FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

true or false: monomers of macromolecules are joined together by hydrolysis reactions

A

false

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2
Q

true or false: the liquid form of water (H2O) is more dense, than the solid form of water

A

true

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3
Q

true or false: cations are negatively charged atoms that have fewer protons than electrons

A

false

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4
Q

true or false: the “R-“ group of an amino acid has the greatest influence on the overall structure of a protein

A

true

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5
Q

true or false: inductive reasoning applies general principles to predict specific results

A

false

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6
Q

true or false: the pH of a solution is a measure of the

-log[H+]

A

true

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7
Q

true or false: a fatty acid chain that lacks double bonded carbons, is considered a saturated fatty acid

A

true

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8
Q

true or false: chaperone proteins help newly synthesized proteins fold correctly into functional structures

A

true

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9
Q

true or false: in general, fruits and vegetables contain more saturated fats than meats

A

false

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10
Q

true or false: life a dynamic process that is constantly in flux, thus living things exist in a non equilibrium state

A

true

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11
Q

the first life form from which all life forms on Earth are believed to be derived from, first appeared __ billion years ago (BYA)

A

3.5

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12
Q

how are the tails and heads of membrane phospholipids oriented in their environment?

A

the hydrophobic tails are oriented towards each other and the hydrophilic heads are oriented towards the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid

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13
Q

which of these carbohydrates is not a six carbon sugar?

A

ribose

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14
Q

which types of monomers make up proteins

A

amino acids

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15
Q

in which type of macromolecule found in living systems would you expect to find a sulfhydryl group (-S-H)?

A

protein

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16
Q

based on the “Hypothesis-driven science” example on scientific investigations given in class (crying 3 month old baby), how would you describe “baby is hungry” on the flow chart?

A

hypothesis

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17
Q

out of the 12 elements that make up most living things, which four elements make up 96.4% of the human body?

A

oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, carbon (COHN)

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18
Q

proteins are important to biological systems because of their function in

A

cell movement, cell structure, and enzyme catalysis

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19
Q

a substance that has a high concentration of hydrogen ions ( >10^-7)

A

is called a acid

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20
Q

in his book “On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection” Charles Darwin based his theory of Natural Selection on observations that were made on adaptive differences saw in which animal on the Galapagos Islands

A

cactus finch

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21
Q

what is the name given to the electrons found in the outer most rings of an atom?

A

valence electrons

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22
Q

which of the following is NOT a property of the elements most commonly found in living organisms

A

the elements possess eight electrons in their outer energy level

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23
Q

of the four structures associated with protein, which structure would not be effected by denaturing the protein

A

primary structure

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24
Q

biologists have divided all living things into three domains, Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. The Eukarya are further subdivided into four kingdoms of Protista, fungi, Animalia, and plantae. within these domains, which of these have cells that are ONLY composed of single cell organisms with little internal structure

A

bacteria

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25
Q

a atom with a net positive charge must have __

A

more protons than electrons

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26
Q

if the atomic number of nitrogen (N) is 7, how many electrons would be needed to be shared by covalent bonds to fill the outer shell of the Nitrogen atom

A

three

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27
Q

How is the process of natural selection different from that of artificial selection

A

artificial selection is a result of human intervention

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28
Q

which of these types for chemical bond are correctly organized from the strongest to the weakest

A

covalent, ionic, hydrogen

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29
Q

what was the contribution to science of Pasteur’s classic experiment

A

disproved spontaneous generation hypothesis

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30
Q

which of the following is not a disaccharide

A

fructose

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31
Q

which hierarchical group contains the most diverse group of organisms?

A

community

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32
Q

RNA is a form of __ composed of __

A

nucleic acid; phosphate, 5-carbon sugar, and nitrogen base

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33
Q

which of these biological categories is not part of the domain eukarya?

A

archaea

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34
Q

the organization of living systems is __

A

hierarchical with cells at the base and the biosphere at the top

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35
Q

if I knew that I had a sample of a nucleic acid, how would I be able to determine, if the sample was only composed of DNA. I would know by the absence of __

A

uracil

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36
Q

a scientific theory states __

A

a statement of how the world works that is supported by experimental data

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37
Q

a solution that has a change of 4 pH units indicates what fold change in the [H+] of the solution

A

10,000 X

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38
Q

if you shake a bottle of oil and vinegar then let it sit, it will separate into 2 phases because __

A

non polar oil is not soluble in water

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39
Q

which part of a nucleic acid is the variable portion that defines it as Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, Thymine?

A

the nitrogen base

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40
Q

when water molecules stick to the other polar molecules (other than water) by hydrogen bonding, that is called __

A

adhesion

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41
Q

what is the chronological order of the scientific method?

A

observation, question, hypothesis, experiment, data, prediction

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42
Q

if the basic (neutral) structure of a carbon-12 atom is 6 protons, 6 neutrons, 6 electrons, what is the structure of the isotope carbon-13?

A

6 protons, 7 neutrons, 6 electrons

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43
Q

an element is said to be radioactive when the number of __ is greater than the other subatomic particles in the atom

A

neutrons

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44
Q

the mass of an atom is determined by its __ and __

A

neutron; proton

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45
Q

phospholipids that form membranes in cells are composed of

A

phosphate group, glycerol, and fatty acid

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46
Q

plant cells store energy in the form of __, and animal cells store energy in the form of __

A

starch; glycogen

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47
Q

when we talk about “Sodium chloride dissolving in water by the formation of hydration cells”, what property of water is this related to?

A

solubility

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48
Q

of the 90 naturally occurring elements on Earth, how many of them are actually found in living systems in more than trace amounts?

A

12 elements

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49
Q

which carbohydrate would you find as part of a molecule of RNA?

A

none of these

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50
Q

true or false: coupled transport uses the concentration gradient established by active transport

A

true

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51
Q

true or false: bacterial cells that can alter the composition of the fatty acids in their membrane phospholipids would increase their unsaturated fatty acids in a cold climate

A

true

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52
Q

true or false: the gram stain is determined by the composition of the bacterial phospholipid bilayer

A

false

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53
Q

true or false: pinocytosis is not a mechanism for brining material into the cell

A

false

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54
Q

true or false: Robert Koch studied anthrax; proposed four postulates to prove a causal relationship between a microorganism and a disease

A

true

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55
Q

true or false: bacterial transformation and transduction the same process

A

false

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56
Q

true or false: osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane in response to the concentration of one or more of the cells

A

false

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57
Q

true or false: Robert Hooke first described “cells”

A

true

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58
Q

true or false: small cells have a greater surface-area-to-volume ratio than large cells

A

true

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59
Q

true or false: fusion of mouse and human cells was a classic experiment which established that cell membrane was not fluid

A

false

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60
Q

for the process of diffusion to occur, molecules must

A

move from areas of high concentration to areas of lesser concentration until an equilibrium is reached

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61
Q

dental plaque (a biofilm), a first stage in tooth decay, consists of

A

bacteria surrounded by a polysaccharide matrix

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62
Q

cell division in prokaryotic cells occurs by a process called

A

binary fission

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63
Q

the part of a membrane protein that extends through the phospholipid bilayer is primarily composed of amino acids that are

A

non-polar

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64
Q

mitochondria and chloroplasts are the other organelles besides the nucleus that contain:

A

DNA

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65
Q

when bacteria are exposed to nutrient-poor conditions, they form thick-walled structures that contain the chromosome and a small amount of cytoplasm. These structures are called

A

endospores

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66
Q

streptomycin is an antibiotic that interferes with the function of the 30S subunit of the prokaryotic ribosome. What is the consequence of treating a bacteria with streptomycin?

A

impaired protein synthesis

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67
Q

which type of proteins is embedded in the cell membrane in both active transport and facilitated transport?

A

carrier

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68
Q

in bacteria, fungi, and plants, the high internal pressure generated by osmosis is counteracted by the mechanical strength of their

A

cell walls

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69
Q

the protein sorting pathway involves the following organelles/compartments in order:

A

RER, transport vesicle, Golgi, final destination

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70
Q

Phil has chronic ulcers, he has been taking acid blockers and drinking vast amounts of liquid antacids. These help relieve the symptoms but he still suffers from ulcers. What would be the best course of action to treat the source of his ulcers?

A

taking a course of antibiotics

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71
Q

which of the following statements about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is false?

A

because chlamydia has both bacterial and viral characteristics, it cannot be treated with antibiotics

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72
Q

which of the following does NOT contribute to the secretive permeability of a biological membrane?

