Test 3 Flashcards
(110 cards)
1
Q
isotope 14 C
A
useful to label amino acids and follow
2
Q
isotope 32 P
A
label nucleotide
3
Q
What are the two subunits of a ribosome?
A
small (30s)- 1rRNA + 21 proteins
large (50s)- 2rRNA + 31 proteins
4
Q
Why are subunits labeled as 30s and 50s?
A
Ultracentrifugation used to separate the two units by measure of the sedimentation rate based on size, shape, & density of the molecule.
5
Q
What is sedimentation unit?
A
suedberg units represented by S
6
Q
How many units can be occupied at one time in the mRNA?
A
only 2 units
7
Q
What helps transfer amino acid from A to P?
A
Peptidyl Transferase
8
Q
What is the E site?
A
The exit
9
Q
What is the A site?
A
entrance of amino acid
10
Q
What is the P site?
A
Peptidyl transferase
11
Q
How many codons can be moved at time and how many bases are in a codon?
A
one codon which has 3 bases
12
Q
DNA helicase?
A
unwinds the DNA double Helix
13
Q
ss DNA binding protein?
A
binds to and stabilizes the unwound single DNA strands
14
Q
Primase?
A
synthesizes short (~10 bases) RNA primers
15
Q
DNA polymerase I?
A
removes the RNA primers and replaces with DNA
16
Q
DNA polymerase III?
A
extends the primers (the major DNA replication enzyme)
17
Q
DNA ligase?
A
seals the newly synthesized pieces of DNA (okazaki fragments) together
18
Q
What is genotype?
A
total genetic information that an organism posses.
19
Q
What is phenotype?
A
the characteristics (appearance and behavior) that an organism displays.
20
Q
What is a mutation?
A
a change in the base-pair sequence of DNA.
21
Q
What is a gene?
A
a complete DNA base-pair sequence required to make a single final product that has a biological function.
22
Q
What is a substitution mutation?
A
A single base is changed causing a possible change in the amino acid
23
Q
What is a frameshift (deletion) mutation?
A
a single base is deleted causing the reading of the codon to be moved over.
24
Q
What is a plasmid?
A
DNA molecules that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome
25
Plasmids ______ have genes for their own replication.
always
26
Plasmids _______ have genes that confer new phenotypic characteristics on the host cell such as antibiotic resistance, toxin production, new metabolic capabilities.
sometimes
27
Plasmids ________ have genes that mediate plasmid transfer to new cells (conjugation).
usually
28
What is homologous recombination?
the reassortment of similar nucleotide sequences.
29
What is RecBCD in E. coli?
unwinds double helix and cleaves single strands
30
What is RecA in E.coli?
facilitates strand exchange
31
Gene transfer is an ______ event and is ______ coupled to reproduction.
occasional; not
32
DNA transfer is ________ (from a ______ cell to ______ cell)
unidirectional; donor; recipient
33
Only _______ of a donor cell's genetic material is transferred to a recipient cell.
part
34
Only _______ of a donor cell's genetic material is transferred to a recipient cell.
part
35
What is conjugation?
DNA transfer when donor and recipient cells are in direct contact.
36
What is conjugation?
DNA transfer when donor and recipient cells are in direct contact.
37
What is transformation?
donor DNA in solution is taken up by recipient cells
38
What is transduction?
DNA transfer from donor to recipient cells mediated by bacteriophages (viruses)
39
What is transduction?
DNA transfer from donor to recipient cells mediated by bacteriophages (viruses)
40
Griffith Experiment?
any live virulent phenotype will result in death
41
Griffith Experiment?
any live virulent phenotype will result in death
42
Tobacco mosaic disease is caused by an infectious agent
Dmitri Ivanovsky
43
The infectious agent that cause tobacco mosaic disease is not a bacterium
Martinus Beijerinck
44
The infectious agent that cause tobacco mosaic disease is not a bacterium
Martinus Beijerinck
45
Foot-and-mouth disease in animals is caused by a virus
Friedrich Loeffler & Paul Frosch
46
Malignant sarcomas in chickens are caused by a virus
Peyton Rous
47
Malignant sarcomas in chickens are caused by a virus
Peyton Rous
48
Discovery of the first bacterial viruses (bacteriophages)
Frederick Twort & Felix d'Herelle
49
What is a plaque?
localized zone of phage growth
50
What is a plaque?
localized zone of phage growth
51
What is antigenic shift?
exchange of RNA segments between viruses
52
List the cycle of virus lytic growth.
Attachment (receptor mediated), penetration, synthesis of new viral components, assembly, and release
53
List steps of lysogenic growth.
Attachment, penetration, virus DNA integrates into host chromosome (prophage), cell division, back to lytic growth.
54
List steps of lysogenic growth.
Attachment, penetration, virus DNA integrates into host chromosome (prophage), cell division, back to lytic growth.
55
What are Prions?
protein particles that are infectious in the absence of nucleic acids and cause slow degenerative brain diseases.
