Final Flashcards
(171 cards)
1
Q
Cells are anchored to the extracellular matrix by ___. To prevent the passage of molecules between them, cells are attached to each other at the apical surface by ___.
A
anchoring junctions, tight junctions
2
Q
transport of gases and nutrients is a role of which connective tissue?
A
blood
3
Q
Enzymes that form phosphodiester bonds in DNA and RNA function in the
A
nucleus
4
Q
According to Central Dogma, ___ is generated from translation
A
protein
5
Q
___ is an inactive form of Vitamin D and it is synthesized in the liver which is part of the ___ system
A
Calcidiol, digestive
6
Q
After a day on the beach you find that your skin is experiencing redness but no blisters. It is likely that you are experiencing a __ degree burn where the ___ has been affected
A
first, epidermis
7
Q
The very first step in the wound healing cascade is __ where the loss of blood is prevented by causing platelet aggregation
A
hemostasis
8
Q
Inflammation or tumorigenesis in the small intestines would most likely be associated with the malfunction of ___. This is because pathogens or epidermal growth factors can get in between cells when these cell junctions are affected.
A
tight junctions
9
Q
during the ___ of long bones, the cartilage in the epiphyseal plate is replaced with bone tissue via ___.
A
longitudinal growth, endochondral ossification
10
Q
the primary structure of proteins is not influenced by (peptide bonds, order of amino acids, phosphodiester bonds, number of amino acids)
A
phosphodiester bonds
11
Q
___ are the major cells found in connective tissue proper while ___ are unique to various types of cartilage
A
fibroblasts, chondrocytes
12
Q
the papillary layer of the dermis contains several immune cells because it is composed of ___ connective tissue
A
areolar
13
Q
A quick burst activity that lasts for three seconds will most likely use __ to make ATP
A
creatine phosphate
14
Q
Multiple proteins can be made from a single gene due to ___
A
alternative splicing
15
Q
as melanosomes move towards the cell membrane (periphery) of the melanocytes, they are carried by ___
A
kinesin on microtubules
16
Q
the presence of a signal peptide in a protein sequence indicates that it will first be processed in the ___ due to co-translational translocation
A
rough endoplasmic reticulum
17
Q
In bone remodeling, during the step of resorption ___ break down bone by releasing acids from lysosomes
A
osteoclasts
18
Q
Air sacs of the lungs are made of ___ epithelia because they readily permit the diffusion of gases
A
simple squamous
19
Q
Mutations in which of the following will affect vesicle transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus
A
COP II
20
Q
The R-groups in transmembrane proteins interact with the phospholipid bilayer. Therefore, these R-groups are most likely ___ because of the hydrophobic nature of the phospholipid tails
A
non-polar
21
Q
which of the following can reduce the risk of osteoporosis
A
high impact weight-bearing exercises
22
Q
A person with an RQ value of 1 is most likely
A
using glucose to make ATP
23
Q
when you are standing, ____ bones in your ankles offer support but when you walk the ___ bones in your legs act as levers, meaning they move when muscles contract
A
short, long
24
Q
Keratinized ___ epithelium is found on the palms of the hands because this part of the body needs a tough, water resistant barrier against wear and tear
A
stratified squamous
25
Squamous cell carcinoma would arise by mutations to cells in the __
stratum granulosum
26
In ____ misfolded proteins are ubiquinated and tagged for destruction by proteosomes
endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway
27
You are gathering some raspberries, and you pull back your hand in pain because you were pricked by a thorn. The sense of pain was detected by ____ in the dermis.
free nerve endings
28
A mutation that causes osteocytes to release abnormally high amounts of osteoprotegerin will result in an ___ diameter of the medullary cavity and a ___ bone density
decreased, increased
29
the presence of the OH group on carbon number __ makes RNA less stable than DNA
2
30
Which of the following metabolic pathways indicate the use of anaerobic metabolism to make ATP
glycolysis
31
Adrenocorticotropic hormone acts on the ___ in the adrenal cortex in order to influence blood sodium and potassium levels
zona glomerulosa
32
When a baby suckles at the breast, it triggers the release of prolactin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus. PRH acts on the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to release prolactin. Therefore, a ___ stimuli is responsible for the release of PRL.