A

hydrogen bond formation between water and phosphate groups

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73
Q

the plasma membrane is said to be a fluid-mosaic of phospholipids because it contains __

A

a mosaic of proteins suspended within a phospholipid bilayer

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74
Q

the evolutionary process that created chloroplasts and mitochondria is

A

endosymbiosis

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75
Q

which of these terms describes the recipient cell following the transfer of the F plasmid with integration into the host chromosome?

A

Hfr+ cell

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76
Q

if two solutions have unequal concentrations of a solute, the solution with the lower concentration is called

A

hypotonic

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77
Q

flattened sacs of internal membranes associated with photosynthesis are called

A

thylakoids

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78
Q

using the picture below: which organelle contains the hydrolytic proteins that breaks down molecules

A

lysosome

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79
Q

current classification of prokaryotes is based on

A

sequencing of proteins, DNA, and RNA

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80
Q

which type of cell membrane protein hold cells together to form tissues?

A

junction proteins

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81
Q

if the label on a slide reads gram-positive bacillus, what would a student expect to see?

A

purple rod shaped cells

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82
Q

the process often referred to as “bulk transport” into the cell is referred to as __

A

endocytosis

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83
Q

plasmodesmata in plants and gap junctions in animals are functionally similar in that

A

they form channels between cells that allow diffusion of small molecules

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84
Q

the peptidoglycan of bacterial cell walls contains a carbohydrate matrix linked together by short chains of

A

amino acids

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85
Q

microfilaments such as actin, microtubules, and the intermediate filaments form the cell-supporting structure called the

A

cytoskeleton

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86
Q

a scientist performs an experiment in which they create an artificial cell with a selectively permeable membrane through which only water can pass. They inject a 5M solution of glucose into the cell and then place the cell into a beaker containing 5M glucose. What effect do you expect to observe?

A

no net change in cell weight

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87
Q

which of these is not a common shape associated with bacteria?

A

none, they all are

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88
Q

Schleiden and Schwann stated the “cell theory”, which in its modern form says

A

all organisms are composed of one or more cells, all cells are the smallest living things and all cells arise by division of other cells

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89
Q

based on the data, which gene is closest to gene 1?

A

gene 2

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90
Q

why is chlamydia much more common than syphilis?

A

many chlamydia infections are asymptomatic

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91
Q

which of these bulk transport mechanisms is used in animals to secrete hormones, neurotransmitters, or digestive enzymes?

A

exocytosis

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92
Q

which of the following is an INCORRECT match?

A

smooth ER - storage of water

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93
Q

in a single sodium-potassium pump cycle, ATP is used with the result that

A

3 sodium ions leave and 2 potassium ions enter

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94
Q

which of these bacterial diseases causes an acute infection of the respiratory system in humans?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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95
Q

when bacteria are used to remove pollutants from water, air, and soil, the term used to describe this process is

A

bioremediation

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96
Q

how can freeze-fracture be used to determine the orientation of a protein in a membrane?

A

freeze-fracture allows a cell to be cleaved in between the lipid bilayer, splitting the plasma membrane into two layers

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97
Q

organelles that breakdown hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen are

A

peroxisomes

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98
Q

cell membrane proteins that actively transport molecules and ions against a concentration gradient (from areas of low to high concentrations) are

A

transport proteins

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99
Q

a cell biologist has developed a new drug that blocks a vesicle transport at the cis face of the Golgi apparatus. What will this drug prevent from happening inside a cell?

A

the movement of lipids and proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus

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100
Q

true or false: the Krebs cycle is a catabolic pathway, while the Calvin cycle is an anabolic pathway

A

true

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101
Q

true or false: cactus and pineapple are examples of plants that carry out CAM photosynthesis

A

true

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102
Q

true or false: a solenoid is a unit of light energy from the sun

A

false

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103
Q

true or false: oxidation and reduction reactions are chemical processes that result in a gain or loss of electrons

A

true

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104
Q

true or false: in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the reactant is called the product

A

false

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105
Q

true or false: photorespiration occurs when excessive heat causes stoma to close and traps gasses in the leaves which causes RuBP binds to O2 instead of CO2

A

true

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106
Q

consider the signaling pathway: epinephrine > G coupled Protein Receptor > G protein > Adenylyl cyclase > cAMP > protein kinase A. Identify the second messenger

A

cAMP

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107
Q

the receptors for steroid hormones and peptide hormones are fundamentally different because

A

peptides are hydrophilic and steroids are hydrophobic

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108
Q

the law of thermodynamics that states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed is

A

the first law of thermodynamics

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109
Q

the energy needed to destabilize existing chemical bonds and stand a chemical reaction is called

A

activation energy

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110
Q

pyruvate oxidation in eukaryotic cells occurs in the __

A

mitochondria

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111
Q

why is the energy generated from the catabolism of sugars and other macromolecules ultimately harnessed to generate ATP?

A

ATP can be used by cells to drive endergonic reactions

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112
Q

what stage of cellular respiration can occur in human cells with or without oxygen present?

A

glycolysis

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113
Q

which of these statements describes endocrine signaling?

A

hormones released from a cell travel through circulatory system to affect other cells throughout the body

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114
Q

during the day, where in the chloroplast would you find the highest concentration of protons?

A

in the stroma

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115
Q

interaction of components __ and __ initiates the process of signal transduction, which converts the information in the signal into a cellular response

A

receptor; ligand

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116
Q

the Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondria. there are nine biochemical reactions involved in the Krebs cycle, and they are highly ordered. Select the correct order

A

acetyl-CoA joins the Krebs cycle and unites with oxaloacetate -> forming citrate -> which forms a-ketoglutarate -> which forms succinyl-CoA -> which forms succinate -> which forms fumarate -> which forms malate -> which forms oxaloacetate

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117
Q

a drug binds to the active site of an enzyme. If it is bound to the active site of the enzyme, it prevents substrate binding. This drug would be considered a(n)

A

competitive inhibitor

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118
Q

organisms that can manufacture their own chemical energy are called __

A

autotrophs

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119
Q

when an atom or molecule gains or more electrons, it is said to be

A

reduced

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120
Q

energy is defined as

A

the capacity to do work

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121
Q

all of these are “electron carriers” except

A

ATP

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122
Q

all of these are phases of the light-independent Calvin cycle, except one __

A

oxidation of water

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123
Q

the ultimate source of energy for humans comes from what source?

A

the sun

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124
Q

the wavelengths of light that are most effective for photosynthesis are __

A

red, blue, and violet

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125
Q

what is the correct order of steps in the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

A

photosystem II > electron transport system > photosystem I > electron transport system > ATP synthase

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126
Q

which type of receptor-ligand binding leads to activation of glycogen synthase?

A

insulin receptor

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127
Q

the production of ATP by chemiosmosis occurs in mitochondria (during respiration), and chloroplasts (during photosynthesis) when there is a imbalance of __

A

[H+]

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128
Q

hydrophobic-nonpolar ligands, such as steroids, cross the membranes of all cells, but effect only target cells because

A

intracellular receptors are present only in target cells

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129
Q

binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of ions on opposite sides of a membrane

A

ligand-gated ion channel

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130
Q

one way to generate acetyl-CoA is to convert pyruvate into acetyl-CoA by stripping off a CO2

A

decarboxylation

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131
Q

based on the graph, what are the optimal temperatures for the human enzyme and hot springs prokaryote enzyme?

A

the optimal temperature for the human enzyme is 40ºC. The optimal temperature for the hot springs prokaryote enzyme is 72ºC

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132
Q

in the process of cell signaling, scaffolding proteins organize the components of a kinase cascade into a single protein complex, which gives the advantage of efficiency, to the complex, however it does have a disadvantage in __

A

reducing the amplification effect

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133
Q

a particular chemical reaction is exergonic. What can you say about the relationship between the reactants and the products in this exergonic reaction?

A

the reactants have more free energy than the products

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134
Q

when oxygen is unavailable during heavy exercise, what process do muscle cells use for energy generation?

A

glycolysis coupled with lactate fermentation

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135
Q

these three amino acids have -OH as R-groups that can be phosphorylated

A

tyrosine, serine, theronine

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136
Q

what is an end-product of glycolysis?

A

pyruvate

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137
Q

what aspect of cellular respiration occurs in the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells?

A

glycolysis

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138
Q

this scientist believed the mass of plants came from not soil, but water

A

Jan Baptista van Helmont

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139
Q

which pair are examples of second messengers?

