Lab final Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
label the parts of the microscope
A
WORD BANK:
- arm
- base
- condenser
- coarse & fine focus knobs
- light intensity adjustment knobs
- light source
- objective lenses
- ocular lenses
- on/off switch
- slide movement
- stage
2
Q
Handling a Microscope: DO
A
- Carry the scope with
two hands – one holding the arm, the other under the base - Start from the lowest magnification when observing slides
- Start with the stage all the way down, add the slide, make the stage go all the way up, focus down
- Set at lowest magnification before storing
3
Q
Handling a Microscope: DO NOT
A
- Clean the lenses with anything but lens paper - Use the oil immersion lens without oil - Leave the light on or leave it on high intensity - Leave slides on the stage when you put the scope away - Pull the plug out from the cord
4
Q
microscope magnifications
A
4x scanning: 40x
10x objective: 100x
40x objective: 400x
( x 10x eyepiece)
5
Q
microscope resolution
A
- Resolution allows us to distinguish between two points or objects that are very close together
- not the same as magnification but is affected by the level of magnification used
- allows us to see objects as separate from one another
6
Q
prokaryotes vs eukaryotes
A
- Presence/absence of nucleus and membrane-bound organelles
- Structure and location of DNA
- Cell wall structure/composition
- Differences in ribosomes, cytoplasm, flagella - Cell division and reproduction
- Size
7
Q
types of prokaryotes
A
archaea and bacteria
8
Q
prokaryotic archaea
A
now a separate kingdom; differences in genetic structure and metabolic pathways from other prokaryotes
9
Q
prokaryotic bacteria
A
- remaining prokaryotes; you will be looking at:
a) Cyanobacteria – oxygenic photosynthetic bacteria with chlorophyll a
b) Gram positive & Gram negative bacteria
10
Q
prokaryotes: cyanobacteria
A
- contain chlorophyll a, while other photosynthetic bacteria contain bacteriochlorophyll; important producers of oxygen!
- chlorophyll in thylakoid membranes within cytoplasm
- accessory pigments include carotenoids and phycobilins
- different forms: unicellular, colonial, filamentous
- many found in symbiotic relationships
11
Q
bacterial shapes
A
- cocci: circular
- baccilus: rod shaped
- curved
- other
12
Q
gram staining
A
1) application of crystal violet (purple dye)
2) application of iodine (mordant)
3) alcohol wash (decolorization)
4) application of safranin (counterstain)
* PURPLE = GRAM POSITIVE
* PINK = GRAM NEGATIVE
13
Q
Seeds are alive but dormant until environmental conditions trigger __
A
germination
14
Q
germination of seeds
A
When germination begins, seeds take up water, swell and split the seed coat. The young plant uses food stored in the seed to begin growth.
* process of using food involves RESPIRATION
15
Q
respirometer
A
- Insert smaller
tube into larger tube, bottom of the smaller tube in your hand - Push the the smaller tube all the way to the end of the larger tube. You can use your pinky finger or a pencil (eraser end) or pen
- Keeping your finger (or pencil/ pen) in place, start to invert the tube
- Complete the inversion while keeping your finger (or pencil/ pen) in place
16
Q
photosynthesis equation
A
6 CO2 + 6 H2O -> C6H12O6 (sugar) + 6 O2
17
Q
psyn and light wavelength transmission
A
- The dye color is the light we see (reflected) and the light wavelength that is reaching the plant (transmitted)
- All other wavelengths are absorbed by the dye and are not available to the plant
18
Q
micropipette use
A
- Twist dial to desired volume
- Pick up pipet tip
- Press plunger to first, soft stop
- Insert pipet tip into solution to be transferred
- Slowly release plunger to retrieve liquid
- Move pipet tip into desired tube
- Press plunger past first stop to second, hard stop to transfer liquid
19
Q
DNA extraction- cheek cell prep
A
1) obtain hair follicle cells for DNA extraction OR rise mouth to obtain seek cells for DNA extraction
2) add sample to InstaGene matrix in micro test tube
3) incubate at 56ºC for 10 min, then vigorous agitation
4) incubate at 100ºC for 6 min, then repeat vigorous agitation
5) DNA template prep
20
Q
what is needed for PCR?