hormonal
33
Odorous sweat glands are examples of ___ exocrine glands because a part of the cell pinches off to release secretions
apocrine
34
Hormones that are ___ diffuse across the plasma membrane and bind to receptors inside the cell, whereas hormones that are ____ bind to receptor proteins on the outer surface of the plasma membrane and activate secondary messengers
hydrophobic, hydrophilic
35
blocking ___ sodium and potassium channels can impair the propagation of the action potentials along the axon
voltage-gated
36
a decrease in blood pressure triggers the renin-angiotension-aldosterone system. In this system, ___ increases blood pressure by triggering thirst, causing blood vessels to contract, stimulates the release of ADH and stimulates aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex
angiotension II
37
when would you assume the highest levels of melatonin are secreted by the pineal gland
11 pm
38
during the resting membrance potential, ions can move in and out of the cell via ___ channels
leak
39
one of the functions of ___ in the CNS is the regulation of neurotransmitter homeostasis, as they uptake synaptically-released neurotransmitters, metabolize them and release their precursors back to neurons.
astrocytes
40
Using the three-box model of a neuron, what section of the neuron receives information from other neurons
cell body
41
Corticotropin-releasing hormone from the ____ causes the ____ to release adrenocorticotropic hormone into capillaries, which stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and androgens
hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland
42
the hypothalamus controls the posterior pituitary function through humoral and ___ stimuli, whereas it controls the endocrine function of the anterior pituitary through ___ stimulus.
neural, hormonal
43
Catecholamines such as epinephrine and norepinephrine are derived from tryptophan, so they are classified as
amino acid derivatives
44
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone leads to increased release of ____ which stimulates oocyte maturation by influencing the ovarian follicles
follicle-stimulating hormone
45
Blood phosphate levels are regulated by the endocrine system. When the blood phosphate levels increase beyond the normal level, ___ is released by the ___
phosphatonin, bones
46
In ___ axon, an action potential moves along by continuous propagation and so it travels ___ than in ___ axon
unmyelinated, slower, myelinated
47
binding of a ligand in the postsynaptic terminal causes the efflux of K+ ions, thereby resulting in a
inhibitory postsynaptic action potential
48
what type of glial cell functions to myelinate axons in the peripheral nervous system
neurolemmocytes/Schwann cells
49
abnormally high levels of ___ in children can lead to gigantism
growth hormone
50
___ potentials are temporary and localized changes in the membrane potential in the cell body of a neuron, whereas ___ membrane potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated neuron
graded, resting
51
an action potential allows for electrochemical impulses to be shared between neurons. The first step to generating an action potential is the opening of ___ in the cell body of the neuron
ligand-gated sodium channels
52
The withdraw reflex from painful stimuli is an example of a ___, whereas the patellar tendon tap reflex (stretch reflex) is an example of ___.
