Unit 6 Flashcards
(281 cards)
1
Q
The genome of a virus is composed of?
A
Any of the above
*Single-stranded DNA
*RNA
*double-stranded DNA
2
Q
What requirements do viruses have for replications?
A
They must be inside a living cell
3
Q
What is the correct sequence of viral infection of naked viruses?
A
Attachment, penetration, replication, cell lysis
4
Q
When is the best time to collect a specimen for culture from a patient suspected of having a viral disease?
A
Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms
5
Q
What is the composition of viral transport media?
A
Isotonic buffered saline with protein
6
Q
What is an unsuitable temperature for virsuses because it allows the development of ice crystals?
A
-20C
7
Q
All of the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections, except
A
Growth on artificial media
8
Q
Which of the following describes cytopathic effects seen in viral culture?
A
The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus
9
Q
The cytopathic effect demonstrating intranuclear inclusions is associated with
A
CMV
10
Q
The noroviruses are most noted for producing
A
Gastroenteritis
11
Q
Which of the following is the best description of a primary cell culture?
A
It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer and in which very little cell division occurs
12
Q
Which of the following describes a diploid cell culture that is not a primary culture?
A
It is a culture of cells that can divide, but passage is limited to about 50 generation
13
Q
Which of the following is the description of continuous cell cultures?
A
Cells often have variable numbers of chromosomes and can be sub cultured indefinitely
14
Q
What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of viral infection?
A
Syncytia
15
Q
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by
A
Coronavirus
16
Q
Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infection except
A
Meningitis
17
Q
What type of genome do herpesviruses have?
A
- dsDNA
18
Q
Which virus has been linked to Kaposi sarcoma?
A
Human herpesvirus 8
19
Q
Which serologic marker would be expected to be found in the serum of someone successfully vaccinated against Hepatitis B virus (HBV)?
A
Anti-HBs
20
Q
Presence of this HBV serologic marker indicates is highly infectious
A
HBs antigen
21
Q
What virus causes genital herpes?
A
Herpes simplex virus type 2
22
Q
Symptomatic congenital infection with CMV includes all the following except
A
Meningitis
23
Q
Complications of EBV infection include all the following except
A
Acute glomerulonephritis
24
Q
Which cancer is associated with EBV?
A
Burkitts lymphomas
25
What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause?
Chickenpox
26
What type of cancer is associated with HPV?
Cervical
27
What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children?
Rotavirus
28
Poliovirus is transmitted primarily by
Fecal-oral
29
Which one of the following viruses causes a viral hemorrhagic fever?
Ebola virus
30
What virus causes Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?
Sin Nombre virus
31
What virus is the most common cause of Arboviral encephalitis in the world?
Japanese Encephalitis (JE) virus
32
What is the most common flavivirus infection in the United States?
St. Louis Encephalitis
33
What virus causes the measles?
Rubeola virus
34
What is the most common virus isolated from infant with lower respiratory infections and cause croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis and interstitial pneumonia?
RSV
35
What virus is the major cause of common cold?
Rhinovirus
36
Which of the following is true of the virus the causes of AIDS?
Human retrovirus
37
What viral genus causes rabies?l
Lyssavirus
38
Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen?
Hepatitis C virus
39
What is a prion?
A proteinaceous infectious particle
40
What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru and “mad cow” disease?
Prion
41
What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru and “mad cow” disease?
Prion
42
What virus causes immune suppression in the host by targeting and destroying the hosts CD4+ T cells?
HIV
43
The classic example of a bite-wound infection is
Rabies
44
How is hepatitis B transmitted
Blood and body fluids
45
Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal-oral route?
Hepatitis A
46
Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a live transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer?
Heptatits C
47
All of the following are identifiable viral agents of gastrointertitis except
CMV
48
The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with HBV and HIV is
Needle stick
49
Infection with CMV in non immune pregnant women can cause
Microencephalopathy
50
When reading culture plates from respiratory specimens, what must the microbiologist take into consideration?
