Final Flashcards

1
Q

Summarize the purpose of CLIA

A

Regulates labs/facilities that test human specimens for health assessment or to diagnose, prevent, or treat disease

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2
Q

What makes a “perfect test”?

A
  • Accurate
  • Precise
  • Discriminating
  • Risk free
  • Pain free
  • Inexpensive
  • Useful
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3
Q

Describe what makes a “waived” complexity CLIA test and name some examples

A

Simple tests, small chance of error or risk
Can be OTC
- Urine dipstick
- Influenza A/B
- Strep A
- HCG urine
- THC
- PT/INR
- COVID

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4
Q

Describe what makes a “moderate” complexity CLIA test and name some examples

A

Available on automated equipment in a facility
- CBC
- Chem/electrolyte profiles
- Urinalysis microscopic

Provider performed microscopy
- KOH scraping
- Semen analysis
- Nasal eosinophils

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5
Q

Describe what makes a “high” complexity CLIA test and name some examples

A

Requires clinical expertise beyond normal automation to perform
- Cytology
- Peripheral smears
- Viral loads
- Gel electrophoresis

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6
Q

Describe sensitivity and specificity

A

Sensitivity
- Helps rule OUT a disease when test is negative
- Few false negative results

Specificity
- Helps rule a disease IN when test is positive
- Few false positive results

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7
Q

Which phase of testing, pre-analytic, analytic, or post-analytic has the highest chance of errors?

A

Pre-analytic

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8
Q

Describe the pre-analytic phase of lab testing. What does it start and end with?

A

Specimen receiving
- Most vulnerable part of testing process
- Starts with patient assessment
- Ends with specimen received in laboratory

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9
Q

Describe the analytic phase of lab testing. What does it start and end with?

A

Testing
- Begins when patient specimen is prepared for testing
- Ends when test result is interpreted and verified

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10
Q

Describe the post-analytic phase of lab testing. What does it start and end with?

A

Result reporting
- Starts with result review and release to the clinician
- Ends with diagnostic and therapeutic decision making

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11
Q

Describe the screening guidelines for colon cancer

A

USPSTF
- Age 50 to 75 (A)
- Age 45 to 49 (B)

ACS
- Start age 45

Stool tests
- gFOBT (guaiac-based fecal occult blood test) - blood in stool most common
- FIT - blood in stool
- FIT-DNA - blood and altered DNA in stool

Camera
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy - Every 5 years, (or every 10 if annual FIT) NO sedation
- Colonoscopy - Every 10 years if no increased risk of colon cancer, requires bowel prep, sedation

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12
Q

Describe the screening guidelines for breast cancer

A

USPSTF
- Women aged 40 to 74
- Mammogram every two years (B)

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13
Q

Describe the screening guidelines for cervical cancer

A

USPSTF
- Women aged 21 to 29 - PAP every 3 years (A)
- Women aged 30 to 65 - Continue PAP every 3 years, OR HPV every 5 years, OR PAP + HPV every 5 years (A)

ACS
- Women aged 25 to 65 - HPV every 5 years

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14
Q

Describe the screening guidelines for chlamydia and gonorrhea

A

CDC
- All sexually active women under 25 and any men who have sex with men - NAAT every year

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15
Q

Describe the STI screening guidelines for pregnant women

A

CDC
- All pregnant women tested for syphilis, HIV and Hep B early in pregnancy

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16
Q

Describe the screening guidelines for HIV

A
  • Everyone aged 15 to 65 tests at least once in their lifetime - ELISA, confirmed with repeat ELISA, and then Western Blot
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17
Q

Describe the screening guidelines for syphilis

A

Indications = symptomatic or high risk patients

No chancre
- Nontreponemal -> Treponemal

Chancre
- Dark field microscopy

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18
Q

Describe the screening guidelines for osteoporosis and how to interpret results

A

USPSTF
- Women aged 65+ or postmenopausal - DEXA scan (B)

  • -1 and above = NORMAL
  • -1.1 to -2.4 = OSTEOPENIA
  • -2.5 and below = OSTEOPOROSIS
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19
Q

Name the components included in a BMP

A
  • Glucose
  • Calcium
  • Sodium
  • Potassium
  • CO2/Bicarb
  • Chloride
  • BUN
  • Creatinine
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20
Q

True or false. A patient needs to fast prior to a BMP

A

True
- Fasting 10-12 hours

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21
Q

Name the components included in a CMP

A

BMP
- Glucose
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Potassium
- CO2/Bicarb
- Chloride
- BUN
- Creatinine
PLUS LFTs
- Total protein
- Albumin
- Total bilirubin
- ALP
- AST
- ALT

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22
Q

When in doubt over differences in normal reference ranges for a lab value, which one should be used?