polysynaptic reflex, monosynaptic reflex
53
___ is a hormone released by adipose tissue which sends atiety signals to the brain and increases the rate of metabolism
leptin
54
when epinephrine binds to a G-protein coupled receptor, the binding of __ to the adenyl cyclase enzyme will increase the intracellular levels of cAMP
G alpha s
55
if you encounter a bear on campus, the ___ neurons in the ___ division of the autonomic nervous system may deliver epinephrine to the target organs
postganglionic, sympathetic
56
calcium homeostasis is maintained by the endocrine system. When the blood calcium level increases beyond the normal level, the thyroid gland releases ___ but when the calcium level decreases beyond the normal level the parathyroid gland releases ___
calcitonin, parathyroid hormone
57
damage to the left side of the spinal cord above the level of the legs would cause which of the following clinical symptoms
loss of fine touch sensation on the left side
58
during the absolute refractory period, an action potential will not ensue regardless of stimulus strength. This is because
inactivation gates for voltage gated Na+ channels are closed
59
an increase in blood osmolarity would be detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus and triggered the release of ___ from the posterior pituitary gland
ADH
60
In voltage-gated ___ channels, the opening/closing of the ___ gate is determined by changes in membrane potential, while the opening/closing of the ___ gate is determined by randomness to an extent
sodium, activation, inactivations
61
abnormally high ATP levels in the extracellular fluids is an example of ___ which signal the immune system that tissue damage occurred
damage associate molecular patterns
62
when you spin down/centrifuge a sample of whole blood, you will most likely find white blood cells in the
buffy coat
63
as the heart ____ the ____ valves open causing blood to flow into the left and right ventricles
relaxes, left and right atrioventricular
64
a person with an RQ value of 0.7 is most likely
using fat to make ATP
65
The ___ muscle is more sensitive to changes in muscle length than the ____ muscle because it functions in the ascending of the force-length-relationship
cardiac, skeletal
66
the rapid depolarization of the pacemaker cells is due to ___ whereas the rapid depolarization of the contractile cells is due to ____
Ca2+ channels, Na+ channels
67
____ are the white blood cells with a multilobed nucleus which stain with a neutral dye. They arrive first at the site of injury, phagocytose bacteria and contribute to formation of pus
neutrophils
68
Abnormal P waves in the EKG can be most likely indicative of defects in
atrial systole
69
Calcium binds to ___ subunit to facilitate actin-myosin interaction
Troponin C (TnC)
70
worn-out erythrocytes/red blood cells are phagocytosed by macrophages in the
spleen
71
to activate a T helper cell, a naive T cell expressing CD4 will interact with a macrophage presenting antigen on
MHC II
72
which of the following permits the maximum exchange of substances by slowing blood flow to the greatest extent
capillaries
73
An abnormal antibody is unable to bind the pathogens, but it can be recognized by macrophages. It is most likely that the abnormality in the antibody is in the
antigen binding site
74
In the pressure volume loop, the end diastolic volume is indicative of ____ while the aortic pressure is indicative of ____
preload, afterload
75
If a cell is infected with the H1N1 virus, it will alert the cells in the nearby vicinity by releasing
interferons
76
Which of the following cells are most directly responsible for innate immunity
mast cells
77
in the heart, ____ produce action potentials spontaneously because they express ___ channels
autorhythmic cells; hyperpolarization-activated, cyclic nucleotide-gated
78
a mutation that inactivates the myosin light chain phosphatase enzyme will likely cause the following in smooth muscles
regulatory light chain will remain phosphorylated
79
which of the following is common to smooth, skeletal and cardiac muscles
actin-myosin interactions
80
cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped through circulatory system in 1 minute. Therfore, CO is inversely associated with ___ but directly associated with ___
end systolic volume, heart rate
81
during isovolumetric relaxation there is no change in volume because the ventricular pressure is ___ than aortic pressure but ___ than atrial pressure
lower, higher
82
you are performing bicep curls in the gym. Isometric contraction occurs when you
hold a dumbell in place
83
If you want to study how B lymphocytes are formed and mature, then you would most likely harvest cells from the
bone marrow
84
The red blood cells/erythrocytes facilitate in the transport of gases by ___ binding to the iron in the ___ of hemoglobin protein
oxygen, heme group
85
a mutation in the myosin heads prevents them from binding strongly to the actin filament. In this situation, the transition of the thin filament from ____ state is impaired
closed to open
86
fish hunting snails inject toxins into their victims that block acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction and cause muscle paralysis. The toxin is most likely blocking ___ channels
ligand-gated Na+
87
a delay in the electrical signal transmission from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiogram most likely indicates a ___ heart block
first degree
88
the autonomic nervous system can ____ heart rate by causing greater ___of the membrane potential of pacemaker cells
decrease, hyperpolarization or increase, depolarization
89
____ triggers the hematopoietic stem cells to develop into lymphocytes
interlukin 7 (none of the above)
90
___ law explains how the available oxygen changes with altitude
daltons
91
one of the mechanisms to regulate low blood glucose levels is the activation of hormone-sensitive lipase. what is the most direct consequence of activating hormone sensitive lipase?