The types of organisms normally found at the culture site
51
What does the presence of a-hemolytic colonies on a throat culture indicate?
These organisms are normal microbiota found in the pharynx
52
What should a microbiologist do if he or she finds a-hemolytic colonies on a properly collected sputum specimen on a patient suspected of having lobar pneumonia?
Do a full workup to identify the organism
53
A patients normal pharyngeal biota can be altered by all of the following except
Visiting a nursing home
54
All of the following factors can help the microbiologist differentiate between colonization and infection except
Presence of a pure culture or mixed biota on the culture plates
55
What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia adults?
Streptococcus pneumonia
56
What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections?
All of the above
*obstruction by a foreign body
*alterations in the viscosity of the mucus
*immature anatomica development
57
What bacterium may cause up to 50% of all cases of pneumonia in the summer months?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
58
What is helpful when initiating antimicrobial therapy?
Knowing the pathogens most likely to cause a particular type of infection
59
Elements of the respiratory tract that can help prevent infection include
All of the above
*nasal hair
*normal microbiota
*coughing
60
All the following are virulence factors that allow microorganisms to produce disease, except
Mucus production
61
Why is pharyngitiis produced by group A streptococcus treated with antimicrobial agents?
To prevent rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
62
What are the two most frequently identified bacterial causes of community-acquired sinusitis?
Streptococcus pneumonia and haemophilus influenzae
63
Acute sinusitis usually occurs as a complication of
The common cold
64
What common condition will predispose individuals to acute sinusitis?
Allergies
65
All of the following are complications of acute sinusitis except
Acute pharyngitis
66
What organism are most frequently isolated from cultures of Individuals with otitis media?
Strepcoccus pneumonia and haemophilus influenza
67
What is the most common localized infection of the upper respiratory tract in preschool-age patients?
Otitis media
68
Why do most physicians treat otitis media empirically?
The predominant infection causing organisms are known
69
What organism is the predominant cause of epiglottis?
Haemophilus influenza
70
What is the most common complication of pertussis?
Pneumonia
71
What is the specimen of choice for recovery of Bordetella pertussis?
Nasopharyngeal swabs
72
What virus causes community-wide seasonal outbreaks of bronchiolitis in infants?
Respiratory syncytial virus
73
How is acute bronchitis differentiated from acute pneumonia?
The degree and extent of involvement of the lower respiratory tract with the infectious process
74
Most influenza epidemics and pandemics
Follow a recombination event in causative agents genome
75
What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months?
Viral pathogens
76
Patient with influenzae virus infection are predisposed to
Secondary bacterial pneumonia
77
Nosocomial pneumonia is commonly caused by all of the following except
Streptococcus pneumonia
78
What is empyema?
A collection of Purulent fluid in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall
79
What is a chronic pneumonia?
A pneumonia that appears to resolve clinically, but where radiographic lung abnormalities persist for a long period
80
What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
81
All of the following are potentially pathogenic organisms found in the nasopharyngeal of healthy individuals except
Streptococcus mutans
82
What is the most common bacterium found on the skin’?
Coagulate-negative staphylococci
83
Which of the following organisms is responsible for for impetigo?
Streptococcus pyogenes
84
A group of swim team members breaks out in a rash folliculitis) the day after swimming at the pool. What organism is probably responsible for this outbreak?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
85
What is a form of follicilitis in bearded men?
Sycosis Barbae
86
Which of these is an abscess that extends more deeply into the subcutaneous tissue and may have multiple draining sites?
Carbuncle
87
Besides antimicrobial therapy, how are most carbuncles treated?
Surgical drainage
88
What condition presents as a localized area of mildly painful erythema, warmth, and swelling of the skin with poorly demarcated margins?
Cellulitis
89
What is erysipelas?
A superficial form of cellulitis
90
What is the most well-known type of myonecrosis?
Gas gangrene
91
What condtion causes the nail margin to become painful, red, warm and swollen with pus?
Paronychia
92
What organism is known to cause severe necrotic cellulitis and primary sepsis?
