Final Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
What are the four divisions of fungi?
A
Zygomycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota, Deuteromycota
2
Q
What is the sexual spore of Zygomycota?
A
zygospores
3
Q
What is thesexual spore of Ascomycota?
A
ascospores
4
Q
What is the sexual spore of Basidiomycota?
A
basidiospores
5
Q
What is the sexual spore of Deuteromycota?
A
none/unknown
6
Q
What are some examples of fungal infections?
A
Ringworm, Athletes Foot
7
Q
Name two examples of symbiotic relationships?
A
Nitrogen-fixing rhizobia within legumes; Mycorrhizae on plant roots
8
Q
What is the study of algae?
A
Phycology
9
Q
What are eukaryotes with a unicellular level of organization without cell differentiation into tissues?
A
Protists
10
Q
What are the three cellular levels of organization?
A
Unicellular, Colonial, & Multicellular
11
Q
A sudden infusion of large quantities of a formerly limiting nutrient?
A
Eutrophication
12
Q
Unicellular life-forms, such as amebas and paramecia, were motile and appeared more like microscopic animals?
A
protozoa
13
Q
Single-celled phototrophs such as diatoms and dinflagellates also thought as unicellular plants?
A
algae
14
Q
What are the two types of social amoebas also known as slime molds?
A
Acellular and cellular
15
Q
A plasmodium (multi-nucleate mass of cytoplasm) flows in amoeboid fashion across surfaces?
A
acellular slime mold
16
Q
individual amoeboid cells aggregate into a pseudoplasmodium. The aggregation is triggered by cAMP.
A
cellular slime mold
17
Q
What is the best-studied cellular slime mold?
A
Dictyostelium discoideum
18
Q
What has two flagella and causes “red tide” which produces toxins?
A
Dinoflagellates
19
Q
What does the apicomplexans plasmodium falciparum cause and what is its vector?
A
Malaria; Anopheles mosquitos
20
Q
What is an animal intermediate carrier of infection?
A
vector
21
Q
What does trypanosoma brucei cause and what is its vector?
A
African Sleeping Sickness; tsetse fly
22
Q
What does trypanosoma cruzi cause and what is its vector?
A
Chagas’ Disease; triatomine bugs
23
Q
Food products that are modified biochemically by microbial growth?
A
fermented foods
24
Q
What enhances preservation, digestibility, nutrient content, and flavor?
A
Anaerobic fermentation of food
25
_______ leads to organic acid fermentation products, such as lactate and propionate.
Acidic fermentations
26
__________ produce ammonia and break down proteins to peptides.
Alkaline fermentations
27
_________ produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Ethanolic fermentation
28
_________ under anaerobic conditions of fermentation.
Lipids are relatively stable
29
__________ forms by lactic acid fermentation and rennet proteolysis, rendering casein insoluble.
milk curd
30
__________ include unripened cheese, semihard and hard cheeses that are cooked down and ripened, brined cheeses, and mold-ripened cheeses.
cheese varieties
31
________ are generated by minor side products of fermentation, such as alcohols, esters, and sulfur compounds.
Cheese flavors
32
_________ to tempeh and other products improves digestibility and decreases undesirable soy components such as phytates and lectins.
Soy fermentation
33
________ are fermented and brined to make sauerkraut and pickles.
Vegetables
34
________ for chocolate requires complex fermentation of cocoa beans within the fruit pulp, including the anaerobic fermentation by yeast and lactic acid bacteria, and aerobic respiration by Acetobacter species.
Cocoa fermentation
35
_________ include the soy product natto, the egg product pidan, and the locust bean product dawadawa.
Alkali-fermented vegetables
36
_______ by yeasts conducting limited ethanolic fermentation, producing enough carbon dioxide gas to expand the dough.
Bread is leavened
37
______ requires alcoholic fermentation of grain. Barley grains are germinated, allowing enzymes to break down the starch to maltose for yeast fermentation.
Beer
38
In industrialized nations, all municipal communities use some form of _________.
Wastewater treatment
39
_______ consists of screens that remove solid debris, such as sticks, dead animals, and feminine hygiene items.
Preliminary treatment
40
_______ includes fine screens and sedimentation tanks that remove insoluble particles.
Primary treatment
41
The particles eventually are recombined with the solid products of wastewater treatment to form what?
sludge
42
________ consists primarily of microbial ecosystems that decompose the soluble organic content of wastewater, by aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Secondary treatment
43
________ includes filtration of particulates from the microbial flocs of secondary treatment, and may include chemical processes to decrease nitrogen and phosphorus.