A

cAMP, calcium ions

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140
Q

C4 pants initially fix carbon by

A

incorporating CO2 into oxaloacetate, which is converted into malate

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141
Q

while standing at the top of the stairs, you have a PE of 40 joules. If you walk all the way down the stairs, what would your PE be at the bottom of the stairs?

A

0 joules

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142
Q

glucose is not our only food source, nor the only one we can utilize in our bodies to generate energy. Other primary sources of energy include other sugars, proteins, and fats. What metabolic intermediate are fats primarily converted into?

A

acetyl-CoA

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143
Q

what are the products of one turn of the Krebs cycle?

A

2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

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144
Q

you return home to find that your baby brother has scattered his toy trains and trucks all over the floor of your room. As you begin to pick up the toys and put them away, you realize that even though he is just a baby, he has clearly mastered:

A

the second law of thermodynamics

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145
Q

true or false: Prokaryotic conjugation which results in the transfer and insertion of the F plasmid into a recipient cell’schromosome leads to the formation an F+ cell.

A

false

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146
Q

true or false: Unsaturated fatty acids make cell membranes more fluid than saturated fatty acids.

A

true

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147
Q

Plasmids are distinguished from bacterial chromosomes in that

A

plasmids have few genes, bacterial chromosomes have many genes.

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148
Q

While water continually orients phospholipids into a lipid bilayer, it does not fix the lipids permanently into position. Thus, the bilayer is considered to be ________.

A

fluid

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149
Q

The lipid layer that forms the foundation of cell membranes is primarily composed of molecules called ________.

A

phospholipids

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150
Q

A cytologist is examining a tissue under an electron microscope. He notices that the endoplasmic reticulum of each cell is extremely rough in appearance and he knows that the rough appearance is because of the ribosomes embedded there. He asks why there areso many ribosomes. You respond,

A

“This tissue exports proteins to other areas of the body.”

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151
Q

The semi-fluid matrix that surrounds organelles in a cell is called the:

A

cytoplasm

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152
Q

Which of these is not a mechanism of vertical gene transfer in prokaryotes?

A

none

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153
Q

Prokaryotes undergo a process that produces cells that are identical. This process is called

A

binary fission

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154
Q

Which of these prokaryotic organsisms is called the “Silent STD”?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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155
Q

If the label on a slide reads Gram-positive bacillus, what would a students expect to see?

A

Purple rod shaped cells

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156
Q

Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane in response to the concentration of one or more of the ___.

A

solutes

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157
Q

In a single sodium-potassium pump cycle, ATP is used with the result that

A

3 sodium ions leave and 2 potassium ions enter.

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158
Q

The type of movement that is specific and requires carrier molecules and energy is

A

active transport

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159
Q

Some prokaryotes attach to other substrates by hairlike outgrowths, which are shorter than flagella. These are called

A

pili

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160
Q

Which of the following enables a cell to pick up and concentrate a specific type of molecule?

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis

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161
Q

If left untreated, syphilis infections go through four stages. The first stage is a sore calleda chancre. The signs of the second stage are

A

rash, sore throat, and sores in the mouth

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162
Q

Organelles that breakdown hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen are:

A

peroxisomes.

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163
Q

The part of a membrane protein that extends through the phospholipid bilayer is primarily composed of amino acids that are

A

non-polar.

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164
Q

Small cells function more effectively, because as cells become larger their surface area to volume ratio:

A

decreases

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165
Q

On the outer surface of the plasma membrane there are marker molecules that identify the cell type. Often these molecules are

A

carbohydrate chains.

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166
Q

Current classification of prokaryotes is based on

A

sequencing of proteins, DNA, and RNA.

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167
Q

The movement of substances to regions of lower concentration is called

A

diffusion

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168
Q

true or false: Most competitive inhibitors bind to allosteric sites on an enzyme.

A

false

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169
Q

true or false: Exergonic reactions occur spontaneously after the energy of activation is achieved

A

true

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170
Q

true or false: Coupled transport uses the concentration gradient established by active transport.

A

true

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171
Q

Most enzymes are composed of ____

A

Proteins

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172
Q

In eukaryotes, photosynthesis takes place inside the _______

A

chloroplasts

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173
Q

The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis are those that

A

convert CO2 into reduced molecules (sugars).

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174
Q

the “Chief currency” that all cells use for energy is _______.

A

ATP

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175
Q

The discovery of ribozymes meant that

A

RNAs can act as enzymes.

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176
Q

What happens to the oxygen that is used in cellular respiration?

A

It is reduced to form water

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177
Q

Visible light has a wavelength range of

A

400-740 nanometers.

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178
Q

Which of these statements are true of ATP ?

A

ATP hydrolysis drives endergonic reactions

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179
Q

If the label on a slide reads Gram-positive bacillus, what would a students expect to see?

A

Purple rod shaped cells

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180
Q

What chemical property characterizes the interior of the phospholipid bilayer?

A

It is hydrophobic

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181
Q

Organisms that can manufacture their own chemical energy are called _____.

A

autotrophs

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182
Q

What color of light is least strongly absorbed by chlorophyll?

A

green

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183
Q

For photosynthesis in green plants, the electron donor for the light dependent reaction is

A

water.

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184
Q

In aerobic respiration, chemiosmotic generation of ATP is driven by:

A

a difference in H+ concentration on the two sides of the inner mitochondrialmembrane.

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185
Q

NADPH is made by

A

the passing of electrons from photosystem I to an electron transport chain.

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186
Q

What is activation energy?

A

The energy required to initiate a chemical reaction.

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187
Q

An endergonic reaction has the following properties

A

+∆G and the reaction is not spontaneous

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188
Q

What oxidizing agent is used to temporarily store high energy electrons harvested fromglucose molecules in a series of gradual steps in the cytoplasm?

A

NAD+

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189
Q

true or false: Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably.

A

false

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190
Q

Nucleotides have a phosphate group attached at the ________ carbon atom of the sugar.

A

5’

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191
Q

In your research, you have discovered that Protein X is often ubiquitinated in people with a certain disease. What would you predict about levels of Protein X in these patients?

A

Levels of Protein X will be low due to degradation in the proteasome.

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192
Q

Certain proteins can bind to specific DNA regulatory sequences by entering

A

the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs.

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193
Q

The enzyme dicer chops dsRNA molecules into small pieces of

A

miRNA and siRNA.

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194
Q

You are studying regulation of a prokaryotic operon. Experiments show that expression of the operon is increased when levels of biosynthetic product from that pathway are low. Based on this information, what is a likely mode of regulation?

A

The product binds a repressor, allowing it to bind the operator.

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195
Q

Information obtained by Franklin from X-ray crystallography on DNA suggested that itis shaped like a

A

helix.

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196
Q

Viruses that attack bacteria are called

A

phages

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197
Q

You decide to repeat the Meselson-Stahl experiment, except this time you plan to grow the E. coli cells on light 14N medium for many generations and then transfer them to heavy 15N medium and allow them to grow for 2 additional generations (2 rounds of DNA replication). If the conservative model of DNA replication was correct, what is the expected distribution of DNA in the density gradient after two rounds of replication?

A

One band of light density and one band of heavy density.

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198
Q

Single-stranded ends generated by the same restriction enzyme are complementary to each other. They can be joined together,

A

even when the source of the DNA is different.

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199
Q

You are studying the effects of specific transcription factors on the activation of gene expression. You notice that one particular transcription factor binds far away from the promoter of its target gene. What can explain this?

A

DNA looping brings the transcription factor closer to the promoter and initiates gene transcription.

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200
Q

Which statement about the Hershey-Chase experiment is false?

A

The virus-infected bacteria contained radioactive sulfur.

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201
Q

If you were able to look very closely at a portion of DNA and find methylated histones, you would

A

be looking at a region of inactive chromatin.

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202
Q

Because the two strands of a DNA molecule are ________ to each other, either one can be used as a template to reconstruct the other.

A

complementary

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203
Q

If a strain of bacteria had a mutation that blocked expression of the lac repressor, what would you expect as a result?

A

The mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence oflactose.

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204
Q

BamHI is a Type II restriction enzyme that recognizes the sequence 5’ G*GATCC 3’, and cuts between the two Gs, leaving a 5’ overhang. If you were to digest DNA withBamHI, what would be the sequence of the overhanging sticky ends of the two strands?

A

5’ GATC 3’ and 5’ GATC 3’

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205
Q

The method of DNA replication, where each original strand is used as a template to build a new strand, is called the

A

semiconservative method.

