that hydrolyzes the Peptidoglycan layer of bacterial wall
71
Interferon is a substance produced by the body that inhibits viral replication. Interferon accomplishes this task by
Binding to surface receptors that stimulate the cell to synthesize enzymes that inhibit viral replication over several days
72
All of the following activities must occur for phagocytosis to take place and be effective in host defense, except
Migration of lymphocytes to the area of infection (chemotaxis)
73
This process results in enhanced phagocytosis by neutrophils
Opsonization
74
One of the most effective defenses bacteria have against phagocytosis is
The capsule
75
Innate immunity consists of which of the following components?
All of the above are part of the innate immune system
76
The major constituents of the adaptive of specific immune response are
Lymphocytes
77
The class of antibodies is usually found as a pentameter
IgM
78
A subsequent exposure to the same antigen elicits a(n)________ characterized by a rapid increase in IgG antibody associated with higher levels, a prolonged elevation and a more gradual decline in antibody levels
Anmnestic immune response
79
These are low-molecular-weight proteins secreted by T cells
Lymphokines
80
Immunity to intracellular bacterial pathogens, such as mycotoxins bacterium TB, is primarily cell mediated through the activities
T lymphocytes, lymphokines and a macrophages
81
Pathogens can be transmitted through all the following routes except
Handwashing
82
Because infections can be encountered via the air_______ can cause transmission of some pathogens
Coughing
83
The resulting disease from the route of transmission is disease of animals that is transmitted to humans
Zoonotic
84
The chemical or physical method that destroy all forms of life is called
Sterilization
85
Organisms that are the most resistant to heat, chemicals and radiation are
Prions
86
After using the phone, the laboratory tech sprayed the receiver with a chemical spray. This process will kill a defined scope of microogranisms. What is this process called?
Disinfection
87
Before performing a phlebotomy, the phlebotomist will clean the area on patients arm with a substance before inserting needle. This substance is called an
Antiseptic
88
All of the following factors play a significant role in the selection and implementation of the appropriate method of disinfection, except
Humidity
89
When eliminating organisms from inanimate objects, higher numbers of organisms require longer exposure time because
It takes longer to eliminate 99% of microorganisms
90
If this is present on a surface to be disinfected, it can shield microorganisms from the disinfectant or inactivate the disinfectant. What is this substance?
Organic material
91
Disinfectants are usually used at this temperature
20-22 C
92
Pasteurization achieves _______
Disinfection
93
Alcoholic use this mechanism to inactivate microorganisms
Denatured protein s
94
The tech needs to sterilize a piece of equipment that cannot be autoclaved or gas sterilized because the equipment contains lenses, metal and rubber components. What solution should be used to sterilize this piece of equipment?
Glutaraldehyde
95
For the most effective microbial killing, all iodophors must be properly diluted because
There must be enough free iodine to kill the microorganisms
96
Even though hypochlorites are inexpensive and have broad range of microbes that they kill, there are not used as sterilants because of
Long exposure time for sporicidal action
97
Many materials in hospitals that must be sterilized cannot withstand steam sterilization. Gas sterilization is used instead, using this gas
Ethylene oxide
98
Why should health care workers wash their hands after coming in contact with a patient?
To reduce spread of pathogenic bacteria from one individual to another
99
High level of disinfectants are active against all the following except
Parasites
100
This agency regulates the use, sale and distribution of antimicrobial pesticide products from certain inanimate, hard, nonporous surfaces under the pesticide law
Antimicrobial division of environmental protection agency (EPA)
101
These two alcohols are effective in killing enveloped viruses such as hepatitis B virus (HBV)
70% isopropyl and 95% ethanol
102
These two alcohols are effective in killing enveloped viruses such as hepatitis B virus (HBV)
70% isopropyl and 95% ethanol
103
This chemical is a saturated 5-carbon dialdehyde that has broad-spectrum activity, rapid killing action, and remains active in the presence of organic matter
Glutaraldehyde
104
These disinfectants are cationic, surface-activated agents that work by reducing the surface tension of molecules in a liquid, resulting in the disruption of the cellular membrane of microbes
Quaternary ammonium compounds
105
This organization regulates chemical skin antiseptic
FDA
106
The main goal of handwashing is to
Eliminate transient flora
107
Routine handwashing in healthcare settings mandates washing as all the following times except
When gloves become soiled during a procedure or dressing change on the same patient
108
The purpose of surgical hand scrubs and waterless hand rubs is to
Eliminate the transient flora and most of the resident flora on the skin
109
The most common iodophor used n the US for pre-operative skin preparation
Povidone-iodine
110
This topical antiseptic disrupts the microbial cell membrane and precipitates the cellular contents
Chlorhexidine gluconate
111
This compound is a diphenhydramine either and it exerts its bacterial effects by disrupting the cell wall. It has good activity against gram-positive cocci, but poor activity against fungi. What is its name?