Tertiary (advanced) treatment
44
What is the breakdown of complex organic matter (polymers) into simple organic compounds?
decomposition
45
What is the breakdown of simple organic compounds into inorganic molecules (including CO2)
mineralization
46
What is the uptake and incorporation of an organic or inorganic nutrient into cellular material?
assimilation
47
The conversion of a molecule from a gaseous into a non-gaseous (fixed-form)
fixation
48
Carbon dioxide to methane by anaerobic conditions?
Methanogenesis
49
Methane to carbon dioxide by aerobic conditions?
Methanotrophy
50
Carbon dioxide to organic carbon by water making oxygen.
Carbon dioxide fixation
51
Organic carbon to carbon dioxide by oxygen making water.
Decomposition and mineralization
52
Nitrate to nitrite
Denitrification and assimilation
53
Nitrite to nitrate
nitrification
54
Nitrite to nitrous oxide
Denitrification
55
Nitrogen to organic nitrogen
nitrogen fixation
56
organic nitrogen to ammonia
ammonification
57
ammonia to nitrite
nitrification
58
nitrite to ammonia and ammonia to organic nitrogen
assimilation
59
______ penetrate and grow within the plant roots.
Endomycorrhizae
60
_______ form a mantle over the root surface.
Ectomycorrhizae
61
What is the entry and growth of a microorganism within a host?
infection
62
What is the outcome of an infection where the microorganism produces symptoms and causes damage?
Disease
63
What is the outcome of an infection where the microorganism persists without causing disease?
colonization
64
An infective microorganism that causes disease?
pathogen
65
What are the two types of pathogens?
Primary and Opportunistic
66
_______ regularly causes disease in at least some individuals with normal defenses.
Primary pathogen
67
________ usually does not cause disease except in individuals with compromised defenses.
Opportunistic pathogen
68
What is the degree of pathogenicity?
Virulence
69
What are the specific properties of a pathogen that promote disease and infection?
Virulence factors
70
What is the alteration of host behavior to reduce the risk of exposure to infectious agents?
Avoidance
71
What is the reduction of pathogen burden once infection is established?
Resistance
72
The reduction of the negative impact of an infection on host fitness without directly affecting the pathogen burden?
Tolerance
73
Defenses that act in the same way against all types of pathogens which consist of barriers to infection and innate immunity?
Nonspecific resistance
74
Defenses that are specifically adapted to act against each particular pathogen? Also called adaptive or acquired immunity.
Specific resistance
75
Both organisms benefit.
Mutualism
76
One organism benefits and the other is not affected.
Commensalism
77
One organism (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other (host).
Parasitism
78
What are the steps of bacterial infection?
Microbial entry into host by portals of entry; Microbial attachment to surface tissues; Microbial growth and spread within the host; Microbial exit from the host.
79
Inhibit phagocytosis and complement activation?
Capsule
80
Any poisonous substance of biological origin?
Toxin
81
What are the two types of toxins?
Endotoxin, Extoxins
82
Blocks neurotransmitter release?
Neurotoxin (botulinum)
83
Promotes massive fluid loss from intestinal epithelium?
Enterotoxin (cholera)
84
Kills cells by inactivating translation?
Cytotoxin (diptheria)
85
Lyse red blood cells by forming pores in membranes?
Hemolysins
86
Lyse white blood cells by forming pores in membranes?
Leukocidins
87
Degrades hyaluronic acid?
hyaluronidase
88
Degrades collagen?
Collagenase
89
Promotes blood clot formation?
Coagulase
90
Dissolves blood clots?
Streptokinase
91
Cleaves IgA antibodies
IgA protease
92
What are the three types of Physical and Chemical Barriers?
Tissue Integrity; Flushing mechanisms; Antimicrobial Substances
93
What are the four biological barriers?
Genetic resistance; Normal microbial flora; Phagocytosis; Inflammation
94
How does normal microbial flora protect the host?
limiting available nutrients, prevention of pathogen attachment, synthesizing antimicrobial agents.
95
Homozygous for normal hemoglobin (HbA)?
highly susceptible to the malaria parasite
96
Homozygous for variant hemoglobin (HbS)?
Severe sickle cell anemia, early death
97
Heterozygous for HbA and HbS?
mild sickle cell anemia, resistant to the malaria parasite
98
What are the steps of phagocytosis?
Chemotaxis, Attachment, Engulfment, Digestion
99
What are the specific receptor proteins on its surface that recognize and bind to distinctive molecules on the microbial cell surface?