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206
Q

You are working to identify enhancer regions of a particular gene. The best place to look is

A

primarily upstream of the promoter, possibly some distance away.

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207
Q

You have been asked to design a synthetic DNA motif, able to bind transcriptional regulatory proteins. The location on this motif that you will design for protein binding is the

A

major groove of the DNA double helix.

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208
Q

The PCR technique requires a DNA polymerase from an organism that can endure high heat, such as Thermus aquaticus. What step of the protocol makes the heat-stability most necessary?

A

Denaturation

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209
Q

In vertebrates, DNA methylation-the addition of a methyl group to DNA nucleotides-ensures that

A

once a gene is turned off, it will remain off.

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210
Q

After attaching to a bacterial cell, a bacteriophage typically

A

injects DNA into the cell.

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211
Q

When E. coli cells produce the amino acid tryptophan, a cluster of five genes is transcribed together. This cluster of genes is referred to as the

A

trp operon.

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212
Q

The observable expression of the genes present in an organism is called its

A

phenotype.

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213
Q

________ are a type of internal signal molecule used in controlling the cell cycle.

A

Kinases

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214
Q

A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function. What would be the most likely result of this mutation?

A

The cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergoapoptosis.

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215
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

Meiosis involves 2 divisions and produces 4 non-identical daughter nuclei.

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216
Q

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

A

during Mitosis

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217
Q

Barr bodies —

A

All of the above

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218
Q

What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?

A

chromosome

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219
Q

Individuals that have 2 alleles for most gene loci are best described as

A

diploid

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220
Q

Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. What are the genotypes of the gametes that are produced by a plant that is heterozygous for both traits?

A

PT, Pt, pT, and pt

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221
Q

If an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype, this is called

A

pleiotropy.

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222
Q

Irene knows her blood type is A, but William does not know his blood type. However, William knows that his mother and father both had blood type B. Irene and William’s first child is a boy with type O blood. Based on this information, William’s blood type could be

A

either B or O

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223
Q

In humans, the sickle-cell trait is caused by a single defective allele, but sickle-cell disease only occurs in individuals that are homozygous for the sickle-cell allele. A man and woman each carry the trait, but do not have sickle-cell disease. What is the probability that their first two children will both have sickle-cell disease?

A

1/16

224
Q

Cold weather can change what aspect of a Himalayan rabbit?

A

phenotype

225
Q

In Mendel’s experiments on seed color in pea plants, when a dominant yellow seed-bearing plant was crossed with a recessive green seed-bearing plant, what was the approximate phenotypic ratio among the F2 generation?

A

3 yellow: 1 green

226
Q

Chromosomes that occur in pairs and code for the same traits are called _____ chromosomes; these do not include the _____ chromosomes which code for gender.

A

homologous: sex

227
Q

An individual with the karyotype 48, XYYY would have how many Barr bodies?

A

0

228
Q

The failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called

A

nondisjunction.

229
Q

Amniocentesis is a —

A

medical procedure permitting prenatal diagnosis of many genetic disorders.

230
Q

If a short sequence of DNA is 5’ AATTGCCGT 3’, its complement is

A

3’ TTAACGGCA 5’.

231
Q

If 14% of the nucleotides from a DNA molecule contain the base T, what percent will contain the base G?

A

36%

232
Q

During DNA replication, which enzyme removes the RNA primers and then fills in the gap?

A

DNA pol I

233
Q

true or false: The monosaccharide galactose (C6H12O6 ) is a stereoisomer of glucose

A

true

234
Q

true or false: Monomers of all carbohydrates are composed of three chemical groups, a triphosphate, nitrogenous base, and 5-carbon sugar.

A

false

235
Q

true or false: Living systems exist in an equilibrium state.

A

false

236
Q

The “Chief currency” that all cells use for energy is ___.

A

ATP

237
Q

The property of water that stabilizes the internal temperature of an organism against changes in the external environment, is best describes as ____.

A

High specific heat

238
Q

This property of water allows a plants leaves to pull water up from the roots, and seeds to swell and germinate.

A

cohesion and adhesion

239
Q

Which hierachical organization of living systems do tissues belong?

A

organismal level

240
Q

A mutation that effects a single amino acid change within the polypeptide sequence of a protein, alters_____.

A

all of these

241
Q

Which of these is not a lipid?

A

glucose

242
Q

Plant cells store energy from glucose in the form of _______, and animal cells store energy from glucose in the form of ____.

A

starch; glycogen

243
Q

The molecules of DNA are most important to biological systems because _____

A

they encode the information necessary for making a new individual.

244
Q

Which of the following is not a property of elements most commonly found in living organisms?

A

The elements posess eight electrons in their outer energy level.

245
Q

Which structure of a protein would not be affected by heat denaturation?

A

Primary structure

246
Q

Which of the solutions listed below would you expect to be described as a weak base?

A

sea water

247
Q

A fatty acid chain that lacks double bonded carbons, is considered a _____ fatty acid.

A

saturated

248
Q

Out of the 12 elements that make up most living things, which four elements make up 96.4% of the human body?

A

Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Carbon

249
Q

How is the process of natural selection different from artificial selection?

A

Artifical selection selection is a result of human intervention.

250
Q

Covalent bonds arise from ____.

A

shared valence electrons

251
Q

A DNA molecule containing 25% thymine would contain how much cytosine?

A

25%

252
Q

What is the significance of Pasteur’s experiment to test the germ hypothesis?

A

It demonstrated that cells can only arise from other cells.

253
Q

Evolutionary conservation occurs when a characteristic is

A

important to the life of an organism.

254
Q

The isotopes carbon-12 and carbon-14 differ in

A

the number of neutrons

255
Q

Using the periodic table , which of the following atoms would you predict should form a positively charged ion (cation)?

A

Potassium (K)

256
Q

A molecule with polar covalent bonds would

A

be soluble in water.

257
Q

What aspect of triglyceride structure accounts for their insolubility in water?

A

The non polar C-H bonds in fatty acids

258
Q

which of the following statements is NOT part of the cell theory?

A

eukaryotic cells have evolved from prokaryotic cells

259
Q

all cells have all of the following except

a) plasma membrane
b) genetic material
c) cytoplasm
d) cell wall

A

cell wall

260
Q

eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells. which of the following are found only in a eukaryotic cell?a) cell wall

b) plasma membrane
c) ER
d) ribosomes

A

ER

261
Q

which of the following are differences between bacteria and archaea?

A

the molecular architecture of their cell walls

262
Q

the cytoskeleton includes

A

intermediate filaments made of twisted fibers of vimentin and keratin

263
Q

the smooth ER is

A

the site of lipid and membrane synthesis

264
Q

plasmodesmata in plants and gap junctions in animals are functionally similar in that

A

they form channels between cells that allow diffusion of small molecules

265
Q

the most important factor that limits the size of a cells is the

A

surface area-to-volume ratio of the cell

266
Q

all eukaryotic cells possess each of the following except

a) mitochondria
b) cell wall
c) cytoskeleton
d) nucleus

A

cell wall

267
Q

adherens junctions, which contain cadherin, are found in all animals. Given this, which of the following predictions is most likely?

A

cadherins would be found in the ancestor to all animals

268
Q

different motor proteins like kinesin and myosin are similar in that they can

A

use e from ATP to produce movement

269
Q

the protein sorting pathway involves the following organelles/compartments in order

A

RER, transport vesicle, Golgi, final destination

270
Q

chloroplasts and mitochondria have many common features bc both

A

arose by endosymbiosis

271
Q

eukaryotic cells are composed of 3 types of cytoskeletal filaments. How are these 3 filaments similar?

A

they contribute to the shape of the cell

272
Q

the fluid mosaic model of the membrane describes the membrane as

A

made up of proteins and lipids that can freely move

273
Q

what chemical property characterizes the interior of the phospholipid bilayer

A

it is hydrophobic

274
Q

the transmembrane domain of an integral membrane protein

A

is composed of hydrophobic amino acids, often forms an a-helical structure, can cross the membrane multiple times

275
Q

the specific function of a membrane within a cell is determined by the

A

type and number of membrane proteins

276
Q

the movement of water across a membrane is dependent on

A

the solute concentration

277
Q

if a cell is in an isotonic environment, then

A

osmosis still occurs, but there is no net gain or loss of cell volume

278
Q

which of the following is NOT a mechanism for bringing material into a cell

A

exocytosis

279
Q

a bacteria cell that can alter the composition of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids in its membrane lipids is adapted to a cold environment. If this cell is shifted to a warmer environment, it will react by

A

increasing the degree of saturated fatty acids in its membrane

280
Q

what variable(s) influence(s) whether a non polar molecule can move across a membrane by passive diffusion?