Triclosan
112
Laboratory safety checks includes all of the following except
Isolation
113
Why is laboratory-acquired infection an obvious hazard for personnel working in a microbiology laboratory?
Personnel deal with a variety of infectious agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial
114
The comprehensive safety program from the microbiology laboratory needs to fulfill all the following provisions, except
It is specific to the hospital and does not need to conform to state, local, and federal regulations
115
All of the following organisms an typically cause infection from aerosolization of specimens, except
Staphylococcus aureus
116
What protective measures can a laboratory worker take when working with actively growing cultures to ensure that they do not become infected?
Ensure that fungal cultures are sealed and worked in bio safety cabinet
117
The laboratory exposure control plan should contain all the following except
Review of control plan every 5 years
118
Universal/ standard precautions require that
Blood and body fluids from all patients be considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease
119
Engineering controls and work practice control to ensure standard precautions are followed include all the following except
Fire blankets
120
Standard precautions do not address which of the following
Respirators
121
Safety program and work practice controls consist of all the following except
Allowing workers to eat at the bench if it gets busy and they do not have time to take a lunch break
122
All of the following are examples of PPE, except
Prescription glasses
123
The bio safety levels were categorized using all the following criteria except
The bacterial load necessary to cause infection
124
A biosafety level 1 (BSL-1) level of containment is used for organisms that
Are well classified and not known to cause disease in healthy people
125
A biosafety level 2 (BSL-2) level of containment is used for organisms that
Create a moderate potential hazard for employees and the environment
126
Because biosafety level 3 (BLS-3) organisms have the potential for aerosol transmission ad disease with there agents may have serious lethal consequences, all of the following guidelines apply to BSL-3 laboratories, except
BSL-3 laboratories should have positive air pressure
127
Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) organisms are dangerous, exotic and pose in an increased risk of aerosol-transmitted infections and life-threatening disease. Two examples of BSL-4 organisms are
Marburg and Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever
128
OSHA requires laboratories to have this document to ensure that laboratory personnel gave a thorough working knowledge of the hazards of the chemicals with which they work
Chemical hygiene plan
129
A material safety data sheet (MSDS) contains all the following information, except
Classification of a chemical (acid, base , protein)
130
If a laboratory use hazardous chemical, it must
Keep a chemical inventory and MSDs on hand
131
Laboratory safety for hazardous chemicals includes
Using fume hoods to prevent inhalation of fumes
132
Most institution use the RACE acronym to respond to a fire emergency. Race stands for
Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish
133
Three levels of laboratories outlined in the laboratory response network (LRN) include all the following except
First responders
134
In the LRN programs, hospital based microbiology laboratories are classified as this type of laboratory
Sentinel
135
Category A bioterrorism agents
Pose the highest threat because they are easily transmitted and highly infectious
136
One bioterrorismis suspected, a sentinel laboratory should perform all culture manipulation using these safety guidelines
BLS-3
137
Quality control is designed to
Ensure the medical reliability of laboratory data
138
Actual laboratory testing is called an
Analytic activity
139
All of the following activities will directly affect the quality of laboratory test, except
Accreditation
140
In January 2004. The joint commission (TJC) implemented performance measurements from organizational systems that are critical to patient safety, quality of care, treatment, and service. This new initiative is called
Shared visions new pathway
141
As of the following activities are included in a laboratory quantity control program except
Air quality
142
The morning technician arrives at the microbiology laboratory and goes around checking daily temperatures. This person will check temperatures daily on all of the following equipment, except `
Centrifuges
143
Thermometers used in the laboratory must be calibrated before the are put into use. This is accomplished by
Checking against an NIST thermometer
144
Preventative maintenance on an instrument includes all the following except
Disinfecting the surface of the instrument
145
Commercial media must have quality control testing performed by the manufacturers. Because of high failure rates, all of the following media must be retested by the hospital laboratory, except
Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood
146
Media that do not need to be retested by the hospital laboratory must still undergo observation for tall of the following except
Organism Colony characteristics
147
Reagents that should undergo quality control in the microbiology laboratory include all of the following except
Immersion oil
148
Susceptibility testing of control organisms is usually conducted daily until precision can be demonstrated with _____ or ______ days of susceptibility testing using CLS guidelines
20; 30; consecutive
149
How can personnel competency be determined?
