FINAL Flashcards
(136 cards)
1
Q
Where does the quadraceps femoris insert?
A
Tibial tuberosity
2
Q
When does the pelvis complete ossification?
A
23-27yrs
3
Q
When does the lower limb bud appear?
A
~28 days
4
Q
When does pelvic condensation start?
A
34-36 days intrauterine
5
Q
When does pelvic chondrification begin?
A
6-7 weeks intrauterine
6
Q
When does ossification of the ischial tuberosity and ramal epiphysis occur?
A
13-23 rys
7
Q
When does ossification of the iliac crest occur?
A
10-20yrs
8
Q
When does foot condensation begin?
A
37 days intrauterine
9
Q
When does femoral chondrification occur?
A
41-52 days intrauterine
10
Q
What type of joint is the talocrural (ankle) joint? What does it allow for?
A
Hinge
Allows for dorsi and plantar flexion, inversion and eversion
11
Q
What type of joint is the sacrioiliac?
A
Synovial, cartilaginous
12
Q
What type of joint is the proximal tibiofibular?
A
Synovial, plane
13
Q
What type of joint is the knee joint? Which bones are involved?
A
Synovial, hinge
Femur, patella, tibia
14
Q
What type of joints are the intertarsal joints?
A
Synovial, mostly inversion and eversion
15
Q
What type of joints are the intertarsal and intermetatarsal joints?
A
Synovial, plane
16
Q
What muscles attach to the greater trochanter of the femur?
A
Gluteus minimus
Gluteus medius
17
Q
What muscle is very close to the greater sciatic notch?
A
Piriformis
18
Q
What makes up the quadraceps femoris?
A
Rectus femoris
Vastus lateralis
Vastus intermedius
Vastus medialis
19
Q
What makes up the achilles tendon?
A
Soleus
Gastrocnemius
20
Q
What is triradiate ossification? When does it occur?
A
The fusion of the pubis, ilium and ischium.
Occurs are 9-14 years
21
Q
What attaches at the tibial tuberosity?
A
Patellar ligament and quadraceps femoris
22
Q
What attaches at the gluteal tuberosity?
A
Castus lateralis
Gluteus maximus
23
Q
What attaches at the adductor tubercle?
A
Adductor magnus
24
Q
What are the muscles of the hamstrings?
A
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
25
What are the 5 muscles of the adductor group?
```
Pectineus
Gracilis
Adductor brevis
Adductor Longus
Adductor Magnus
```
26
How many pedal phalanges are there?
28
27
How many of each vertebrae?
```
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
4-5 coccygeal
```
28
Gluteus minimus
Inferior gluteal line to greater trochanter
| Abduct, medial rotate of hip
29
Gluteus medius
Between anterior and posterior gluteal lines and greater trochanter
Abduct and medial rotate of hip
30
Gluteus maximus
Posterior gluteal line to gluteal tuberosity
| Extensor and lateral rotator of hip
31
At what time does the distal femoral epiphysis complete fusion?
14-18 females
| 16-20 males
32
At what time does primary ossification of the pelvis occur?
2-6 months intrauterine
33
What are the rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis
34
Flexor retinaculum
A fibrous band on the palmar side of the hand near the wrist. It arches over the carpal bones, covering them and forming the carpal tunnel.
35
Extensor retinaculum
Dorsal surface of the hand. Also holds together carpal tunnel.
36
Which three nerves are in the hand?
Median
Ulnar
Radial
37
Radial nerve
Superficial to the extensor retinaculum on the doral surface.
38
Ulnar nerve
Superficial to the flexor retinaculum on palmar surface.
39
Median nerve
Once it passes through the carpal tunnel, it divides into two branches - recurrent and palmar digital nerves. The palmar digital nerves give sensory innervation to the palmar skin and dorsal nail beds.
40
What are the three tendons of the anatomical snuffbox?
Abductor pollicis longus
Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor pollicis longus
41
Syndesmosis
A fibrous joint in which connective tissue is present to join the two bones.