A

the difference in conc of the molecule across the membrane

281
Q

which of the following does NOT contribute to the selective permeability of a biological membrane?

A

hydrogen bond formation between water and phosphate groups

282
Q

how are active transport and coupled transport related?

A

coupled transport uses the conc gradient established by active transport

283
Q

a cell can use the process of facilitated diffusion to

A

move ions or large polar molecules from a region of high conc to a region of low conc

284
Q

which of the following would be an example of a biomarker?

A

a hydrocarbon found in an ancient rock layer

285
Q

a cell that can use e from the sun, and CO2 as a carbon source is a

A

photoautotroph

286
Q

gram positive (+) and gram (-) bacteria are characterized by differences in

A

the cell wall: gram + have a thick layer of peptidoglycan and gram - have an outer membrane

287
Q

which of the following characteristics is unique to the archaea?

A

ether-linked phosolipids

288
Q

the horizontal transfer of DNA using a plasmid is an example of

A

conjugation

289
Q

the disease tuberculosis is

A

caused by a bacterial pathogen

290
Q

prokaryotes participate in the global cycling of

A

carbon and nitrogen

291
Q

which of the following is typically NOT associated with a prokaryote?

A

multiple, linear chromosomes

292
Q

the mechanisms of DNA exchange in prokaryotes share the feature of

A

horizontal transfer of info

293
Q

the cell wall in both gram-positive and gram-negative cells is

A

a target for antibiotics that affect peptidoglycan synthesis

294
Q

the three domains of life

A

consist of three different basic cell types

295
Q

ulcers and tooth decay do not appear related, but in fact both

A

can be due to bacterial infection

296
Q

bacteria lack independent internal membrane systems, but are able to perform psyn and resp, both of which use membranes. they are able to perform these functions bc

A

invaginations of the plasma membrane can provide an internal membrane surface

297
Q

plants cannot fix nitrogen, yet some plants do NOT need nitrogen from the soil. This is because…

A

of a symbiotic association with a bacterium that can fix nitrogen

298
Q

An autotroph is an organism that

A

does both a and b

a. extracts energy from organic sources.
b. converts energy from sunlight into chemical energy

299
Q

Which of the following processes is (are) required for the complete oxidation of glucose?

A

all of the choices are correct

a. The Krebs cycle
b. Glycolysis
c. Pyruvate oxidation

300
Q

Which of the following is NOT a product of glycolysis?

A

CO2

301
Q

Glycolysis produces ATP by

A

substrate-level phosphorylation

302
Q

What is the role of NAD+ in the process of cellular respiration?

A

It functions as an electron carrier

303
Q

The reactions of the Krebs cycle occur in the

A

matrix of the mitochondria

304
Q

the electrons carried by NADH and FADH2 can be

A

moved between proteins in the inner membrane of

the mitochondrion

305
Q

which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding cellular respiration?

A

Electrons have a higher potential energy at the end

of the process.

306
Q

The direct source of energy for the ATP produced by ATP synthase comes from

A

a proton gradient

307
Q

Anaerobic respiration

A

yields less energy than aerobic respiration because other final electron acceptors have lower affinity for electrons than O2

308
Q

what is the importance of fermentation to cellular metabolism?

A

It oxidizes NADH to NAD+ in the absence of O2

309
Q

The link between electron transport and ATP synthesis

A

is a proton gradient.

310
Q

a chemical agent that makes holes in the inner membrane of the mitochondria would

A

stop ATP synthesis.

311
Q

Yeast cells that have mutations in genes that encode enzymes in glycosides can still grow on glycerol. They are able to utilize glycerol because it

A

can feed into the Krebs cycle and generate ATP via e- transport and chemiosmosis.

312
Q

the light-dependent rxns of psyn are responsible for the production of

A

ATP and NADPH

313
Q

Which region of a chloroplast is associated with the capture of light energy?

A

Thylakoid membrane

314
Q

The colors of light that are most effective for photosynthesis are

A

red, blue, and violet

315
Q

During noncyclic photosynthesis, photosystem I functions to ___________, and photosystem II functions to _____________

A

reduce NADP+; oxidize H2O

316
Q

How is a reaction center pigment in a photosystem different from a pigment in the antenna complex?

A

The reaction center pigment loses an electron when it absorbs light energy.

317
Q

The ATP and NADPH from the light reactions are used

A

during the reactions of the Calvin cycle to produce glucose.

318
Q

The carbon fixation reaction converts

A

inorganic carbon into an organic acid.

319
Q

C4 plants initially fix carbon by

A

incorporating CO2 into oxaloacetate, which is converted to malate.

320
Q

The overall flow of electrons in the light reactions is from

A

H2O to NADPH.

321
Q

If you could measure pH within a chloroplast, where would it be lowest?

A

In the lumen of the thylakoid

322
Q

The excited electron from photosystem I

A

Both a and c are correct.

a. can be returned to the reaction center to generate ATP by cyclic photophosphorylation.
c. is replaced by an electron from photosystem II.

323
Q

If the Calvin cycle runs through six turns

A

enough carbon will be fixed to make one glucose, but they will not all be in the same molecule.

324
Q

Which of the following are similarities between the structure and function of mitochondria and chloroplasts?

A

Both a and c are correct.

a. They both create internal proton gradients by electron transport.
reactions.
c. They both have a double membrane system.

325
Q

Given that the C4 pathway gets around the problems of photorespiration, why don’t all plants use it?

A

It also has an energetic cost.

326
Q

if the thylakoid membrane became leaky to ions, what would you predict to be the result on the light reactions?

A

It would stop ATP production.

327
Q

the overall process of photosynthesis

A

results in the reduction of CO2 and the oxidation of H2O.

328
Q

the function of a __ is to add phosphates to proteins, whereas a __ functions to remove the phosphates

A

protein kinase, protein phosphatase

329
Q

which of the following receptor types is NOT a membrane receptor

a. channel-like receptor
b. enzymatic receptor
c. G protein-coupled receptor
d. steroid hormone receptors

A

steroid hormone receptors

330
Q

how does the function of an intracellular receptor differ from that of a membrane receptor?

A

the intracellular receptor binds DNA

331
Q

signaling through receptor tyrosine kinases often

A

leads to the activation of a cascade of kinase enzymes

332
Q

what is the function of Ras during tyrosine kinase cell signaling?

A

it links the receptor protein to the MAP kinase pathway

333
Q

which of the following best describes the immediate effect of ligand binding to a G protein-coupled receptor?

A

the G protein trimer releases a GDP and binds a GTP

334
Q

the action of steroid hormones is often longer-lived than that of peptide hormones. this is because they

A

they turn on gene expression to produce proteins that persist in the cell

335
Q

the ion Ca2+ can act as a second messenger because it is

A

normally at a low level in the cytoplasm

336
Q

different receptors can have the same effect on a cell. one reason for this is that

A

signal transduction pathways intersect- the same pathway can be stimulated by different receptors

337
Q

in comparing small G proteins like Ras and GPCR proteins, we can say that

A

both proteins have intrinsic GTPase activity that stops signaling & both proteins are active bound to GTP

338
Q

the same signal can have different effects in different cells because there

A

a. are different receptor subtypes that initiate different signal transduction pathways.
b. may be different coactivators in different cells.
c. may be different target proteins in different cells’ signal
transduction pathways.

339
Q

The receptors for steroid hormones and peptide hormones are fundamentally different because

A

peptides are hydrophilic and steroids are hydrophobic

340
Q

paracrine signaling is characterized by

A

secreted by neighboring cells

341
Q

signal transduction pathways

A

include the intracellular events stimulated by an extracellular signal

342
Q

a covalent bond between 2 atoms represents what kind of energy?

A

potential energy

343
Q

during a redox rxn the molecule that gains an electron has been

A

reduced and now has a higher energy level

344
Q

an endergonic rxn has the following properties

A

+∆G and the rxn is not spontaneous

345
Q

a spontaneous rxn is one in which

A

the reactants have a higher free energy than the products

346
Q

what is activation energy?

A

the energy required to initiate a chemical rxn

347
Q

which of the following is not a property of a catalyst?

A

a catalyst lowers the free energy of the reactants

348
Q

where is the energy stored in a molecule of ATP?