Proficiency testing
150
Quality control stock cultures are available from all of the following, except
CDC
151
Popular media choices for maintaining stock cultures include
Tryptic soy agar deeps
152
Mulitple unlabeled specimen have been sent to the laboratory from multiple in-patient locations. The laboratory manager decides corrective action needs to occur. What should be constructed to evaluate and correct the problem?
Make a cross-functional team
153
When is a broken process fixed?
When the problem is prevented from happening again
154
What is benchmarking?
Seeking in an industry’s or professions best practices to imitate and improve
155
When performing tests in the microbiology laboratory, the detection limit of a test refers to the ______ of the test
Analytic sensitivity
156
A technician is performing a chemistry test on a control sample. The technician gets the following values from the control: 4.3, 4.3, 4.3, 4.2, 4.4, 4.3, 4.2 and 4.4. The actual value is 4.3. The results are said to be
Accurate
157
A test is performed on a group of 10 patients. Six patients have a disease, and four are free or the disease. If six patients (all known to have to the disease) of this group test positive for the disease, we say that the clinical sensitivity of this test is
100%
158
A group of 10 patients are to be tested: six are known to have a disease and four are disease free. If the four disease free patients tested negative for this disease, what would the clinical specificity of this test be?
100%
159
Incidence is
The number of new cases of disease over a period of time
160
A test can have a positive and a negative predicative value (NPV). All of the following elements are needed to compute the positive and NPV of a test, except
Type of disease being tested
161
Usually, negative test results are more reliable in predicting
The absence of disease
162
The efficacy of a test indicates
The % of patients who are correctly identified as having or not having the disease
163
Screening is
Used for testing large population of patients
164
Confirmation is used after
Obtaining a positive screening result
165
When choosing a test to perform in your laboratory, an in-house verification is always performed. Verification of a test
Serves to establish that the performance parameters of the test are satisfactory
166
Test validation is the ongoing process of providing information that a test is performing correctly. The components of validation include all the following except
Specimen requirements
167
All of the following provide guidelines to ensure the continual correct performance of tests, except
CDC
168
Data generated by the laboratory is directly influenced by
The quality of the specimen and its condition when received
169
To assist hospital personnel in collecting the highest quality specimen, the laboratory should
Develop a well-written handbook and make it available at every patient care unit
170
The goal of the specimen collector when collecting specimens for culture should be to
Maintain the viability of the living organism at the site with minimal contamination
171
Why is it acceptable for a fecal sample to be collected in a non sterile container?
Many types of bacteria call the intestinal tract home; the specimen cannot become contaminated
172
Swabs are appropriate for specimens collected from all the following sites, except
Urine
173
How should specimen collection instruction be given to the patient to ensure collection of a good specimen for culture?
Both verbal and written instruction in simple language
174
Why is the clean-catch midstream urine used from a urine culture as opposed a clean catch urine?
The first portion of the urine flow washes contaminants from the Thera and the next portion of urine is more representative of the bladder
175
Sputum specimens are often collected for diagnosis of
Bacterial pneumonia
176
The best way to minimize the amount of upper respiratory flora in a sputum specimen is to follow such of these procedures ?
Have the patient rinse the mouth with water and expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough directly into a sterile container
177
The specimen of choice for detecting GI pathogens is
A stool specimen
178
The specimen of choice for detecting GI pathogens is
A stool specimen
179
Proper ID of each specimen includes a label firmly attached to the container with all of the following information except
Diagnosis
180
To perform a quality laboratory analysis, the laboratory needs specfic information regarding the patient and the specimen. What can be critical weak link in the specimen management process?
Incomplete information on the requisition
181
To perform a quality laboratory analysis, the laboratory needs specfic information regarding the patient and the specimen. What can be critical weak link in the specimen management process?