Vibrio vulnificus
93
Purpura fulminant, a skin manifestation of disseminated intravascular coagulation, is associated with which condition?
Meningococcemia
94
What happen in the later stages of toxic shock syndrome as a result of the production of toxic shock syndrome toxin-1?
Desquamation
95
What causes scarlet fever?
Erythrogenic toxin
96
What organism produces “rat bite fever?”
Steptobacillus moniliformis
97
What organisms causes the Buruli ulcer?
Mycobactrium ulcerans
98
What is the best method of diagnosing scabies?
Skin scrapings
99
The clinical syndrome of Rocky Mountain spotted fever Can be confused with which of the following conditions?
Meningococcemia
100
A common cause of eumycetoma
Madurella sp.
101
What is a circumscribed, hyperkeratotic, rough-textured, painless papule called?
Wart
102
What disease results from a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that presents as vesicular eruption in a unilateral dermatomal distribution?
Shingles
103
What is hepatitis whitlow?
Primary herpetic lesions of the finger
104
What causes rubeola?
Paramyxovirus
105
What causes rubella?/
Togaviridae
106
What causes erythemia infectionsum?
Parvovirus
107
All of the following viruses cause a characteristic viral syndrome, which includes severe bleeding manifestations except
Junin virus
108
What is ringworm?
A fungal skin infection
109
What is thrush?
Oral candidiasis
110
What is swimmers itch?
Cercariae larvae penetrate human skin, causing dermatitis
111
In august, a 30 year old man presents with an ulcer on his leg with swelling of the lymph nodes in the surrounding area. He reports taking numerous hikes in the woods behind is house hunting rabbits. He does not recall any animal bites. What disease should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Tularemia
112
What is the most significant predisposing factor to clostridium difficile-associated disease?
Antimicrobial therapy
113
All of these patient history questions will help focus the search for the cause of diarrhea, except
Did the patient eat any hot food?
114
The urea breath test is a noninvasive test to detect infection caused by
Helicobacter pylori
115
Presence of red colonies with black centers on xylose-lysine-decarboxylase medium is indicative of
Nonlactose fermenter and H2S positive
116
What defense mechanism does the colon have to guard against infection?
IgA secretion
117
What is the most common cause of travelers diarrhea?
E. Coli
118
What is the most common cause of death patients with diarrhea?
Dehydration
119
What type of diarrheal illness has no fever and no blood or pus in the stool?
Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins
120
What type of diarrheal illness has a rapid onset of symptoms after food ingestion (usually <12 hours)?
Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins
121
All of the following organisms can cause enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea, except
Salmonella typhi
122
What type of diarrheal illness produces fever, leukocytosis is PB and fecal leakocytes?
Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface in invaded
123
All of the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surfaces to produce diarrhea, except
Vibrio cholerae
124
What common organism invades the full thickness of the bowel with lymphatic spread?
Salmonella typhi
125
The presence of yellow colonies on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-salt-sucrose medium is suggestive of
Vibrio cholerae
126
What virus is the leading cause of diarrhea in children younger than age 5 years?
Rotavirus
127
What virus causes an acute self-limited diarrheal illness that is highly contagious through contaminated food, water, fomites or person-to-person contact and is associated with vomiting and low-grade fever?
Norovirus
128
A fecal isolate identified as E. Coli produces clear colonies on MacConkey agar with sorbitol
Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli
129
What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in the world?
Campylobacter jejuni
130
Disease caused by which of the following organisms has fever, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and stools with gross blood and pus?
Campylobacter jejuni
131
What is the environmental reservoir of campylobacter?
Wild and domestic animals
132
What organism that causes gastrocenteritis can be found in aquaculture-farmed fish?
Salmonella
133
What organ is colonized in a patient that carries salmonella typhi?
Gallbladder
134
What toxin does Shigella spp. produce?
Shiga
135
What diarrheal pathogen can produce a disease that can lead to hemolytic-uremic syndrome?
Enterophemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
136
What types of stools are characteristic of someone who has cholera?
Rice water stools
137
A man and his family drive to the coast and have an oyster dinner. A couple of days later, the man arrives at the emergency department with a fever, bullous skin lesions, and diarrhea. He is extremely ill and appears septic. The microbiologist notices curved gram-negative rods on the stool gram stain. What is the most probable organism causing this condition?
Vibrio vulnificus
138
What is the most important cause of iatrogenic diarrhea in adults?
Clostridium difficile
139
What is the most commonly identified intestinal parasite in the United States?
Giardia lamblia
140
Although uncommon, what intestinal parasite is known to leave the colon and cause metastatic disease, especially liver abscesses?
Cryptosporidium parvum
141
A physician has requested a stool culture for Yersinia, which of the following would be the most appropriate medium to use?
Colistin-irgasan-novobiocin
142
All of the following organisms are commonly implicated in a foodborne outbreak, except
Salmonella typhi
143
A microbiologist is reading a gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance. What is the most likely organism?
All of the above
144
What organism grows a best at 42 C and in a reduced oxygen atmosphere (5-10%)?
Campylobacter jejuni
145
This is a form of food poisoning that can be life threatening even from otherwise healthy patients
C. Botulinum
146
What is the volume of CSF in an average adult?
90-150 mL
147
All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis, except
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
148
A college student is examined at the emergency department; he is disoriented with a fever, intense headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. His friends say that he has been sick for about 2 days and that his condition worsened over the last 3 hours. The serum electrolytes are normal, but the patient WBC is 12,000 cells/L. What test should the physician order next?
CSF gram stain and culture
149
What is the first step in developing bacterial meninigitis?
Nasopharyngeal colonization by a meningeal pathogen
150
E. Coli. Is isolated from the spinal fluid of a 3-day old infant. What is the most likely source of the bacterium?
Birth canal
151
What organism is a common cause of meningitis in neonates and infants up to 3 months of age?
Streptocococcus agalactiae
152
What condition is characterized by lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF but a lack of identifiable organism after routine culture and gram stain?
Aseptic meningitis
153
All of the following virsues can resist inactivation by gastric acid except
Herpesvirus
154
What is EV is commonly associated with neurological illness?
Coxsackievirus B
155
What type of meningitis is usually uncomplicated and resolves in 2-7 days?
Enteroviral
156
Common Arboviruses that cause meningitis include all the following except
Venezuelan equine encephalitis
157
What is a common neurologic complication with the mumps virus?
Aseptic meningitis
158
Gram-positive diplococci, with a halo, are seen on a STAT CSF taken from an adult who presented to the ER with high fever, still neck, and confusion. You should suspect
steptococcus pneumonia
159
Syphilic involvement in CNS can take all of the following forms except
Aseptic meningitis
160
All of the following are common fungal causes of CNS infection except
Candida albicans
161
What fungus causes chronic meningitis in patients with HIV infection?
Cryptococcus neoformans
162
A teenager and her friends spend the day swimming in a lake and picnicking. The next day, she starts to feel sick complaining of a headache and general malaise. The following morning, she is very ill and is rushed to the ER. Many neurologic changes are noted. Despite the staffs best efforts, she dies. Autopsy reveals the presence of small Protozoa in her brain tissue. What is the most probable organism that caused her death?
Naegleria Fowleri
163
Infection with what organism results in a chronic meningoencephalitis, more commonly known as sleeping sickness?
Trypanosoma Brucei
164
All of the following are common causes of viral encephalitis, except
Toroviruses
165
All of the following are important arboviruses, except
Lassa fever virus
166
What virus, spread by y the mosquito, causes a typically self-limiting illness but can be associated with a rash, aseptic meningitis, myelitis and fatal encephalitis?
WNV
167
A farmer is bitten by a raccoon. He washed the wound with soap and water and then puts a dressing on it. A couple of days later, he begins to feel tired and the wound painful. About 2 days later, the farmer begins to feel agitated. He has a seizure and hallucination. What condition matches the farmers symptoms and history?