56
How do disease like CJD, GSS, FFI, Kuru work?
normal prion protein (Prpc) refolds into abnormal form (Prpsc) which comes in contact with normal and transforms into abnormal
57
How do disease like CJD, GSS, FFI, Kuru work?
normal prion protein (Prpc) refolds into abnormal form (Prpsc) which comes in contact with normal and transforms into abnormal
58
What is the biological species concept?
a group of actually or potentially interbreeding natural populations, which are reproductively isolated from other such groups
59
What is the biological species concept?
a group of actually or potentially interbreeding natural populations, which are reproductively isolated from other such groups
60
Morphology, physiology, ecology, & medical importance are what?
Traditional methods of microbial classification.
61
What are the molecular methods of microbial classification?
Nucleic acid hybridization, protein electrophoresis, nucleic acid and protein sequencing
62
What are the molecular methods of microbial classification?
Nucleic acid hybridization, protein electrophoresis, nucleic acid and protein sequencing
63
RNA world to progenote to last common ancestor to urkaryote then?
Urkaryote goes to eukaryote while it also splits to ancestral archaea and ancestral bacteria. Ancestral archaea to modern archaea and ancestral bacteria to modern bacteria.
64
Cyanobacteria use _______ ________?
Oxygenic photosynthesis
65
What uses anoxygenic photosythnesis?
purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
66
What uses anoxygenic photosythnesis?
purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
67
What are chemolithotrophs?
nitrifying bacteria
68
Thiobacillus and Beggiatoa are ________?
sulfur-oxidizing bacteria
69
Nitrifying and most sulfur-oxidizing bacteria are ______ _______.
strict aerobes
70
Nitrifying and most sulfur-oxidizing bacteria are ______ _______.
strict aerobes
71
Nitrifying and most sulfur-oxidizing bacteria are ______ _______.
strict aerobes
72
Prosthecate or ______ bacteria
stalked
73
hyphomicrobium
budding bacteria
74
magnetosomes
magnetospirillum
75
magnetosomes
magnetospirillum
76
Gliding bacteria?
motile by means other than flagella such as myxobacteria
77
predatory bacteria
bdellovibrio
78
What grow as obligate intracellular parasites of eukaryotic cells?
rickettsias and chlamydias
79
Rickettsias and chladmydias require?
biosynthetic precursors from their host cells. They havea specific transport system that exchanges internal ADP for external ATP.
80
Rickettsias and chladmydias require?
biosynthetic precursors from their host cells. They havea specific transport system that exchanges internal ADP for external ATP.
81
Low G+C gram positive bacteria in phylum Firmicutes are?
Lactic acid, staphylococci, and endospore formers
82
Firmicutes-related bacteria lacking cell walls are?
mycoplasmas
83
High G+C gram positive bacteria in phylum Actinobacteria?
coryneform, mycobacteria, actinomycetes, propionic acid, micrococci.
84
High G+C gram positive bacteria in phylum Actinobacteria?
coryneform, mycobacteria, actinomycetes, propionic acid, micrococci.
85
Which bacteria completely lack cell wall?
mycoplasmas
86
Distinguishing characteristics of archaea are?
cell wall has NAT instead of NAM, cell membrane has ether-linked phospholipids, protein synthesis has eukaryote-like features, metabolism has unique coenzymes and metabolic pathways.
87
Distinguishing characteristics of archaea are?
cell wall has NAT instead of NAM, cell membrane has ether-linked phospholipids, protein synthesis has eukaryote-like features, metabolism has unique coenzymes and metabolic pathways.
88
What are the two types of asexual spores?
sporangiospores and canidiospores
89
How do fungi have asexual reproduction?
budding
90
________ occurs between opposite mating types within the same species.
Sexual reproduction
91
How do fungi have sexual reproduction?
fusion of hyphae, mixing and fusion of nuclei, formation of a diploid zygote, meiosis to produce haploid sexual spores.
92
What is genetic variation?
exchange of RNA segments between viruses (antigenic shift)
93
How do fungi have sexual reproduction?
fusion of hyphae, mixing and fusion of nuclei, formation of a diploid zygote, meiosis to produce haploid sexual spores.
94
What are the shapes of viruses?
filamentous, polyhedral (spherical), complex or combined
95
What is an antigen?
any substance that includes an immune response
96
Cyanobacteria use _______ ________?
Oxygenic photosynthesis (absorb longer wavelengths orange-red)
97
What uses anoxygenic photosythnesis?
purple and green photosynthetic bacteria (shorter wavelengths blue-green)
98
What are chemolithotrophs?
nitrifying bacteria that reduce inorganic compounds
99
Chain of granules
Magnetosomes (magnetospirillum)
100
What is antigenic drift?
small mutation in hemaglutinin and neuraminidases
101
What type of bacteria inhabit soil/aquatic environments and are motile by lophotichous flagella?
Spirilla
102
Transmission EM has ?
high resolution picture (2D)
103
Transmission EM has ?
high resolution picture (2D)
104
Scanning EM has?
Low resolution but 3D
105
What are the extremophiles?
methanogens, halophilic archaea, hyperthermophilic, hyperthermophiles
106
What is a strict anaerobe, methane producing, and has unique coenzymes?
methanogens
107
What has optimal growth at 21-27% NaCl?
halophilic archaea
108
What has optimal growth at 21-27% NaCl?
halophilic archaea
109
What grows in up to 100 degree C, hot acid springs, and hydrothermal vents?
hyperthemophiles
110
What grows in up to 100 degree C, hot acid springs, and hydrothermal vents?
hyperthermophiles