Incomplete information on the requisition
182
The requisition form should provide all the following information except
Patient home address
183
If a test is not considered appropriate for the specimen, the following should happen
The laboratory needs to communicate with the physician to determine exactly what needs to be done
184
All specimens must be transported
In leakproof secondary containers
185
A safe method of transporting aspirated wound material would be in
An anaerobic transport system
186
What is the primary goal in the transportation of specimens to the laboratory?
The maintain the specimen are near its original state as possible with minimal deterioration
187
If transport of the specimen is delayed the specimen can be maintained by all of the following except
Saltwater
188
A night technician is working in microbiology when a CSF specimen comes in. Almost simultaneously, the technician is called to the ER to draw blood on seriously injured car crash victims. How would the technician store the CSF until time permits to work on the CSF specimen?
Place the specimen in a 35C incubator where it is good for up to 6 hours
189
Two types of specimens can use preservatives to maintain them until they can be delivered to the laboratory. They are
Urine, stool
190
Specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovium are mixed with anticoagulants right after collection. Why should this occur?
Organisms become bound up in the clotted material and are difficult to isolate
191
The purpose of transport media is to
Ensure the preservation of microorganisms in the specimen
192
In certain instances, it is desirable for specimens to be inoculated directly onto culture media Specimens for this pathogen can be transport system called a James E. Martin Biological Environment Chamber (JEMBEC) system. What pathogen is this ?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
193
The shipment of clinical specimens and cultures of microorganisms is governed by a complex set of national and international guidelines issued by
The department of Transportation (DOT) and U.S. postal service
194
How does the DOT define an infectious substance?
A metrical known to contain or is suspected of containing a pathogen that causes disease in humans or animals
195
A technician receives a package from a supplier of quality control microorganisms. The package has a small watertight vial in a larger watertight tube. The larger tube has some bubble wrap around it ,but the larger tuber is just placed in the fiberboard box. All of the following was right with this packaging, except
The primary receptacle was placed the secondary container with no absorbent material
196
All of the four levels represents a possible scheme for prioritizing the handling of specimens except,
Level 4; anticoagulated
197
Types of specimens that can be batch processed. Including all the following except
Specimens for fastidious organisms
198
All of the following are examples of suboptimal specimens that must be rejected, except
The specimen is for Neisseria Gonorrhoeae (GC) culture and submitted in a JEMBEC system
199
Notations from macroscopic (gross) examination of a specimen should include all the following except
What type of container the specimen was collected in
200
The direct microscopic examination is a useful tool for all the following reasons except
It can tell the physician what type of normal flora is present on the smear and if it is anaerobic or aerobic
201
Direct microscopic examination are not recommended for all the following specimen course except
Urethral discharge from a male
202
Nonselective media supports
The growth of most non-fastidious microbes
203
Selective media
Support the growth of one type of group of microbes, but not another
204
Differential media
Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media
205
Enriched media
Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers
206
An enrichment broth is
A liquid medium designed too encourage the growth of small numbers of a particular organism while suppressing other flora
207
How is culture media selected for specimen plating
The selection of media to inoculate based on the type of specimen submitted for culture and the organisms likely to be involved in the infectious process
208
Routine primary plating media include all of the following items, except
Special biochemical media
209
What method is used to concentrate specimens to increase recovery of pathogens in the microbiology laboratory
?
Centrifugation
210
What technique is used to isolate bacterial colonies when inoculating organisms onto an agar plate?
Isolation streaking
211
When using the isolation streaking technique, the greatest concentration of organisms (if present) will be in which quadrant?
First
212
When using the isolation streaking technique, the most isolated forms of the organism should be in which quadrant?
Fourth
213
When using the isolation streaking technique, the most isolated forms of the organism should be in which quadrant?
Fourth
214
If a 0.001 mL quantitative loop is used to inoculate plate media for a urine culture, each colony of growth represents how many organisms per mLs in the original sample?
1000 organisms
215
Most bacterial cultures are incubated at this temperature range
35-37 C
216
Aerobes are bacteria that grow
In ambient air
217
Microaerophiles are bacteria that grow
In reduced oxygen concentration but increased carbon dioxide concentrations
218
Capnophiles are bacteria that grow
An increased carbon dioxide concentrations
219
Anaerobes are bacteria that grow
Where little or no oxygen is present
220
Cultures for anaerobes and broth cultures may be incubated for
5-7 days
221
Cultures for anaerobes and broth cultures may be incubated for
5-7days
222
All of the of the following are questions that microbiology technologist will ask while reading and interpreting the growth of cultures except
How long has this culture been incubated?