release of fatty acids for utiliation in the muscles
92
when there is a drop in blood pressure of low blood volume, the kidneys release ___ to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
renin
93
during swallowing the ____ prevents liquids from entering the nasopharynx
soft palate
94
when exercising, the glomerular filtration rate is under ____ because of the sympathetic fibers that innervate the kidneys
neural regulation
95
during inspiration, the atmospheric pressure is ___ than the pressure in the alveoli. Moreover, the pressure in the alveoli is ___ than the pressure in the intrapleural space
greater, greater
96
the ____ are found in the repiratory portion of the respiratory system
alveoli
97
Tubular reabsorption is the process of moving filtrate from renal tubules into the peritubular capillaries and it occurs predominantly at ____ of the nephron
proximal convoluted tubule
98
the ___ is lined with stratified squamous epithelium because it is shared by the digestive and respiratory system
oropharynx
99
___ moves two molecules in opposite directions across the cell membrane. Specifically, one molecule moves down its concentration gradient, and the other molecule moves against its concentration gradient
counter transport
100
a change in the sodium concentration in the filtrate (tubular fluid) is detected by ___ in the juxtaglomerular complex because they serve as chemoreceptors
macula densa cells
101
the __ effect occurs in the ___ capillaries. This effect describes the decreased affinity of hemoglobin for carbon dioxide in the presence of oxygen, which facilitates the unloading of CO2 in the lungs
Haldane, pulmonary
102
The rate of gastric emptying will most likely be decreased by ___ because it would increase osmotic pressure in the stomach
a salty meal
103
in thethree steps of urine formation in the nephron, blood is filtered in the
glomerular capsule
104
breathing air through the mouth leads to the incoming air being
humidified
105
a mutation that decreases the release of secretin will most likely result in impaired
neutralization of acidic chyme
106
the ____ are paired organs that transport urine from the kidneys and their lumen is lined by ___ epithelium to permit distension/stretching
ureter, transitional
107
you are eating a delicious meal. Which of the following biological processes would most likely occur in your body as you eat
stomach acids are unfolding proteins
108
saliva has antimicrobial properties due to the presence of
lysozymes
109
____ is a hormone that is synthesized by the beta cells in the pancreas that facilitates glucose transport into muscle and fat cells
insulin
110
____ can lead to a condition called ____ where there is a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
hyperventilation, hypocapnia
111
countercurrent multiplication occurs in the ___ and thus helps establish the medullary osmotic gradient in the filtrate
nephron loop/loop of Henle
112
the rate of oxygen diffusion across the air-blood barrier is explained by ___ law
ficks
113
_____ pH and ____ temperature would increase the affinity of oxygen binding to hemoglobin and make more oxygen available in the plasma
increased, decreased
114
____ causes increased expression of aquaporin channels in the collecting ducts
vasopressin/ADH
115
Kwashiorkor is characterized by ____ because proteins are unavailable to make antibodies
impaired immunity
116
The brain sends signals to the ____ located between the ribs via the intercostal nerves, allowing for control of breathing
intercostal muscles
117
the presence of glucose and ketones in the urine may be indicative of a disorder in the
pancreas
118
chylomicrons are produced in the ___ and they carry fat to the liver
epithelial cells of the small intestine
119
spermatic cords
begin at the entrance to the inguinal canal, descends into scrotum
encloses the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels of the testes
120
location of sperm production
seminiferous tubules, in lobules of the testes
121
spermatocytogenesis
spermatogonia > mitosis > primary spermatocytes (2n) > meiosis 1 > secondary spermatocytes (n) > meiosis II > spermatids (n)
122
spermiogenesis
spermatids > mature to form spermatozoa > continue maturing in the epididymis
123
where is blood testes barrier located
between the spermatogonia and the primary spermatocytes