A

in the bonds connecting the two terminal phosphate groups

349
Q

cells use ATP to drive endergonic rxns because

A

energy released by ATP hydrolysis makes ∆G for coupled rxns more negative

350
Q

which of the following statements is not true about enzymes?

A

enzymes make ∆G for a rxn more negative

351
Q

ATP hydrolysis has a ∆G of -7.4 kcal/mol. Can an endergonic rxn with a ∆G of 12 kcal/mol be “driven” by ATP hydrolysis?

A

no, the overall ∆G is still positive

352
Q

an online auction site offers a perpetual-motion machine. You decide not to bid on this because

A

the second law says that energy loss due to entropy will not allow for perpetual motion

353
Q

enzymes have similar responses to both changes in temperature and pH. The effect of both is on the

A

three-dimensional shape of the enzyme

354
Q

feedback inhibition is an efficient way to control a metabolic pathway because the

A

first enzyme is the pathway inhibited by the end-product of the pathway

355
Q

Binary fission in prokaryotes does not require the

A

assembly of the nuclear envelope

356
Q

Chromatin is composed of

A

DNA and protein

357
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

a region of DNA wound around histone proteins

358
Q

what is the role of cohesin proteins in cell division?

A

they hold the DNA of the sister chromatids together

359
Q

the kinetochore is a structure that functions to

A

connect the centromere to microtubules

360
Q

separation of the sister chromatids occurs during

A

anaphase

361
Q

why is cytokinesis an important part of cell division?

A

it is responsible for the proper separation of the cytoplasmic contents

362
Q

what steps in the cell cycle represent irreversible commitments?

A

both b and c

b. The G1/S checkpoint
c. Anaphase

363
Q

Cyclin-dependent kinases(Cdks) are regulated by

A

the periodic destruction of cyclins

364
Q

The bacterial SMC proteins, eukaryotic cohesin proteins, and condensin proteins share a similar structure. Functionally they all

A

interact with DNA to compact or hold strands together

365
Q

Genetically, proto-oncogenes act in a dominant fashion. this is because

A

they act in a gain-of-function fashion to turn on the cell cycle

366
Q

The metaphase to anaphase transition involves

A

loss of cohesion between sister chromatids

367
Q

the main difference between bacterial cell division and eukaryotic cell division is that

A

none of the above is correct

368
Q

in animal cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by a contractile ring containing actin. The related process in bacteria is

A

septation via a ring of FtsZ protein, which is a tubulin-like protein

369
Q

in comparing somatic cells and gametes, somatic cells are

A

diploid with twice the number of chromosomes

370
Q

what are homologous chromosomes?

A

two genetically similar chromosomes, one from each parent

371
Q

chiasmata form

A

between homologous chromosomes

372
Q

crossing over involves each of the following with the exception of

A

the transfer of DNA between two sister chromatids

373
Q

during anaphase I

A

homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles

374
Q

at metaphase I the kinetochores of sister chromatids are

A

attached to microtubules from the same pole

375
Q

what occurs during anaphase of meiosis II?

A

sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles

376
Q

which of the following does NOT contribute to genetic diversity?

A

metaphase of meiosis II

377
Q

how does DNA replication differ between mitosis and meiosis?

A

during meiosis, there is only one round of replication for two divisions

378
Q

which of the following is NOT a distinct feature of meiosis?

A

attachment of sister kinetochores to spindle microtubules

379
Q

which phase of meiosis I is most similar to the comparable phase in mitosis?

A

telophase I

380
Q

structurally, meiotic cohesins have different components than mitotic cohesins. This leads to the following functional difference:

A

centromeres remain attached during anaphase I of meiosis

381
Q

mutations that affect DNA repair often also affect the accuracy of meiosis. This is because

A

the proteins involved in the repair of double-stranded breaks are also involved in crossing over

382
Q

what property distinguished Mendel’s investigation from previous studies?

A

Mendel quantified his results

383
Q

the F1 generation of the monohybrid cross purple (PP) x white (pp) flower pea plants should

A

all have purple flowers

384
Q

the F1 plants from the previous question are allowed to self-fertilize. The phenotypic ratio for the F2 should be

A

3 purple: 1 white

385
Q

which of the following is NOT a part of Mendel’s five-element model?

A

if an allele is present it will be expressed

386
Q

an organism’s __ is/are determined by its __

A

phenotype; genotype

387
Q

phenotypes like height in humans, which show a continuous distribution, are usually the result of

A

the action of multiple genes on a single phenotype

388
Q

Japanese four o’clocks that are red and tall are crossed to white short ones, producing an F1 that is pink and tall. If these genes assort independently, and the F1 is self-crossed, what would you predict for the ratio of F2 phenotypes?

A

3 red tall: 6 pink tall: 3 white tall: 1 red short: 2 pink short: 1 white short

389
Q

If the two genes in the previous question showed complete linkage, what would you predict for an F2 phenotypic ratio?

A

1 red tall: 2 pink tall: 1 white short1 red tall: 2 pink tall: 1 white short

390
Q

what is the probability of obtaining an individual with the genotype bb from a cross between two individuals with the genotype Bb?

A

1/4

391
Q

In a cross of AaBbcc x AaBbCc, what is the probability of obtaining an individual with the genotype AABbCc?

A

1/16

392
Q

when you cross true-breeding tall and short tobacco plants you get an F1 that is intermediate in height. When this F1 is self-crossed, it yields an F2 with a continuous distribution of heights. What is the best explanation for these data?

A

Height is determined by the additive effects of many genes

393
Q

Mendel’s model assumes that each trait is determined by a single factor with alternative forms. We now know that this is too simplistic and that

A

a single gene can affect more than one trait, and traits may be affected by more than one gene

394
Q

Why is the white-eye phenotype always observed in males carrying the white-eye allele?

A

Because the allele is located on the X chromosome and males only have one X

395
Q

In an organism’s genome, autosomes are

A

all of the chromosomes other than sex chromosomes.

396
Q

What cellular process is responsible for genetic recombination?

A

Crossing over between homologues

397
Q

The map distance between two genes is determined by the

A

recombination frequency.

398
Q

How many map units separate two alleles if the recombination frequency is 0.07?

A

7 cM

399
Q

How does maternal inheritance of mitochondrial genes differ from sex linkage?

A

Since mitochondria are inherited from the mother, females and males are equally affected.

400
Q

Which of the following genotypes due to nondisjunction of sex chromosomes is lethal?

A

OY

401
Q

A recessive sex-linked gene in humans leads to a loss of sweat glands. A woman heterozygous for this will

A

have patches of skin with and without sweat glands

402
Q

As real genetic distance increases, the distance calculated by recombination frequency becomes an

A

underestimate due to multiple crossovers that cannot be scored.

403
Q

Down syndrome is the result of trisomy for chromosome 21. Why is this trisomy viable and trisomy for most other chromosomes is not?

A

Chromosome 21 is a small chromosome with few genes so this does less to disrupt the genome.

404
Q

Genes that are on the same chromosome can show independent assortment

A

when they are far enough apart that odd numbers of crossovers is about equal to even.

405
Q

The A and B genes are 10 cM apart on a chromosome. If an A B/a b heterozygote is testcrossed to a b/a b, how many of each progeny class would you expect out of 100 total progeny?

A

45AB, 45ab, 5Ab, 5aB

406
Q

During the process of spermatogenesis, a nondisjunction event that occurs during the second division would be

A

better than the first division because only two of the four meiotic products would be aneuploid.

407
Q

What was the key finding from Griffith’s experiments using live and heat-killed pathogenic bacteria?

A

Genetic material can be transferred from dead to live bacteria.

408
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of DNA?

A

The pyrimidine uracil

409
Q

Chargaff studied the composition of DNA from different sources and found that

A

the proportions of A equal that of T and G equals C.

410
Q

the proportions of A equal that of T and G equals C.

A

hydrogen bonds.

411
Q

The basic mechanism of DNA replication is semiconservative with two new molecules,

A

each with one new and one old strand.

412
Q

One common feature of all DNA polymerases is that they

A

synthesize DNA in the 5′-to-3′ direction.

413
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Watson–Crick model of the structure of DNA?

A

The two DNA strands are oriented in parallel (5′-to-3′).

414
Q

If one strand of a DNA is 5′ATCGTTAAGCGAGTCA3′, then the complementary strand would be:

A

If one strand of a DNA is 5′ATCGTTAAGCGAGTCA3′, then the complementary strand would be:

415
Q

Hershey and Chase used radioactive phosphorus and sulfur to

A

differentially label DNA and protein.