223
All of the of the following are questions that microbiology technologist will ask while reading and interpreting the growth of cultures except
How long has this culture been incubated?
224
When plating a nonroutine culture on primary culture media, the technician should ask all the following question except `
What anaerobic bacteria will be present in this specimen
225
No routine specimens can include all the following specimen types, except
Syringe needle
226
To help the microbiologist report microbiology results to the physician in a timely fashion to ensure the appropriate treatment, the technician may use this report
Preliminary
227
Cultures results
Confirm the correctness of the therapeutic choices already made and implemented
228
A centrifuge is an excellent method of preparing non-viscous fluids, because
It deposit cellular elements and microorganisms from the specimen onto the surface of a glass slide a monolayer
229
The purpose of a simple stain is to
Color the forms and shapes present
230
In the microbiology laboratory, this instrument is routinely used to examine smears for structures that are too small to be seen with the unaided eye
Compound microscope
231
Polymicrobial presentations in smears require more interpretation and must take into account all the following except
Method used to make the smear
232
Commonly encountered poly-microbiology infections are common in
Perirectal abscesses
233
When a laboratory professional examines a specimen smear, he or she should be looking for all the following except
Mucus
234
Why should laboratory professionals look for contamination of a specimen by normal microbial flora?
Contamination of specimens with normal flora that are not collected from sterile sites diminishes the value of the culture studies
235
When examining specimen smears for pathogenic bacteria, this is important to note
Intracellular and extracellular forms
236
Because cell wall-damaged bacteria, antibiotic-treated bacteria, or dead bacteria may appear falsely gram-negative, the following are considered “critical co-characteristics” that assist in the interpretation of the smear include
Shape size
237
if a symptomatic patient presents to a physician with and infection, the physician will treat the patient with antibiotics. What role does the laboratory play in antibiotic selection if the physician has already treated the patient before receiving the culture results?
The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis
238
All of the following are signs of acute inflammation on a bacterial smear except
Mucus
239
All of the following cells reflect chronic inflammation except
Neutrophils
240
A bacterial smear may indicate a poly microbial infection when
More than one morphologic type of bacteria is present on the smear
241
Bartlett method for scoring sputum and the Murray-Washington assessment associate what with unacceptable sputum specimens?
10-20 squamous epithelial cells/ 10x field
242
Contamination materials include all of the following except
Crystallized gram stain
243
The most bothersome contaminating materials for the laboratory professional are those that
Contain microorganisms that will grow in culture and confuse the culture evaluation
244
Local material that may be added in the criteria for accepting or rejecting a respiratory specimen include all the following except
Bacterial ropes
245
To assist the physician and the laboratory professional in interpreting sputum smears, all of the following local materials are quantitated except
Mucus
246
What elements should be included in the direct examination of a microbial smear?
Only these elements useful in characterizing the specimen
247
You are working in a microbiology laboratory and receive a sputum culture. You perform a Gram stain on the sputum, and get the following results: 3+gram-positive cocci, greater than 25 epithelial cells/ 10x field, and heavy mucus. What do these results indicate
An unacceptable specimen and work up that should be limited to basic ID of bacteria
248
Colony morphology is defined as
Colony characteristics
249
Which of the following descriptions will directly facilitate ID of bacteria?
Physical characteristics of colony morphology
250
An upper respiratory specimen contains many indigenous organisms which may be time consuming, cost prohibitive and insurmountable. What should be microbiologist do?
Differentiate the potential pathogens from the “usual” inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract and direct the diagnostic work up only to potential pathogens
251
When microbiologists set up a biochemical ID on a suspected pathogen from a culture, they must
Correlate colony characteristics with the suspected ID of the organism
252
Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial morphology of organisms on primary culture after how many hours of incubation?
18-24 hours
253
Plate reading is
A comparative examination of bacteria growth on a variety of culture media
254
Marco key (MAC) agar is used to
Differentiate between lactose fermenters and lactose nonfermenters
255
Marco key (MAC) agar is used to
Differentiate between lactose fermenters and lactose nonfermenters
256
A microbiologist is reading stool culture plates. She is looking for enteric pathogens on the MAC plate. What do they look like?
Clear, colorless colonies
257
A microbiologist is reading still culture plates. She sees an organism that has dry, pink colony with a surrounding “halo” of pink on MAC. What is a good presumptive ID of this organism?