A
- Template (the DNA you want to amplify for the study)
- Sequence-specific primers flanking the target sequence
- Nucleotides (dATP, dCTP, dGTP, dTTP)
- Magnesium ions (enzyme cofactor)
- Buffer, containing salt
- Taq polymerase
21
Q
PCR reaction process
A
- DNA isolated from other cellular material
- DNA strands separated (“melted”) at high temperature
- primers bind to complementary sequences on the DNA strands
- Taq polymerase adds initial nucleotide to primer
- Taq polymerase extends and builds a complementary DNA sequence
22
Q
how does PCR work?
A
- Heat (94°C) to denature DNA strands
- Cool (60°C) to anneal primers to template
- Warm (72°C) to activate Taq polymerase, which extends primers and replicates DNA
- Repeat multiple cycles
23
Q
what does PCR stand for?
A
polymerase chain reaction
24
Q
PV92 analysis
A
- Looking for the Alu sequence in the PV92 region of chromosome 16
- If lacking Alu, length is 641 base pairs (bp); if Alu is present, length is 941 bp
- Smaller particles migrate faster and farther through matrix than larger ones
25
PV92 results
1. molecular ladder/ruler
2. homozygous control (+/+)
3. homozygous control (-/-)
4. heterozygous control (+/-)
5. student sample (-/-)
6. student sample (+/+)
7. student sample (+/-)
8. student sample (-/-)
26
cell resp equation
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 -> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP
27
is it possible that the chicks born from this mating will be starred and have curly feathers when they mature?
no, an individual can't be starred and have curly feathers. An individual can be no starred and curly feathers though. No star is dominant to star, so it masks this gene, making all of these chicks no starred. In regards to feathers, some offspring will be curly which is also dominant to straight.
28
the DNA sequence in an organisms cell is called the __ whereas the resulting trait or expression of a gene is called a __
genotype; phenotype
29
which component of the reaction lets the polymerase "know" which gene to amplify?
primers
30
to denature the DNA, the tube is put under __ temps, which is then __ to anneal the primers
high; lowered
31
why is it important to use TaqDNA polymerase in the PCR reactions?
because its an extremophile that can withstand extreme changes in temp and high temps
32
which moves faster in a gel, a small fragment of DNA or a long fragment?
small fragment
33
list the two other controls run in the gel
a. homozygous negative (no order)
b. __
c. __
b. homozygous positive (+/+)
| c. heterozygous (+/-)
34
true or false: introns code for the protein sequence whereas eons are removed and remain in the nucleus
false
35
after 30 min, what direction should the water in the pipette with the moist beans move?
no/little movement. Without the KOH, which absorbs CO2, the amount of O2 will not really change
36
in which solution did the yeast respire most over the entire course of the experiment
add all solutions individually to find which did the most
37
in which solution did the yeast respire most over any one 30 minute time period?
*look at overall which solution increased drastically the most
38
what kind of microscope would you use to observe organisms that are attached to the bottom of a plate?
inverted microscope because it allows u to view specimens on the bottom of a Petri dish plate
39
which type of bacteria are photoautotrophs?
cyanobacteria
40
which type of organism has organelles?
eukaryotes
41
for each structure, note whether they are gram positive, gram negative, both, or eukaryotic
a. thick layer peptidoglycan ____
b. thin layer peptidoglycan ___
c. nucleus ____
d. circular DNA ___
a. gram positive
b. gram negative
c. eukaryotic
d. both
42
what kind of gametes could be produced by a doubly heterozygous sneetch rooster that is no star and has curly feathers? What is this rooster's genotype?
the rooster's genotype is RrDd
43
based on the table, plants in which test tube were the least efficient at producing oxygen?
plants in green dye were least efficient in producing oxygen because plants do not absorb green light since they reflect the color they don't absorb. Green dye has the lowest photosynthetic rate
44
which test tube serves as a control for the tubes without dye in them?
no dye (clear water) is the control as it accounts for all the colors on the spectrum
45
explain why the final color of tube #3 differs from that of tube #1
the color of #3 differs from #1 because it is covered w aluminum foil, so the light can't reach the contents.