416
Q

The Meselson and Stahl experiment used a density label to be able to

A

distinguish between newly replicated and old strands.

417
Q

The difference in leading versus lagging strand synthesis is a consequence of

A

both the physical structure of DNA and the action of

polymerase enzyme.

418
Q

if the activity of DNA ligase was removed from replication, this would have a greater effect on

A

synthesis on the lagging strand versus the leading strand.

419
Q

Successful DNA synthesis requires all of the following except

A

endonuclease.

420
Q

the synthesis of telomeres

A

requires telomerase, which uses an internal RNA as a

template.

421
Q

When mutations that affected DNA replication were isolated, two kinds were found. In cultures that were not synchronized (that is, not all dividing at the same time), one class put an immediate halt to replication, whereas the other put a much slower stop to the process. The first class affects functions at the replication fork like polymerase and primase. The second class affects functions necessary for

A

initiation: cells complete replication but cannot start a new round.

422
Q

The experiments with nutritional mutants in Neurospora by Beadle and Tatum provided evidence that

A

genes specify enzymes.

423
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

information passes from DNA to RNA to protein

424
Q

In the genetic code, one codon

A

both a and b

a. consists of 3 bases
b. specifies a single amino acid

425
Q

Eukaryotic transcription differs from prokaryotic in that

A

eukaryotes have three RNA polymerases

426
Q

An anticodon would be found on which of the following types of RNA?

A

tRNA (transfer RNA)

427
Q

RNA polymerase binds to a__ to initiate ___ .

A

promoter; transcription

428
Q

During translation, the codon in mRNA is actually “read” by

A

the anticodon in a tRNA

429
Q

You have mutants that all affect the same biochemical pathway. If feeding an intermediate in the pathway supports growth, this tells you that the enzyme encoded by the affected gene

A

acts before the intermediate used

430
Q

the splicing process

A

can produce multiple mRNAs from the same transcript

431
Q

The enzyme that forms peptide bonds is called peptidyl transferase because it transfers

A

the growing peptide from a tRNA to the next amino acid.

432
Q

In comparing gene expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

Both a and c are correct.

a. eukaryotic genes can produce more than one protein.
c. both produce mRNAs that are colinear with the protein.

433
Q

The codon CCA could be mutated to produce

A

a silent mutation

434
Q

An inversion will

A

only cause a mutant phenotype if the inversion breakpoints fall within a gene

435
Q

What is the relationship between mutations and evolution?

A

mutations can create new alleles

436
Q

In prokaryotes, control of gene expression usually occurs at the

A

initiation of transcription.

437
Q

Regulatory proteins interact with DNA by

A

binding to the major groove of the double helix and interacting with base-pairs.

438
Q

In E.coli, induction in the lac operon and repression in the trp operon are both examples of

A

negative control by a repressor.

439
Q

The lac operon is controlled by two main proteins. These proteins

A

act in the opposite fashion, one negative and one positive.

440
Q

In eukaryotes, binding of RNA polymerase to a promoter requires the action of

A

general transcription factors.

441
Q

In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene expression occurs

A

at the level of transcription initiation, or posttranscriptionally.

442
Q

In the trp operon, the repressor binds to DNA

A

in the presence of trp

443
Q

The lac repressor, the trp repressor and CAP are all

A

allosteric proteins that bind to DNA and an effector.

444
Q

Specific transcription factors in eukaryotes interact with enhancers, which may be a long distance from the promoter. These transcription factors then

A

can interact with the transcription apparatus via DNA looping.

445
Q

Repression in the trp operon and induction in the lac operon are both mechanisms that

A

allow the cell to control the level of enzymes to fit

environmental conditions.

446
Q

Regulation by small RNAs and alternative splicing are similar in that both

A

Both a and b are correct.

a. act after transcription.
b. act via RNA/protein complexes.

447
Q

Eukaryotic mRNAs differ from prokaryotic mRNAs in that they

A

are not colinear with the genes that encode them.

448
Q

In the cell cycle, cyclin proteins are produced in concert with the cycle. This likely involves

A

control of initiation of transcription of cyclin genes, and ubiquitination of cyclin proteins.

449
Q

A mechanism of control in E.coli not discussed in this chapter involves pausing of ribosomes allowing a transcription terminator to form in the mRNA. In eukaryotic fission yeast, this mechanism should

A

not occur as transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm.

450
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of life?

A

movement

451
Q

The process of inductive reasoning involves

A

the use of specific observations to develop general principles

452
Q

A hypothesis in biology is best described as

A

a possible explanation of an observation

453
Q

A scientific theory is

A

a statement of how the world works that is supported by experimental data.

454
Q

The cell theory states that

A

All living things are made up of cells

455
Q

The molecule DNA is important to biological systems because

A

it encodes the information for making a new individual.

456
Q

The organization of living systems is

A

hierarchical with cells at the base, and the biosphere at the top

457
Q

The idea of evolution

A

Predated both Darwin and Wallace

458
Q

What is the significance of Pasteur’s experiment to test the germ hypothesis?

A

It demonstrated that cells can only arise from other cells

459
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of reductionism?

A

An evaluation of the overall behavior of a cell

460
Q

How is the process of natural selection different from that of artificial selection?

A

Artificial selection is a result of human intervention.

461
Q

If you found a fossil for a modern organism next to the fossil of a dinosaur, this would

A

have no bearing on evolution by natural selection and indicate that dinosaurs may still exist.

462
Q

The theory of evolution by natural selection is a good example of how science proceeds because

A

a. it makes predictions that have been tested by a variety of approaches
b. it represents Darwin’s belief of how life has changed over time.

463
Q

In which domain of life would you find only single-celled organisms?

A

both b and c

b. bacteria
c. archaea

464
Q

Evolutionary conservation occurs when a characteristic is

A

important to the life of the organism

465
Q

The property that distinguishes an atom of one element (carbon, for example) from an atom of another element (oxygen, for example) is

A

the number of protons

466
Q

If an atom has one valence electron—that is, a single electron in its outer energy level—it will most likely form

A

an ionic bond

467
Q

An atom with a net positive charge must have more

A

protons than electrons

468
Q

The isotopes carbon-12 and carbon-14 differ in

A

number of neutrons

469
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of the elements most commonly found in living organisms?

A

The elements possess eight electrons in their outer

energy level.

470
Q

Ionic bonds arise from

A

attractions between ions of opposite charge

471
Q

A solution with a high concentration of hydrogen ions

A

is called an acid

472
Q

Using the periodic table on page 22, which of the following atoms would you predict should form a positively charged ion (cation)?

A

Potassium (K)

473
Q

Refer to the element pictured. How many covalent bonds could this atom form?

A

Three

474
Q

A molecule with polar covalent bonds would

A

be soluble in water

475
Q

Hydrogen bonds are formed

A

when hydrogen is part of a polar bond

476
Q

If you shake a bottle of oil and vinegar then let it sit, it will separate into two phases because

A

non-polar oil is not soluble in water.

477
Q

How is a polymer formed from multiple monomers?

A

By the removal of an -OH group and a hydrogen atom

478
Q

Why are carbohydrates important molecules for energy storage?

A

The C—H bonds found in carbohydrates store energy.

479
Q

Plant cells store energy in the form of _________, and animal cells store energy in the form of ___________.

A

Starch; glycogen

480
Q

Which carbohydrate would you find as part of a molecule of RNA?

A

Ribose

481
Q

A molecule of DNA or RNA is a polymer of

A

nucleotides

482
Q

What makes cellulose different from starch?

A

Cellulose forms long filaments, and starch is highly branched

483
Q

What monomers make up a protein?

A

amino acids

484
Q

A triglyceride is a form of _______ composed of ___________.

A

Lipids; fatty acids and glycerol

485
Q

You can use starch or glycogen as an energy source, but not cellulose because

A

starch and glycogen have similar structures.

486
Q

Which of the following is NOT a difference between DNA and RNA?

A

Phosphodiester versus hydrogen bonds

487
Q

Which part of an amino acid has the greatest influence on the overall structure of a protein?

A

the R group

488
Q

A mutation that alters a single amino acid within a protein can alter

A

all of the choices are correct

* the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures

489
Q

Two different proteins have the same domain in their structure. From this we can infer that they have

A

similar function

490
Q

What aspect of triglyceride structure accounts for their insolubility in water?