Escheriochia/citrobacter-like organism
258
The relative concentration of bacteria on culture plates in directly proportional to
The concentration in which they are present in the clinical specimen
259
Alpha Beta hemolysis is
Partial lysing of the RBCs in a BAP around and under the colony
260
Beta-hemolysis is
Complete clearing or RBCs in a BAP around and under the colony
261
Gamma (y)-hemolysis is
When organisms have no lytic effect on the RBC in the BAP
262
Colonies growing on the SBA have discolored the media to a green color around and under the colonies. This is a consistent with which type of hemolysis?
Delta
263
The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a wide, deep, clear zone around and under the colonies. This is consistent with which type of hemolysis?
Gamma (no hemolysis)
264
When differentiating colony size on the culture place, what organisms generally have the larger colonies by comparison?
Gram-negative rods
265
The edge of the colonies is described as all the following except
Glasslike
266
Colonies of Bacillus anthracite are described as
Medusas heads
267
Swarming is
A hazy blanket of growth on the surface of the agar that extends way beyond the streak lines
268
A microbiologist is a reading a vaginal culture. She sees the very white colonies that are non-hemolytic on a BAP but appear to have feet. What organism could this possibly be?
Yeast
269
The elevation of bacterial colonies is described by all of the following except
Pointed
270
A term used to describe colonies that resemble coins is
Umbilicate
271
The density of the bacterial colony can be described by all the following except
Ground glass
272
The term used to describe colonies that are solid in color and that do not allow any light to pass through it
Opaque
273
All of the following terms are used to describe the consistency of a bacterial colony, except
Smooth
274
All of the following colors are commonly used to describe bacteria, except
Orange
275
What organism forms a small, fuzzy-edged colony with an umbonate center on blood or CHOC agar?
Eikenella corrodes
276
What organism forms a small, fuzzy-edged colony with an umbonate center on blood or CHOC agar?
Eikenella corrodes
277
When looking at a tube of thioglycollate broth, streamers or vines and puffballs are visible. What organism grows like this in thioglycollate?
Streptococcus Spp
278
All of the folllowing characteristics are used to describe bacterial colony characteristics except
Temperature
279
Nucleic Aid hybridization is
Coupling of complementary single-stranded nucleic acid molecule
280
The target nucleic acid strand is
The DNA or RNA sequence unique to the organism of interest
281
The probe is
Used to detect the target nucleic acid molecule
282
Common uses of probes include all of the following except
Abnormal WBC detection
283
The variables that affect the outcome of a given hybridization reaction include all of the following except
Organic acid concentration
284
How is stability of given hybrid Calculated?
By determining the melting temperature of a probe
285
How do high probe concentrations affect a given by hybridization reaction?
Lower the reaction time
286
Many hybridization assay conditions are based on the expectation that a probe
Has exact complementarity to the target nucleic acid
287
In hybridization reaction, the pH affects
the stability of double-stranded nucleic acid molecules in solution
288
the function of the probe is to
form a duplex with every complementary sequence available in the reaction
289
which of the following compounds are used for labeling probes?
Fluorescein
290
the principle of solid support hybridization (often called blotting) is:
the target sequence is part of the solid and the probe, which is in isolation, hybridizes to the target s
291
The Southern blot test separates
DNA
292
the steps of performing the southern blot test include all the following except
after labeled probe is hybridized to specific target, the DNA is electrophoresed again, then dried and read
293
A northern blot is used to detect
RNA
294
The steps is separated the Northern blot test include all of the following except
the membrane is then transferred to a gel so that the RNA can be immobilized in the gel
295
In situ hybridization, first described 1969, is where
DNA or RNA can be detected directly in tissue with labeled probes
296
the principle of in-solubility hybridization is
the hybridization between a labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells
297
PCR includes all of the following except
gene expression
298
this piece of instrumentation is a integral part of the PCR process
thermal cycler
298
In a PCR, the target DNA is
exponentially amplified over many cycles of PCR
299
PCR requires all of the following components except
DNA helicase
299
During the denaturation step in PCR
the target double-strained DNS is separated into single strands
300
the goal of the pirmer annealing step is to
hybridize oligionucleotide primers to the denatured, single stranded target DNA strands
301
what is the purpose of the primer extension
to produce PCR products
302
The most commonly used polymerase is
Taq DNA polymerase
303
the cation is required for the proper function of Taqman DNA polymerase
Mg
304
one of the most significant drawbacks of PCR is
the process is easily contaminated
305
what chemical has been very successful in reducing carryover from PCR assays?