124
germ cells in the testes
produce spermatogonia
125
leydig cells (interstitial cells) in the testes
synthesize testosterone
126
Sertoli cells (nurse cells) in the testes
synthesize anti-mullerian hormone, inhibin, androgen binding globulin, maintain blood-testes barrier, etc
127
Epididymis
coil tube that start of male reproductive tract, sperm storage, maturation, and recycling
-immature and immotile entering seminiferous tubules
128
steps of sperm capacitation
- sperm become motile when mixed with seminal gland secretions
- sperm become capable of fertilization when exposed to the female reproductive tract
129
what does the seminal gland produce (male)
fructose, prostaglandins, fibrinogen, slight alkaline
130
what does prostate gland secrete
slightly acidic with enzymes to help prevent sperm coagulationi in the vagina
131
what does the bulbourethral gland secrete
alkaline mucuse to neutralize urinary acid, lubricate tip of penis
132
receptors for follicle stimulating hormone are on
nurse cells
133
mammary glands
lobes separated by dense connective tissue, ducts leave lobules to form lactiferous duct
134
primordial ovarian follicles
contain primary oocytes surrounded by single layer of squamous follicle cells
135
primary ovarian follicle
surrounded by simple cuboidal epithelium
136
secondary ovarian follicle
surrounded by stratified cuboidal epithelium
137
tertiary ovarian follicle
filled with follicular fluid secreted by deeper follicular cells
138
female germ cells enter meiosis 1
before birth
139
female germ cells complete meiosis 2
at fertilization
140
which uterine phase is marked by the initial buildup of endometrium in response to rising estrogen levels
proliferative phase
141
High levels of estrogen
from the dominant
follicle cause a ____ to
the hypothalamus that
leads to a(n) ______
levels of luteinizing
hormone.
positive feedback, increased
142
estrogen and progesterone contraceptive
hormones impair folliculogeneis, inhibit ovulation
143
trichomoniasis
protozoan parasite, antibiotic
144
syphilis
bacterial, antibiotic
145
genital HPV
human papillomavirus, warts, cant be cured but treated
146
chlamydia
bacterial, antibiotics
147
HIV
human immunodeficiency virus, treated but not cured
148
gonorrhea
bacterial, antibiotics
149
SRY gene
codes for sex determining region on y chromosome
150
Sox9
produced by SRY gene, blocks RSPO1, beta-catenin, WNT4 for male development
151
Turner syndrome
Xo, ovaries, mullerian duct, feminization
152
Klinefelter syndrome
xxy, testes, wolffian duct, masculinization
153
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
body cant respond to testosterone, xy, testes, no ducts, feminization
154
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
xx, ovaries, wolffian and mullerian duct, feminization and partial masculinization
155
capacitation
-effects on the flagellum to increase motility
-removal or destabilization of proteins in and around the acrosomal region of sperm head to enhance its penetration ability
156
fertilization
sperm will burrow through the corona radiata to reach the zona pellucida
157
what prevents polyspermy
release of cortical granules, renders zona pellucida refractory to additional sperm penetration
158
three stages of fetal development
germinal stage - 0-2 weeks
embryonic stage - 3-8 weeks
fetal stage - 9 weeks +
159
trophoblasts
outer shell of blastocyst, develops into fetal portion of placenta
160
umbilical arteries
carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta
161
umbilical vein
carries oxygenated blood back to fetus
162
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
pregnancy indicator, fatigue and nausea, prevents corpus luteum degradation
163
human placental lactogen (hPL)
dull insulin maternal respons
164
placental prolactin
activates mammary glands and other fetal and maternal hormones
165
relaxin
laxity of cartilage and ligaments to aid in delivery
166
estrogens
hypercoaguable, promotes endometrial growth, readies breast tissue for lactation
167
progesterone
maintains endometrial growth, relaxes smooth muscles impacting digestive and urinary system
168
parturition
process of baby delivery
169
milk production
prolactin
170
milk ejection
oxytocin
171
The path of sperm through
the male reproductive
system is
testes > epididymis → ductus (vas) deferens
→ urethra