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
100
What span the phagocyte cell membrane and signal presence of the pathogen, activating appropriate gene expression and host immune response?
Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
101
What are the nonspecific host defense phagocytes?
Granulocytes- basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils
102
What are the specific host defense?
Agranulocytes-lymphocytes
103
What differentiate to macrophages to become phagocytic?
Monocytes
104
What is the inflammation response?
Damage to host tissue produces injured and dead cells; cells in damaged tissues release mediators; mediators provoke a variety of biological responses (pain, fever, redness, swelling); tissue repair and regeneration; inflammation response is shut down.
105
Any molecule that is immunogenic (induces an immune response)?
Antigens
106
What are the general properties of antigens?
recognized as foreign (non-self) by the immune system; large molecules >6000 Da; possess multiple epitopes
107
What are the two types of immunity?
Humoral (body fluids) and Cell-mediated (body tissues)
108
______ are proteins in response to antigens?
Antibodies
109
What is the fluid portion of blood after clotting factors are removed?
Serum
110
______ remain soluble when blood serum is diluted with water?
Albumins
111
What is the precipitate?
globulins
112
What is the structure of an antibody and how many amino acids do they contain?
2 Heavy Chains (~400 amino acids) & 2 Light Chains (~200 amino acids)
113
Phagocytic cell makes contact with antigen; Phagocytosis of antigen; MHC proteins bind digested antigen carry to cell surface and display in cell membrane; phagocytic cell migrates to lymphoid tissue presents MHC complex to naive CD4 T lymphocyte, activated T cell to helper T lymphocyte then to activation of second lymphocyte; second lymphocyte divides and differentiates.
Primary Immune Response
114
Which proteins occur on all nucleated cells in the body and bind to endogenous antigens, those synthesized within the cytoplasm of a phagocytic cell that has been infected?
Class 1 MHC
115
Which proteins normally occur only on the surfaces of phagocytic cells and bind to exogenous antigens, those that are synthesized prior to engulfment by the phagocytic cell?
Class 2 MHC
116
______ carry ______ on their cell surface that recognize and bind to the antigen fragment-MHC complex presented by the phagocytic cell
T lymphocytes; T-Cell receptors
117
Each T lymphocyte carries its own unique TCRs that are only able to recognize and bind specifically to a ______ ______
single epitope
118
Subsets of T lymphocytes also carry different _______ associated with the TCR, including the _________.
co-receptors; CD co-receptors
119
Mature naive CD4 T lymphocytes receive antigen by phagocytic cell and turn to activated CD4 T lymphocytes and then divide and differentiate to?
Helper (CD4+) T lymphocytes & Memory (CD4+) T lymphocytes
120
Mature naive B lymphocytes bind to antigen which becomes activated B lymphocytes and divide and differentiate to?
Plasma cells & memory B lymphocytes
121
Mature naive CD8+ T lymphocytes receive activation signals which become activated CD8+ T lymphocytes which divides and differentiates to?
Cytotoxic (CD8+) T lymphocytes & Memory (CD8+) T lymphocytes
122
enhances killing by macrophages?
Macrophage activation factor (MAE)
123
Inhibits migration of macrophages from the site of infection?
Migration inhibition factor (MIF)
124
Have a wide range of activities in inflammatory and immune responses?
Interleukins
125
Attract leukocytes to antigen?
Chemokines
126
kill cells?
Lymphotoxins
127
stimulate cell division, including granulocytes and macrophages?
Colony stimulating factors
128
Inhibit viral replication?
Interferons
129
What are the types of cell-mediated immune response?
protection against certain infectious agents; tumor cell destruction; transplant tissue rejection
130
a transplant to another part of the same body?
autograft
131
a transplant between genetically identical individuals?
isograft
132
a transplant between genetically non identical individuals?
allograft
133
a transplant between individuals of different species?
xenograft
134
Primarily antibody mediated, a fast response?
immediate hypersensitivity
135
primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?
anaphylactic hypersensitivity
136
IgM and IgG antibodies react with cellular antigens?
cytotoxic hypersensitivity
137
IgM and IgG antibodies react with soluble antigens, forming immune complexes of antigens and antibodies?
Immune-complex hypersensitivity
138
primarily cell-mediated, a slow response
delayed hypersensitivity
139
hay fever, mold, dust allergies, food allergies?
localized anaphylaxis
140
drug allergies, insect, spider bites and can lead to anaphylactic shock?
systemic anaphylaxis