Rabies
168
From where do most cerebral abscesses spread?
all of the above
*middle ear infections
* mastoiditis
*paranasal sinus infections
169
What are the most common bacteria isolated from nontraumatic brain abscesses?
Streptococcus
170
CSF specimens should be analyzed for infectious agents as quickly as possible. How should a specimen collected in the hospital be transported to the laboratory?
Room temperature
171
A CSF sample collected from a child yields the following results: turbid, very high total protein levels, and very low glucose levels. What would the probable diagnosis be?
Bacterial meningitis
172
Which of the following is an example of primary bacteremia source?
An infected heart valve
173
Which of the following is an example of secondary bacteremia source?
The Lung
174
What organism is the most common cause of community-acquired bacteremia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
175
What condition results when there is a procedural manipulation of body site containing normal microbiota, causing those bacteria to enter the bloodstream?
Transient bacteremia
176
What is the most common clinical manifestations associated with continuous bacteremia?
Endocarditis?
177
All of the following factors are associated with an unfavorable outcome in bacteremia except
Surface wound or abscess
178
Bacteremias are least often associated with which of the following patient conditions?
Those undergoing elective outpatient surgical procedures
179
What immunosuppressive agent can increase a patients risk of bacteremia?
All of the above
*cancer chemotherapy
*corticosteroid therapy
*transplant maintenance therapy
180
What underlying condition predisposes a person to a polymicrobial bacteremia?
All of the above
*intravenous drug use
*burns
*GI tract sources
181
A vaccine is available to prevent septicemia and invasive infections, particularly in children, caused by this organism?
Haemophilus influenza
182
Which of the following has been suggested as a biomarker of fungal sepsis?
(1-3)-B-D-glucan
183
Bacteremia with this organism often leads to endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, hepatic abscess or pyomyositis
Staphylococcus aureus
184
What organism is primary found in septicemia originated from an upper urinary tract infection?
E. Coli
185
Lipopolysaccharides is gram-negative bacteria and the lipoteichoic acid and Peptidoglycan in gram-positive bacteria cause which of the following to be released in the human the body?
All of the above
*TNF
*IL-1
*IL-6
186
Common sites associated with bacteremia and sepsis include all of the following except
Reproductive organs
187
All of the following organisms are noted colonizers of indwelling catheters except
Strepococcus pyogenes
188
How does a biofilm protect the organisms from host defenses?
All of the above
*by inhibiting phagocytosis
* by inhibiting chemotaxis
*by suppressing the lymphoproliferative response
189
What organism is most commonly associated with bacteremia due to acute pyelonephritis?
E. Coli
190
Meningitis following bacteremia and septicemia are often associated with Neisseria meningitidis and
Streptococcus pneumonia
191
What condition leads to most cased bacteremia arising from intrabdominal infections?
Peritonitis
192
What can happen when a transient bacteremia produced from a dental procedure or superficial skin infection?
Cardiac valves can be seeded with bacteria
193
What type of a medical implant device is commonly associated with osteomyelitis, which will then lead to bacteremia?
Prosthetic joints
194
Abnormal conditions that may indicate the presence of bacteremia include all of the following except
Anemia
195
When drawing blood for blood cultures in a child younger than age 10 years. How much blood should be drawn?
1% of total blood volume
196
The recommendation of three sets of blood culture drawn at 1-hour intervals is recommended to diagnose which of the following conditions?
Infective endocasrditis
197
If a patient with a bacteremia is receiving appropriate antimicrobial therapy for a known infection but is not responding to treatment, how does the physician find out if another organism is causing the problem?
Redraw the blood cultures using an antimicrobial removal device
198
Sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) performs all the following functions in the blood culture bottles except
Act as bacterial nutrient
199
Septi-cheK is which type of blood culture system?
Biphasic broth-slide system
200
What is the principle of a continuous monitoring blood culture system?