A

Always use the reference range supplied by the lab that performed the test

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23
Q

Normal range for blood glucose

A

60 to 100 mg/dL

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24
Q

Reasons for blood glucose to be increased/decreased

A

Increased
- Diabetes
- Acute stress response
- Corticosteroid therapy

Decreased
- Insulin overdose

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25
Normal range for serum calcium
8.7 to 10.7 mg/dL
26
Reasons for serum calcium to be increased/decreased
Increased - Hyperparathyroidism - Nonparathyroid PTH-producing tumor (lung/renal carcinoma) - Granulomatous infection (sarcoidosis, TB) - Hyperthyroidism - Thiazide diuretics Decreased - Hypoparathyroidism - Vitamin D deficiency - Hypoalbuminemia
27
Normal range for sodium
135 to 145 mEq/L
28
Describe the three kinds of hyponatremia
Hyponatremia = sodium <135 mEq/L Hypovolemic - Na and H2O deficit - Diuretic excess - Vomiting/diarrhea Euvolemic - Slight increase in H2O - SIADH Hypervolemic - Na and H2O excess - Cardiac failure
29
Normal range for potassium
3.5 to 5.3 mEq/L
30
Reasons for potassium to be increased/decreased
Increased - Renal failure (acute and chronic) - Excess K+ intake - NSAIDs - K+ sparing diuretics Decreased - Thiazide/loop diuretics - Vomiting/diarrhea/laxatives - Severe eating disorders
31
Reasons for chloride to be increased/decreased
Increased - Dehydration - Metabolic acidosis - Respiratory alkalosis Decreased - Overhydration - Metabolic alkalosis - Respiratory acidosis
32
Normal range for BUN
8 to 18 mg/dL
33
Describe pre-renal, renal, and post-renal causes for increased/decreased BUN
Pre-renal increase - Hypovolemia - Dehydration Pre-renal decrease - Overhydration - SIADH Renal increase - Renal disease (glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, ATN) Post-renal increase - Urethral/bladder obstruction
34
Normal range for creatinine
Male: 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL Female: 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL
35
Reasons for increased creatinine
- Hyperthyroidism - Pyelonephritis - Reduced renal blood flow (decrease not significant)
36
Normal BUN:Creatinine ratio range
12 to 16
37
Describe pre-renal, renal, and post-renal azotemia causes and their corresponding BUN:Creatinine ratios
Pre-renal - BUN:Cr *more* than 20:1 - Most common - Reduced renal blood flow Renal - BUN:Cr *less* than 20:1 - Direct kidney injury - Acute tubular necrosis Post-renal - BUN:Cr >20:1 *then* <20:1 - Any urinary tract obstruction
38
Normal range for magnesium
1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L
39
Reason for increased magnesium levels
Diuretics
40
Four components of a urinalysis
- Macroscopic = color, clarity, specific gravity - Dipstick reagent = chemical analysis - Microscopic - Culture
41
Normal pH range for urine
4.6 to 8.0
42
True or false. CBC requires fasting
False - CBC does NOT require fasting
43
Reasons for increased/decreased red blood cell count
Increased - High altitude - Polycythemia vera - Severe COPD Decreased - Anemia - Advanced cancer
44
Normal range for hemoglobin
Male: 14 to 18 g/dL Female: 12 to 16 g/dL
45
Reasons for increased/decreased hemoglobin
Increased - Polycythemia vera - COPD - High altitude Decreased - Anemia - Neoplasia
46
Normal hematocrit level
3 times Hb
47
Normal range for MCV
80 to 100 fL
48
Reasons for MCV to be increased/decreased