46
describe what you expect would happen with regard to color if u added blue-colored DCPIP to tube #4 after the 20 min exposure to light?
if u add the blue colored DCPIP & it is exposed to light, it will turn colorless. The chloroplasts give the green colored solution though, so the solution will remain green
47
an __ blocks the active site, or binds allosterically and changes the shape of the active site, to prevent an enzyme from working properly
inhibitor
48
a cofactor can help __ the activity of an enzyme
increase
49
what two substances are needed by an organism to do cellular respiration?
glucose and oxygen
50
what are two of the three end products of cell resp?
carbon dioxide and water
51
use the plant pigment chromatography strip to label
```
solvent front
A = carotene
B = xanthophyll
C = chlorophyll a
D = chlorophyll b
+ origin
```
52
true or false: water is split into oxygen and hydrogen ions in the dark/light-independent rxns
false
53
the two main substances made from psyn are glucose and __
oxygen
54
plants are, for the most part, green. This means that they __ green light waves
reflect
55
true or false: the light dependent reactions are also known as the Calvin Cycle
false
56
list one example of an accessory pigment
carotenoids
57
put the following steps of the PCR reaction in the correct order
a. extend (synthesize new strand)
b. denatured strands
c. repeat cycle
d. anneal primers
B, D, A, C
58
we added instagene matrix to remove any __ so that it wouldn't act as a cofactor for the enzymes that break down DNA
magnesium
59
what are we collecting from the cells to do the PCR reaction?
template DNA
60
is it possible that the chicks born from this mating will be brown with tails when they mature?
yes because one trait has the brown phenotype and tail phenotype
61
true or false: a homozygous genotype always exhibits the dominant phenotype
true
62
what would happen to a type O patient if he receives type A or B blood?
their blood would clot which can lead to death
63
what color is chlorophyll a
green-blue
64
# fill in the blank on the comparison between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
1) nucleus present:
2) cell wall composition:
3) flagellum:
1) prokaryotes: no
eukaryotes: yes
2) prokaryotes: yes
eukaryotes: organic or inorganic
3) prokaryotes: single fibril
eukaryotes: not present
65
what color would the G+ bacteria have been if she didn't add the mordant?
pink because decolorization would occur to do it being thin
66
after 30 min, what direction should the water in the pipette with the warm beans move?
inward bc the KOH is present and absorbing oxygen
67
what direction should the water in the pipette with the cold beans move?
up due to the KOH being present
68
define the term resolution
the most precise view that allows humans to get a good look
69
how would u avoid air bubbles under the cover slip when making a wet mount slide
by gently placing the slip down and not forcing anything
70
did the chloroplasts in tube #4 do the Hill reaction?
yes bc green was the final color and psyn took place
71
if the + band is at 941 bp and the - band is at 641 bp, and lane 1 contains the molecular mass ruler, then which individuals are homozygous positive (+/+)?
2 and 6
72
TCA cycle occurs in cell's __ ; electron transport system occurs in cell's __
cytoplasm; mitochondria
73
what type of respiration is most efficient (produces most ATP)?
cellular
74
if a father is blood type A, his daughter is blood type O, then what could the mother's blood type be?
A or O
75
an allele is
one of several possible forms of a gene
76
phenotype refers to the __ of an individual
actual physical appearance
77
true or false: two primers are needed for PCR amplification so that both sides of the double helix are used as a template
true
78
why does a smaller DNA fragment move faster than a larger one thru an agarose gel?
because the smaller it is, the easier it can fit through the holes
79
__ do not code for protein sequences and are spliced out of mRNA molecules before the mRNA leaves the nucleus
introns
80
__ code for the protein sequence and remain in the mRNA and are transported out of the nucleus, where they are finally translated into protein on ribosomes
exons
81
what direction did the water in the cold environment pipette move?