Ex - the connection between the radius and ulna via the interosseus membrane.
42
Synchrondosis
A cartilaginous joint in which a layer of hyaline cartilage is involved in the connection.
Temporary joint as will disappear with adult bone.
Ex - the fusion of the epiphysis to the diaphysis
43
What joint is temporary and will disappear with adult bone?
Synchrondosis
44
2 examples of plane joints
sternoclavicular
| acromioclavicular
45
2 examples of a hinge joint
knee
| elbow
46
example of a pivot joint
superior radius and ulna
47
example of an ellipsoid joint
wrist
48
2 examples of a ball and socket joint
shoulder and hip
49
example of a saddle joint
thumb, all movements possible
50
Which tendon(s) makes up the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox?
Extensor pollicis longus
51
Which tendon(s) make up the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox?
Extensor pollicis brevis
| Abductor pollicis longus
52
Name the type of joint between the shaft of the radius and ulna
Syndesmosis via the interosseus membrane
53
The limb bud appears at what time?
As early as 26 days intrauterine
54
How many bones are there in the hand?
27 total
8 carpals
5 metacarpals
14 phalanges
55
What are the 3 parts of the innonimate?
Ilium, ischium, pubis
56
What makes up the pelvis?
Two innonimates & sacrum
57
What are the 3 muscles of the gluteal region?
Gluteus maximus, medius, minimus
58
Name the three joints of the pelvis
Sacroiliac Joints - synovial. Hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage present. Interosseous sacroiliac ligament very important in the strength of these joints.
Pubic Symphysis - Synostosis. Fibrocartilaginous joint.
Acetabular Joint - Synovial, ball and socket. Most important ligament is the iliofemoral ligament.
59
Identify two actions of the forearm
Supination
| Pronation
60
What type of bone is the patella?
Sesamoid
61
Action of the gluteus maximus
Extensor and lateral rotator of hip
62
Action of the gluteus medius
Abduct, medial rotate of hip
63
Action of the gluteus minimus
Abduct, medial rotate of hip
64
Articular cartilage (hyaline)
The smooth, white tissue that covers the ends of bones where they come together to form joints.
65
Canaliculi
Channels from the lacuna which house the cellular processes from the osteocyte
66
Cancellous (spongy, trabecular) bone
- scaffolding appearance
- large soft tissue spaces
- rarely includes vascular canals or osteons
- located in ends of bones and in association with marrow
67
Compact (cortical) bone
The dense outer surface of bone that forms a protective layer around the internal cavity
68
Diaphysis
The main or midsection (shaft) of a long bone. It is made up of cortical bone and usually contains bone marrow and adipose tissue (fat).
69
Endosteum
A thin vascular membrane of connective tissue that lines the inner surface of the bony tissue that forms the medullary cavity of long bones.
70
Epiphysis
Secondary center
| The end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the shaft
71
Haversian system (canal)
- named after Clopton Havers
| - central canal of the osteon, containing the vascular bundle (arterioles, venules, lymphatics and nerves, plus marrow)
72
Interstitial lamella
One of the lamellae of partially resorbed osteons occurring between newer, complete osteons.
73
Lacuna
Cell spaces to house osteocytes
74
Lamellar bone
- compact bone
- dense bone structure
- highly organized
- limited soft tissue spaces
- highly vascular
- organized into Haversian systems
75
Medullary cavity
The medullary cavity (medulla, innermost part) is the central cavity of bone shafts where red bone marrow and/or yellow bone marrow (adipose tissue) is stored; hence, the medullary cavity is also known as the marrow cavity.
76
Metaphysis (growth plate)
The narrow portion of a long bone between the epiphysis and the diaphysis. It contains the growth plate, the part of the bone that grows during childhood and as it grows, it ossifies near the diaphysis and the epiphyses.