The amount of CO2 produced is measured as a growth index and compared with a threshold
201
Separate venipunctures were performed to collect three sets of blood cultures from a patient with an artificial heart value. The first and third sets grew a gram-positive pleomorphic rod in 1-2 bottles while the second set has no growth in either bottle. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
The blood cultures were contaminated with skin biota
202
A patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia has developed a fever causing the physician to request blood cultures times three. Each set of cultures grow an a-hemolytic streptococcal organism. What is the most likely explanation for these results?
The patient probably has an infection with a-hemolytic step.
203
Which of the following organisms is inhibited by the anticoagulant SPS?
Peptostreptococcis anaerobius
204
What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection?
Urethral mucosa
205
What characteristic of urine inhibits growth of many pathogens?
Low pH
206
All of the following can contribute to reduced leukocyte chemotaxis is the renal medulla, except
Reduced water reabsorption
207
UTI in children is associate with significant morbidity and long-term medical problems, including all the following except
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
208
The atypical clinical presentation of a geriatric patient with a UTI includes all the following except
Burning upon urination
209
All of the following are reasons why institutional patients have more UTIs than noninstitionalized patents, except
Less frequent emptying of the bladder
210
A young woman goes to her physician complaining of dysuria, frequency, urgency and suprapubic pain. A urinalysis shows hematuria, positive protein, positive leukocyte esterase, and a positive nitrite. What is a probable diagnosis?
UTI
211
The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following except
Septicemia
212
When a patient has an indwelling urinary catheter, what symptoms may be present indicating a UTI?
Flank pain and fever
213
Bacteria gain access to the urinary tract by all of the following routes, except
The neurologic route
214
What Gardnerella vaginalis can be cause of UTIs, its presence in urine generally indicates
Vaginal contamination
215
What is the most common way for the renal parenchyma to become infected with gram-positive bacteria?
Hematogenous route
216
What is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs?
E. Coli
217
What organisms usually cause UTIs in older men in conjunction with prostatic hypertrophy?
Enterococcus spp.
218
What group has the most UTIs caused by staphylcoccus Saprophyticus?
Symptomatic sexually active young women
219
What organisms growing in a urine culture can generally be considered contaminants?
Bacillus spp.
220
What is one factor that can contribute to the incidence of candiduria in hospitalized patients?
Increased use of broad-spectrum antimicrobial agents
221
What might candiduria signify?
All of the above
*bladder or renal parenchymal infection
*Urinary tract fungus ball
*disseminated candidiasis
222
Urine cultures are performed for all the following reasons, except to
Test for chlamydia
223
The criteria used to determine the presence of a UTI include all the following except
Patient history
224
A 22-year-old female with dysuria and urinary frequency submits a urine sample. There is no growth on routine media after 48 hours. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Urethral syndrome
225
What is the most commonly used method to collect urine samples?
Voided midstream specimen
226
What is the definitive method for collecting uncontaminated urine specimens?
Suprapubic aspirate
227
What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature?
Sodium borate
228
How must urine specimens be handled after collection?
Immediately refrigerate
229
Screening methods for UTIs are appropriate for which of the following?
Urine specimens with significant pyuria and bacteriuria
230
What size calibrated loops should be used to inoculate a urine sample that was collected by suprapubic aspiration
?
0.1 mL
231
In what type of specimen is the etiologic agent of acute prostatitis usually recovered?
Straight catheterization
232
All of the following features should be considered in a UTI workup, except
Nitrite positive
233
What do specimens with multiple uropathogens indicate?
Probable contamination
234
What makes cervicitis difficult to diagnose?
Lack of well-recognized symptoms
235
Although Neisseria gonorrhoeae usually grows in the cervix and male urethra, all the following sites can support growth, except
Ears
236
A Mano has sex with a woman on Saturday night. On Wednesday he notices dysuria, pyuria, and a urethral discharge. He goes to his physician who orders a gram stain of the discharge. The results of the gram stain show greater than 25 wbc/hpf, moderate gram-negative intracellular diplococci, and 3+ gram-negative diplococci. What is the mostly likely diagnosis?