A

The non-polar C—H bonds in fatty acids

491
Q

The spontaneous formation of a lipid bilayer in an aqueous environment occurs because

A

both a and c are correct.

a. the polar head groups of the phospholipids can interact with water
c. the fatty acid tails of the phospholipids are hydrophobic

492
Q

if 18% of the nucleotides from a dsDNA molecule contains the base T, what percent will contain the base G?

A

32%

493
Q

true or false: transcription and translation occurs simultaneously (coupled) in eukaryotic cells

A

false

494
Q

an individual with the karyotype 45, XO would have how many Barr bodies?

A

0

495
Q

let P = purple flowers and p = white flowers, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. What are the genotypes of the gametes that are produced by a plant that is heterozygous for both traits?

A

PT, Pt, pT, and pt

496
Q

Viruses that attack bacteria are called

A

phages

497
Q

Chromosomes that occur in pairs and code for the same traits are called __ chromosomes; these do not include the __ chromosomes which encode for gender.

A

homologous; sex

498
Q

If a short sequence of DNA is 5’ AATTGCCGT 3’, its complement is

A

3’ TTAACGGCA 5’.

499
Q

In hemoglobin, the shift from glutamic acid to valine is considered what type of mutation?

A

point mutation

500
Q

Because the two strands of a DNA molecule are __ to each other, either one can be used as a template to reconstruct the other

A

complementary

501
Q

true or false: mutations within genes (DNA) always result in non-functional proteins

A

false

502
Q

what structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?

A

chromosome

503
Q

the failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called

A

nondisjunction

504
Q

true or false: if a strain of bacteria had a mutation that blocked expression of the lac repressor, the mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence of lactose

A

true

505
Q

You decide to repeat the Meselson-Stahl experiment, except this time you plan to grow the E. coli cells on light 14N medium for many generations and then transfer them to heavy 15N medium and allow them to grow for 2 additional generations (2 rounds ofDNA replication). If the conservative model of DNA replication was correct, what isthe expected distribution of DNA in the density gradient after two rounds ofreplication?

A

One band of light density and one band of heavy density.

506
Q

You are studying regulation of a prokaryotic operon. Experiments show that expression of the operon is increased when levels of biosynthetic product from that pathway are low. Based on this information, what is a likely mode of regulation?

A

The product binds a repressor, allowing it to bind the operator

507
Q

certain proteins can bind to specific DNA regulatory sequences by entering

A

the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs

508
Q

when during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

A

during mitosis

509
Q

true or false: alternative splicing explains how there are more mRNAs than there are genes on the human genome

A

true

510
Q

true or false: hemophilia and albinism are recessive traits in humans

A

true

511
Q

individuals that have 2 alleles for most gene loci are best described as

A

diploid

512
Q

a woman with blood type O has a child with blood type O. She claims that a man named Ralph is the child’s father. Her claim would be proven false if Ralph has blood type:

A

AB

513
Q

Information obtained by Franklin from X-ray crystallography on DNA suggested that it is shaped like a

A

helix

514
Q

after attaching to a bacterial cell, a bacteriophage typically

A

injects DNA into the cell

515
Q

true or false: when studying F2 plants of monohybrid crosses in pea plants, Mendel found that the ratio of the dominant-to-recessive phenotypes were 3: 1

A

true

516
Q

during translation which site on the ribosome does the incoming tRNA carrying the next amino acid bind?

A

A- site

517
Q

Irene knows her blood type is A, but William does not know his blood type. However, William knows that his mother and father both had blood type B. Irene and William’s first child is a boy with type O blood. Based on this information, William’s blood type could be

A

either B or O

518
Q

during DNA replication, which enzyme removes the RNA primers and then fills in the gap?

A

DNA pol I

519
Q

specialized cells differ from one another because

A

they only express certain genes

520
Q

Is this trait shown below dominant or recessive? and What is the genotype of III-3?

A

recessive/ homozygous recessive

521
Q

Single-stranded ends generated by the same restriction enzyme are complementary to each other. They can be joined together

A

even when the source of the DNA is different

522
Q

when E. coli cells produce the amino acid tryptophan, a cluster of five genes is transcribed together. This cluster of genes is referred to as the

A

trp operon

523
Q

A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function.What would be the most likely result of this mutation?

A

The cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis.

524
Q

The observable expression of the genes present in an organism is called its

A

phenotype

525
Q

In Mendel’s experiments on seed color in pea plants, when a dominant green seed-bearing plant was crossed with a recessive yellow seed-bearing plant, what was the approximate phenotypic ratio among the F2 generation?

A

1 yellow: 3 green

526
Q

nucleotides have a phosphate group attached at the __ carbon atom of the sugar

A

5’

527
Q

which of the following statements is correct?

A

Meiosis involves 2 divisions and produces 4 non-identical daughter nuclei.

528
Q

true or false: Mendel’s Second Law of Independent Assortment states that “Gametes located on different chromosomes are inherited independently of one another”

A

true

529
Q

As a genetic counselor, you are constructing a human pedigree for a particular disease. You note that every generation shows the trait, suggesting that the trait is

A

dominant

530
Q

true or false: prokaryotic mRNAs have more introns than Eukaryotic mRNAs.

A

false

531
Q

if an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype, that is called

A

pleiotropy

532
Q

cold weather can change what aspect of a Himalayan rabbit?

A

phenotype

533
Q

a karyotype shows chromosomes arranged by

A

banding patterns, size, and shape

534
Q

amniocentesis is a -

A

medical procedure permitting prenatal diagnosis of many genetic disorders.

535
Q

true or false: proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably

A

false

536
Q

true or false: kinases are a type of internal signal molecule used in controlling the cell cycle

A

true

537
Q

which statement about the Hershey-Chase experiment is false?

A

The virus-infected bacteria contained radioactive sulfur.

538
Q

the sequence of the mRNA that would result from transcribing the gene pictured would be
DNA template strand: TACGCTAAT

A

AUGCGAUUA

539
Q

the sequence of the peptide that would result from transcribing and translating the gene pictured would be

A

Met-Arg-Leu

540
Q

In your research, you have discovered that Protein X is often ubiquitinated in peoplewith a certain disease. What would you predict about levels of Protein X in these patients?

A

Levels of Protein X will be low due to degradation in the proteasome.

541
Q

Certain proteins can bind to specific DNA regulatory sequences by entering

A

the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs.

542
Q

The enzyme dicer chops dsRNA molecules into small pieces of

A

miRNA and siRNA.

543
Q

You are studying the effects of specific transcription factors on the activation of gene expression. You notice that one particular transcription factor binds far away from thepromoter of its target gene. What can explain this?

A

DNA looping brings the transcription factor closer to the promoter and initiatesgene transcription.

544
Q

If you were able to look very closely at a portion of DNA and find methylated histones,you would

A

be looking at a region of inactive chromatin.

545
Q

If a strain of bacteria had a mutation that blocked expression of the lac repressor, whatwould you expect as a result?

A

The mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence oflactose.

546
Q

BamHI is a Type II restriction enzyme that recognizes the sequence 5’ G*GATCC 3’,and cuts between the two Gs, leaving a 5’ overhang. If you were to digest DNA with BamHI, what would be the sequence of the overhanging sticky ends of the two strands?

A

5’ GATC 3’ and 5’ GATC 3’

547
Q

The method of DNA replication, where each original strand is used as a template to build a new strand, is called the

A

semiconservative method.

548
Q

You are working to identify enhancer regions of a particular gene. The best place to look is

A

primarily upstream of the promoter, possibly some distance away.

549
Q

You have been asked to design a synthetic DNA motif, able to bind transcriptional regulatory proteins. The location on this motif that you will design for protein binding is the

A

major groove of the DNA double helix.

550
Q

The PCR technique requires a DNA polymerase from an organism that can endure high heat, such as Thermus aquaticus. What step of the protocol makes the heat-stability most necessary?

A

Denaturation

551
Q

In vertebrates, DNA methylation- the addition of a methyl group to DNA nucleotide - ensures that

A

once a gene is turned off, it will remain off.

552
Q

Barr bodies —

A

All of the above

553
Q

In humans, the sickle-cell trait is caused by a single defective allele, but sickle-cell disease only occurs in individuals that are homozygous for the sickle-cell allele. A man and woman each carry the trait, but do not have sickle-cell disease. What is the probability that their first two children will both have sickle-cell disease?

A

1/16

554
Q

An individual with the karyotype 48, XYYY would have how many Barr bodies?

A

0

555
Q

disaccharides

A

sucrose, lactose, and maltose

556
Q

monosaccharides

A

glucose, galactose, and fructose