77
Osteoblast
- bone makers
- arise from mesenchymal cells
- produce bone matrix known as osteoid
- as it is encased in matrix, it will reside in a lacuna and become an osteocyte
78
Osteoclast
- bone breakers
- arises from mesenchymal cells
- giant multinucleated phagocytic cell
- resorbs and remodels bone and cartilage
- resides in Howship's lacuna
79
Osteocyte
- arise from osteoblast
- maintain bone matrix and may release calcium
- numerous processes interconnecting them
- reside in lacuna
80
Osteon
Chief structural unit of compact (cortical) bone, consisting of concentric bone layers called lamellae, which surround a long hollow passageway,
81
Periosteum
A membrane that covers the outer surface of all bones, except at the joints of long bones.
82
Primary center of ossification
Located in the shaft
83
Secondary center of ossification
Located in the epiphysis
84
Sharpey's fibres
Any of the thready processes of the periosteum that penetrate the tissue of the superficial lamellae of bones
85
Volkmann's canal
Connecting branches between Haversian canals, feed intersitial lamellae
86
Woven bone
- fetal bone
- poorly organized and weak bone
- large vascular spaces
87
Intramembranous ossification
- appositional growth
- no cartilaginous model
- mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
- bone matrix is layered down
- osteocytes and canaliculi are evident
88
Endochondral ossification
- associated with growth phase and repair
- originate from a cartilaginous model
- cartilage cells replaced by bone cells
- growth occurs in length and width
89
What are the dental formulas?
Deciduous 2102
| Adult 2123
90
Ethics: biological anthropologists must consider the following:
```
Study Group
Present day descendants
Future descendants
Other populations
Science
Scholarship
Publication of results without disposing data
Colleagues
Students, trainees, employers, employees, public
Held accountable for what doing and WHY
```
91
Ethics: WHY am I doing this research?
How will this research project be vetted?
How might the research impact descendants and local communities?
What are the full implications of conducting this research?
How is the publication vetted before being publicized?
How does history
92
Ethics: WHY am I doing this research?
How will this research project be vetted?
How might the research impact descendants and local communities?
What are the full implications of conducting this research?
How is the publication vetted before being publicized?
How does history of the discipline impact the ability to conduct research?
93
What kind of ethical legislation is in place in Alberta?
Every situation is unique, no comprehensive legislation except how to deal with remains in general.
Chief medical examiner authority until deemed otherwise.
Have NOT resolved all the issues
94
Scientific value in studying human remains
- medical school use of cadavers
- autopsies to understand disease and forensic science
- skeletal and mummified remains can be studied for information on health, development and human societies
- human remains in the context of culture
- all humans benefit from information and therefore all humans have a stake in its aquisition
95
What is an isotope?
Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei.
Same chemical properties, different mass.
96
What is the relationship of carbon and nitrogen in tissues?
In any area local foods have certain stable isotope values and human tissue values reflects the proportion of foods eaten. This analysis depends on knowing available foods and values.
97
How is diet reflected by isotopes?
Stable isotope analysis reconstructs nutritional importance of foods.
Reconstructs diet at the individual level and can address questions of diet and gender, age, class.
98
How to identify someone's age?
```
Method 1: dental eruption
Method 2: epiphyseal fusion
Method 3: pubic symphseal change
4: rib end analysis
5: cranial suture closure
6: degenerative change
```
99
What is a biofilm?
A group of microorganisms that adhere to a surface. A microbial aggregate. May include bacteria, fungi, protozoa, proteins and extracellular DNA.
100
What are individualizing features?
Dentition
Trabecular patters and xrays
Sinuses
Pathology
101
What are the implications of bone analysis & biofilm?
Biofilm can ruin specimens, so you might be unable to do microscopic analysis on the bone. In the example we talked about, the sections of bone appeared black.