didn't move much at all, cold slows down enzymatic rxns
82
A cell contains different amounts of DNA at various times in its cell cycle. At exactly which stage does the ploidy double from 2N to 4N? Explain your answer.
at the S phase when DNA is synthesized
83
A cell contains different amounts of DNA at various times in its cell cycle. At exactly which stage does the ploidy of an individual chromosome halve from 4N to 2N? Explain your answer.
at metaphase (or metaphase I) when the chromatids separate
84
A cell contains different amounts of DNA at various times in its cell cycle. At exactly which stage does the ploidy of an individual chromosome halve from 2N to 1N? Explain your answer.
at metaphase II when the chromatids separate
85
Why is it important that the chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate in mitotic metaphase?
to ensure that one chromatid from each chromosome is distributed into each daughter cell and that each daughter cell receives the full complement of chromosomes, 2 full sets of genetic information
86
Why is it important that homologous chromosomes form tetrads and line up along the metaphase plate at meiotic metaphase I?
to ensure that one chromosome from each tetrad is distributed to each pole, further ensuring that each gamete receive only one chromatid from the original four, but also ensuring that the gamete has one full set of genetic information
87
Would a population of organisms well-suited to a very stable environment want to reproduce via mitosis or meiosis? Why?
mitosis, produces identical organisms with exactly the same genetic information, organisms do not want to change since they already fit well and do well,
88
Would a population of highly variable organisms in an environment that changes frequently want to reproduce via mitosis or meiosis? Why?
meiosis, although the organisms are basically the same, they are different enough to respond rapidly to changes in the environment, the variation in meiosis enhances that ability to adapt
89
You have just learned about Mendelian genetics and the Punnett square. The first step in working out a cross is determining what kinds of gametes can be produced by each parent. Your lab partner has done this for the first parent that is heterozygous for one trait and homozygous for the other (AABb) obtaining these gametes: AA and Bb. Given your knowledge of the process of meiosis, is your lab partner’s answer right, partly right or wrong? Explain in terms of meiotic events
wrong, one gamete has both chromatids from one chromosome, the other gamete has both chromatids from the other chromosome, this does not happen when metaphase I and II occur properly
90
You have just learned about Mendelian genetics and the Punnett square. The first step in working out a cross is determining what kinds of gametes can be produced by each parent. Your lab partner has done this for the first parent that is heterozygous for one trait and homozygous for the other (AABb) obtaining these gametes: AB, AB, Ab, and Ab. Given your knowledge of the process of meiosis, is your lab partner’s answer right, partly right or wrong? Explain in terms of meiotic events!
right, the traits assorted independently and were segregated during metaphase I and II of meiosis, each gamete got one chromatid
91
You have just learned about Mendelian genetics and the Punnett square. The first step in working out a cross is determining what kinds of gametes can be produced by each parent. Your lab partner has done this for the first parent that is heterozygous for one trait and heterozygous for the other (AaBb) obtaining these gametes: AB, Aa, ab and Bb. Given your knowledge of the process of meiosis, is your lab partner’s answer right, partly right or wrong? Explain in terms of meiotic events!
partly right, the Aa and Bb are wrong (see 4a answer), the AB and ab are right (see 4b answer), the other correct gametes are aB and Ab
92
What kinds of gametes could be produced by a doubly heterozygous felger mare that is black and has socks? What is this mare’s genotype?
mare is BbSs = BS, Bs, bS and bs gametes
93
What kinds of gametes could be produced by a doubly homozygous felger mare that is black and has socks? What is this mare’s genotype?
mare is BBSS = BS gamete
94
What kinds of gametes could be produced by a felger mare that is homozygous black and is heterozygous for socks? What is this mare’s genotype?
mare is BBSs = BS, Bs gametes
95
Is it possible that the foal born from this mating will be brown and have socks? Why or why not?
brown w/ socks = bbSs or bbss, NO, produces only BB and Bb foals
96
Is it possible that the foal born from this mating will be black and have socks? Why or why not?
black w/ socks = BBSS or BbSS or BBSs or BbSs, YES, BBSs and BbSs are possible
97
Is it possible that the foal born from this mating will be black and not have socks? Why or why not?
black w/o socks = BBss or Bbss, YES, BBss and Bbss are possible
98
According to this experimental data which type of pea, smooth or wrinkled, synthesized amylose at the faster rate?