Uracil-N-Glycosylate
306
The most common nucleic acid stain used after separation by agarose gel electrophoresis is
ethidium bromide
307
the advantage of real-time PCR over stranded PCR include all of the following except
real-time PCR assay will contaminate equipment, reagents, and workspaces
308
What is the fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) methodology ?
the transfer of energy is made from a donor dye molecule to an acceptor dye
309
a scorpian primer
uses a single oligionucleotide to prime a specific sequence and to detect accumulated PCR product
310
The most sensitive technique available for detecting and quantifying messenger RNA is
Reverse transcriptase PCR
311
multiplex PCR is good for
simultaneously detecting two or more different targets from one PCR tube
312
Nested PCR is very sensitive and specific becasue
the assay itself basically serves as a form on internal control and ensures specificity
313
NASBA stands for?
Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification
314
Accurate epidemological surveillance of specific organisms is needed for all the following reasons except
the increase in nosocomial infections
315
all of the following non amplified typing technique are used to differentiate strains of an organism except
multilocus sequence typing
316
all of the following are amplified typing techniques are used to differentiate strains for an organism exce[t
PFGE
317
this method is good for separating large DNA fragements is a low-percentage, low-melt agarose gel by an angled electrical field that periodically changes orientation
PFGE
318
this method analyzes gene expression polymorphism by analyzing proteins
multilocus enzyme electrophoresis
319
this technique is popular method of DNA fingerprinting
Random amplified polymorphic DNA
320
when an organisms genome is sequenced, all of the following information can be obtained except
disease causing mechanisms
321
the basis for this method is a microscopic grouping of DNA molecules attached to solid support mechanism. Silicon chips, glass, or plastic have been used as he solid surfaces. what method is this ?
DNA ,microarray
322
what is proteomics
the study of proteins on a cellular level
323
relatively nontoxic antimicrobial therapeutic agents include all of the following except
heavy metals
324
Antibiotics work by targeting all of the following except
bacterial plasmid DNA
325
which of the following is public health issues uniting scientists from across the world to develop strategies to address it
antibiotic resistance
326
Mechanism that mediate intrinsic antibiotic resistance include all of the following except
alternate biosynthesis pathways
327
antibiotic mechanism of action target all the following except
blocking the Embden-Meyerhof pathway
328
Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria have an inner cytoplasmic membrane that is composed fo
phospholipids and proteins
329
In gram-positive bacteria, this is substantially thicker and more multilayered than in gram-negative bacteria
peptidoglycan
330
The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria composed of
lipopolysaccharides, phospholipids and porin proteins
331
all of the following are beta-lactate antibiotics except
monotrepenes
332
Pencillins, cephalosporins. monobactams, and carbapenems all have this ring in there structure that is responsible for inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction, resulting in bacterial lysis and cell death
beta-lactam
333
what is the mechanism of action of the glycopeptides (vancomycin and teicoplaninin)?
the glycopeptides bind to the substrate of the transpeptidation enzyme and disrupt the cell membrane construction
334
which antibiotic inhibits folate synthesis, proving the essential precursor molecule, pyridine thymidylate, needed in DNA synthesis?
sulfamethoxazole
335
this antibiotic affects the DNA replication by targeting topoisomerases II and IV, enzymes considered important in controlling DNA replication
quinolone
336
this antibiotic interferes with DNA transcription by blocking of RNA chain elongation
rifampin
337
All of the following antibiotics target the 50S ribosomal subunit to prevent mRNA translation in the bacteria except
quinelones
338
these antibiotics are cationic carbohydrate-contaning molecules and their positive charge provides the basis for the interaction with the 30S ribosomal subunit. What class of antibiotics are these?
aminoglycosides
339
the members of the polyketide class of the antibiotic include all the following exce[t
Oxycycline
340
the members of the macrolide class of antibiotics include all the following except q
Rifamycin
341
these two classes of antibiotics allow initiation and mRNA translation to begin, but they act by inhibiting peptide elongation
macrolides and tetracyclines
342
all of the following are recently approved classes of antibiotics that target protein synthesis, excpt
sixth generation cephalosporins
343
Unit 2
#99