102
How has it changed since death? (Taphonomy)
```
Animal scavenging
Burning
Secondary burial
Weather
Soil
```
103
Endocrine disturbances
Thryroid, parathyroid, pituitary (growth regulation)
| cretinous dwarfism, gigantism, acromegaly, hereditary achondroplasia
104
Circulatory disturbances
Affects bloodflow to region
| Trauma, infections, degenerative diseases, congenital disorders
105
Nutritional disturbances
Lacking certain mineral and vitamins
| Osteomalacia, rickets
106
Congenital deformities
Non-fusion anomalies, accessory bones, accessory foramen, spondyloysis
107
Occupational stress markers
Hypertrophy, osteophytosis, facets, grooves, accessory bones
108
Dental disease
Caries, abcesses, peridontal disease, malocclusion
109
Cultural modifications
Cranial deformations, trepinations
110
Lytic lesions
Abnormal loss of bone.
Anemia-porotic hyperostosis: sickle cell, malnutrition, cribra orbitalla, cribra crani
Necrosis-bone death: alveolar absesses, amputations
111
Proliferative lesions
Excess bone deposition.
Osteophytes: osteoarthritis, aging
Bone callus: around fracture, around implants
Generalized bone disease: striations on long bones
Button osteoma
112
Deformative lesions
Abnormal curvature or morphology.
Environmentally caused: osteomalacia, rickets, vertebral wedging
Congenital cause: scoliosis
113
Fractures
```
Complete fracture
Incomplete fracture
Compound fracture
Pathological fracture
Stress fracture
```
114
Fractures
```
Complete fracture
Incomplete fracture
Compound fracture
Pathological fracture
Stress fracture
```
115
Osteitis
Inflammation of the bone caused by infections
116
Periositis
Inflammation of the periosteum
117
Osteomyelitis
Inflammation in the bone caused by bacteria and involves the medullary cavity
118
Algor mortis
body temperature drops, time of death
119
Rigor mortis
tensed pose of the body (2-4hrs post mortem)
120
Livor mortis
pooling of blood causing discoloration of skin
121
Degradation
begins immediately at tie of death; breakdown of body fluids and tissues via autolysis
122
Putrefacation
gases created by microbes as body tissues are broken down and begin to decay
123
Taphonomy: soil
Mineral within soil dictates the color of the stain on bones.
124
Taphonomy: minerals
Can form crystals on bone surface. Groundwater can cause stains and calcium crusts of mineral.
125
Taphonomy: metals
Mostly from artifacts that are burried with or near bodies.
Iron = red/brown
Copper= green/blue
126
Why is taphonomy relevant to forensics?
- can help indicate post mortem interval
- can help indicate whether the remains are forensic or historic
- can hide trauma
- spread of forensic scene via carrying of remains
- helpful to indicating length of time in one location
127
Imaging techniques: 2D
- plane plate radiography
- x-ray radiography
- ultrasonography
- sound-based
- 3D being developed
128
Imaging techniques: 2D
- plane plate radiography
- x-ray radiography
- ultrasonography
- sound-based
- 3D being developed
129
Imaging techniques: 3D
- computed tomography
| - MRI - magnetic resonance imaging
130
Radiography
- x-ray beam passed through subject in a single plane
advantages
- fast, cheap, low relative radiation exposure
disadvantages
- 2D
- superimposition is a problem
- difficult to make accurate measurments
131
Computed Tomography
- CT scan
- useful in clinical and research settings
- data can be interpreted multiple ways
- no superimposition
- high tolerance for tissue differentiation
- available in most hospitals
- relatively quick
disadvantages
- spatial revolution not great
- higher radiation dose
- high running costs
132
Ultrasonography
```
pros
- quality bone surface rendering
- no radiation, few side effects
- scanners cheap, portable
cons
- cannot penetrate bone surface
- requires trained operator
- BMI dependent imaging
```
133
2D vs 3D imaging
```
2D
- gross assessment of bonw
- cheap and fast
- superimposition
- qualitative analysis
- fixed image
- initial pilot studies
3D
- specific observations
- expensive
- quantitative data
- in-depth analysis
```
134
C3 plants
Most plants eaten by humans including crops
135
C4 plants
A few plants eaten by humans including maize, millet and sugarcane.
136
What are some solutions to eliminate biofilm?
- eliminate airborne bacteria
- chemical treatments
- high energy radiation
- low oxygen environments
- refridgerations
- dehydration at room temp