Wrinkled
99
Does this confirm your expectations? Why or why not
confirms expectations, wrinkled peas have more amylose
100
What reaction has occurred in the other pea powder? (the opposite one from your answer to question #1) Why?
in the smooth peas the amylose was produced slower but was changed into branched amylopectin
101
What do the reactions at SC-30 and WC-60 indicate?
sloppy technique, contamination, dirty spot plate etc.
102
Mitosis results in
daughter cells genetically identical to their parent cell (and themselves)
103
mitosis leads to
genetic stability
104
meiosis leads to
genetic variation
105
meiosis results in
```
daughter cells (gamete) that are genetically unique
- fertilization then further increases genetic variation
```
106
gene
DNA ‘message’ located on a chromosome; when ‘expressed’, a physical trait is observed
107
allele
A variation of a gene; i.e. a specific form of a gene
108
genotype
The genetic make-up of an individual; the entire set of heritable genes
ex: Pp, AA, ttBb
109
phenotype
The physical characteristic or trait determined by one’s genotype
ex: blue eyes, wingless, tall
110
monohybrid cross
mating between 2 organisms that are similar in everything except one trait
111
__ shows up in every generation
Dominant
112
__ skips one or more generations
Recessive
113
karyotype
set of chromosomes
114
Mendel's first law of segregation
Alleles segregate during meiosis; i.e.during the formation of gametes, each gamete randomly receives one copy of each gene
115
Punnett square
A way to determine the probability or the chance of certain trait(s) being expressed in the offspring
116
genotypic ratios
express the probability certain genotypes will be seen in the offspring
117
phenotypic ratios
express the probability specific phenotypes will be seen in the offspring
118
Mendel's Second Law
- dihybrid cross
- According to the Law of Independent Assortment, allele segregation into gametes is not only random but is also unaffected by the sorting of other alleles
119
dihybrid cross
mating between 2 organisms that are similar in everything except 2
traits
120
pedigree
shows inheritance of a trait in a family thru multiple generations
121
a recessive pedigree
contains carriers (heterozygous genotype)
122
sex-linked traits
genes located on the X or Y sex chromosomes; i.e. different for male and female
123
polygenic traits
“multiple genes”
- Trait (i.e. phenotype) that is determined by inheritance of 2 or more genes.
Ex. skin color, height, eye color, etc
124
incomplete dominance
Allele phenotypes that are expressed in heterozygous individuals as intermediate to either homozygous phenotypes
ex: red is dominant, white is recessive, pink is heterozygous
125
codominance
Two different alleles of a single gene are both expressed, they don’t overpower each other in the phenotype, and heterozygote shows some aspects of the phenotypes of both homozygotes (e.g., AB blood type in humans)
- ex: ABO blood types
126
blood type A antigens and antibodies
antigen: A
antibodies: anti-B
127
blood type B antigens and antibodies
antigen: B
antibodies: anti-A
128
blood type AB antigens and antibodies
antigens: A and B
| * no antibodies
129
blood type O antigens and antibodies
* no antigens
| antibodies: anti-A and anti-B
130
blood type A
alleles: I^A I^A, I^A i
sugars exhibited: galactosamine
receives A and O
donates A and AB
131
blood type B
alleles: I^B I^B, I^B i
sugars exhibited: galactose
receives B and O
donates B and AB
132
blood type AB
alleles: I^A I^B
sugars exhibited: galactose and galactosamine
universal receiver
donates AB
133
blood type O
alleles: ii
sugars exhibited: none
receives O
universal donor
134
dissecting microscope
lets u see whole organism -> individual cells
135
compound microscope
lets u see individual cells and their structure (nuclei)
136
electron microscope
lets u see organelles and tiny molecules (DNA)
137
what is PV92
a human-specific Alu insertion on chromosome 16
138
inverted microscope
suitable for viewing culture vessels such as Petri dishes