Gonorrhea
237
All of the following conditions can occur in women with undiagnosed cervical gonorrhea, except
Pharyngitis
238
What percentage of women patients who are positive are Neisseria gonorrhoeae a typically also have genital chlamydia?
42%
239
PID is a complication occasionally seen following infections caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis
240
What is the advantage over cultures of performing nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) for cases for Gonococcal urethritis?
The tests are highly sensitive and specific
241
What is required for culturing chlamydia?
Tissue cultures
242
What is the infective particle of chlamydia?
Elementary body
243
The greatest risk for cervical cancer is genital infection by
HPV
244
What cells are found in BV?
Clue cells
245
What condition is characterized by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and a decrease in lactobacilli in the vagina?
BV
246
Many women who have BV complain of a fishy odor from vaginal secretions. What causes the odor?
Amines
247
What is the main symptom of primary syphilis?
Chancre
248
Which of the following is a symptom for secondary syphilis?
Perianal condylomata lata
249
Which of the following is a symptom of tertiary syphilis?
Gummas
250
What organism causes chancroid?
Haemophilus ducreyi
251
Why are there so many cases of genital herpes in the United States?
Lesions shed virus when asymptomatic
252
How is genital herpes transmitted?
Sexual contact with secretion from infected sites
253
Nontreponemal antibody tests from syphilis include all of the following except
EIA
254
All of the following are a cause ulcerative STIs, except
Gonorrhea
255
Nongonococcal urethritis is most commonly cause.d by which of the following organisms?
Chlamydia trachomatis
256
What percentage of heptatis B infections are transmitted through sexual contact?
50%
257
A microbiologist is reading a vaginal culture. She see the very white colonies that are y-hemolytic on a blood agar plate by appears to have feet. What organisms could this possibly be?
Yeast
258
During the childbearing years, the Normal flora of the vagina maintain a low pH, thus encouraging colonization with all the following types of organisms except
Enteric gram-negative rods
259
Which of the following is the most common causative agent of urethritis?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
260
What is a zoonotic infection?
An infection that can naturally spread from animals to humans
261
Zoonotic infections that spread from animal to human and then can be transmitted human to human, include all the following except
Tularemia
262
Zoonotic infections that spread from animal to human, then cannot be transmitted directly to other humans, include all the following except
Influenza
263
What are the natural hosts for the plague-causing, Yersinia pestis?
Rats
264
What is the classic symptom of bubonic plague?
Painful swollen lymph nodes
265
What disease is transmitted by ixodes dammini?
Lyme disease
266
What finding is characteristic of early Lyme disease?
Bulls-eye rash and flulike symptoms
267
If you are bitten by a dog, which of the following organisms is most likely to cause an infection at the site of the bite?
Pasteurella multocida
268
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae normally infects all the following animals except
Rodents
269
Even though this organism is part of the canine and feline normal oral biota, most infections occur in patients that have had a splenectomy, have cancer, or abuse drugs,. What organism is this?
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
270
All of the following organisms cause cat-scratch disease in humans, except
Borrelia burdorferi
271
What disease is known as the woolsortrs disease?
Anthrax
272
Bacillus anthracis is a natural pathogen for what types of animals?
Herbivores
273
What is the most common form of anthrax?
Cutaneous
274
Bacillus anthracis produces all the following virulence factors, except
Lipopolysaccharide
275
All of the following symptoms are among common presentations in tularemia, except
Cholera-like
276
What is another name for brucellosis?
Undulant fever
277
How do humans often become infected with leptospirosis?
Directly from animal urine
278
In the first phase of leptospirosis, humans exhibit all the following symptoms except
Hepatitis
279
Patients who develop Weil’s syndrome have all the following symptoms except
Congestive heart failure
280
Rickettsial organisms, which cause disease in human, are transmitted by which of the following methods?
Arthropod vectors
281
Pathogens within the family Anaplasmataceae infect which cell type in humans?
Phagocytes