Increased (macrocytic) - B12/folate deficient Decreased (microcytic) - Iron deficiency - Thalassemia - Anemia of chronic disease
49
Normal range for platelets
130 to 400
50
Reasons for platelets to be increased/decreased
Increased - Iron deficiency anemia - Polycythemia vera - Malignancy Decreased - Autoimmune destruction - Malignancy (yes, again)
51
Name the five types of white blood cells seen on a differential and the expected proportion of each
- Neutrophils (60%) - Lymphocytes (30%) - Monocytes (6%) - Eosinophils (3%) - Basophils (1%)
52
Normal range for white blood cells
3,200 to 9,800
53
What is a "left shift" and what does it indicate?
- 80-90% neutrophils - Increased immature neutrophils ("bands" or "stabs") - Acute bacterial infection
54
Reasons for increased lymphocytes
- Acute viral infection - Chronic bacterial infection
55
Reasons for increased eosinophils and basophils
- Allergic reactions - Parasites - Inflammatory reactions
56
Describe the following blood pressure levels - Normal - Elevated - Stage 1 HTN - Stage 2 HTN
Normal - <120 *and* <80 Elevated - 120-129 *and* <80 Stage 1 HTN - 130-139 *or* 80-89 Stage 2 HTN - 140+ *or* 90+
57
Describe screening guidelines for hypertension
USPSTF - Adults ages 18+ screen at every visit (A)
58
What components are included in a lipid panel?
- Total cholesterol - LDL - HDL - VLDL - Triglycerides
59
Normal range for total cholesterol
Less than 200 mg/dL
60
Reasons for increased/decreased total cholesterol
Increased - Hypercholesterolemia - Hyperlipidemia - Uncontrolled diabetes - Hypertension Decreased - Liver disease
61
Normal range for HDL
Male: >45 mg/dL Female: >55 mg/dL
62
Normal range for LDL
Normal adult: <130 mg/dL Moderate risk: <100 mg/dL High risk: <70 mg/dL
63
Diagnostic criteria for acute MI
Requires *two of three* 1. Chest discomfort 2. Elevated cardiac enzymes 3. EKG findings
64
Gold standard for diagnosis CAD
Cardiac catheterization
65
Reasons for increased myoglobin
- Myocardial infarction - Rhabdomyolysis
66
Which, CK-MM, CK-MB, or CK-BB, is most specific to the heart?
CK-MB = heart - CK-MM = skeletal muscle and heart - CK-BB = brain
67
Reasons for increased CK-MB
- Acute myocardial infarction - Severe rhabdomyolysis
68
Which cardiac troponin, T or I, is more specific to the heart?
Cardiac troponin I
69
Reasons for increased troponins
- Myocardial infarction - Pulmonary embolism
70
Which cardiac marker is first to elevate, peak, and return to baseline in acute myocardial infarction?
Myoglobin
71
In acute myocardial infarction, when does myoglobin: - Initially elevate - Peak - Return to baseline
- Initial: 1 to 4 hours - Peak: 4 to 12 hours - Return: 10 to 24 hours
72
In acute myocardial infarction, when does CTnI: - Initially elevate - Peak - Return to baseline
- Initial: 2 to 6 hours - Peak: 10 to 24 hours - Return: 7 to 10 *days*
73
In acute myocardial infarction, when does CKMB: - Initially elevate - Peak - Return to baseline
- Initial: 4 to 6 hours - 18 to 24 hours - 36 to 48 hours
74
Which cardiac marker will be elevated longest after an acute myocardial infarction?
CTnI (cardiac troponin I) - 7 to 10 *days*
75
The "golden marker" for atherosclerosis
hs-CRP
76
Normal range for BNP and NT-proBNP
- BNP = <100 pg/mL - NT-proBNP = <300 pg/mL
77
Reasons for increased BNP
- CHF - MI - Renal failure
78
Which, BNP or NT-proBNP, is more sensitive for CHF?
NT-proBNP
79
Are obesity, spine, or chest wall deformities examples of restrictive or obstructive pulmonary disorders?
Restrictive
80