Final Flashcards

(305 cards)

1
Q

Which sampling method will provide earlier analysis of foetal DNA:

Chorionic Villus Sampling

or

Amniocentesis?

A

Chorionic Villus Sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In the autosomal recessive disease Galactosaemia, mutations in which gene will cause cataracts?

  • GALT*
  • GALK1*
  • GALE*
A

GALK1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ankylysing Spondylosis is a result of mutations in what gene?

(Gene and Locus)

A

MHC Class I - Locus B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which Cyclin Dependant Kinase inactivates the ORC (Origin Recognition Complex)?

A

S-Cdk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chromosomes of what morphology may be subject to Robertsonian Translocation?

A

Acrocentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Traits occuring in only one sex due to anatomical differences are classified as:

Sex-limited Traits,

or

Sex-Influenced Traits?

A

Sex-Limited Traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the site of original de-novo mutation in Germline Mosaicism?

A

The embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ineffective platelets, eczema and T-Cell abnormalities leading to susceptibility to opportunistic infections are a feature of which X-Linked Recessive disease?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the autosomal recessive disease Galactosaemia, mutations in which gene will cause the most common and severe form?

  • GALT*
  • GALK1*
  • GALE*
A

GALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The autosomal Dominant disorders Holoprosencephaly and Grieg Cephalopolysyndactyly Syndrome, are caused by mutation of which protein signalling pathway?

A

(sonic) Hedgehog Signalling Pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Behaviour of Enhancer and Silencer regions of DNA during transcription are regulated by:

A

What type of cell the DNA is located in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A nucleocapsid consists of what two materials?

A

Capsid Protein

Genetic material (DNA or RNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Genetic conditions such as Marfan’s Syndrome with a spectrum of mild to severe features is conisdered to have:

A

Variable Expressivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In autosomal recessive Chronic Granulomatous Disease, which enzyme, critical for phagocytosis is missing?

A

NADPH oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What process is required to trigger the degradation of M-Cyclin after mitosis?

A

Ubiquitination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What immunodeficient disease is charachterised by deficient MHC class II expression?

A

Type II BLS

Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ribosomal subunits of 40S and 60S are associated with prokaryotes or eukaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Thanatophoric Dysplasia, a severe skeletal malformation disease, is caused by mutation of which particular growth factor gene?

A

FGFR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bacteria which have mutated to resist antibiotic drugs will eventually become the majority of the population of that particular bacteria - is this horizontal or vertical resistance gene transfer?

A

Vertical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Swyer Syndrome results from an error in the SRY / SOX9 crossover process, does this result in an XX Male, or an XY Female?

A

XY Female

Also Known as XY Gonadal Dysgenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in MILS (Maternally-inherited Leigh Syndrome) what is encoded by the affected gene, MT-ATP6?

A

ATP synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the typical recurrence risk for an Autosomal Recessive disease?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three steps of a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) analysis?

A

Denaturation

Annealing

Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three forms of Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Infantile

Juvenile

Adult/Late

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Does genetic testing reveal mutations, or the presence of disease?
Mutations
26
What are the molecules which toggle DNA replication and cell division activities?
Cyclins
27
Which of the following paracrine signalling molecules plays a role in **axial development**: * WNT* (wingless genes) * or* Fibroblast Growth Factor
*WNT*
28
The enzyme **Activation Induced Deaminase** is important for what process?
Somatic Hypermutation
29
Double stranded DNA is the mechanism of gene therapy in: Adeno-Associated Vector or Adenovirus Vector?
Adenovirus vectors
30
RNA is probed by Northern or Southern blotting?
Northern
31
Erythroblastosis Fetalis is a hemolytic disease resulting in spontaneous abortion of the fetus - what gene is responsible?
RH blood gene
32
**Non-ionising** radiation may have the following effect on DNA: Single or double stranded breaks in DNA backbones *or* Binding of adjacent Thymine bases to one another
Binding of adjacent Thymine bases to one another
33
DNA Polymorphisms such as SNPs or STRs can be used as markers in what type of diagnostic tests?
Linkage Analysis
34
S-Cdk causes the inactivation of ORC by destruction of Cdc6, why?
To prevent re-replication (DNA is replicated ONCE during the cell cycle)
35
What type of **newborn** screening test is used to detect **protein variants** that signal **amino acid disorders**?
Tandem Mass Spectrometry
36
The two structures of viral genomes, *Circular* and *Linear*, are both further broken down in what two classifications?
Segmented Non-Segmented
37
In the Hardy-Weinberg Law formula: *p*2* + 2pq + q*2 = 1 , what does the 2pq represent in terms of alleles?
Frequency of the *Aa* combination
38
In a dominant gene disease, which allele is pathogenic, ***d*** or ***D***?
***D***
39
Cri-du-chat Syndrome is a resut of a deletion or a translocation of chromosome 5?
Deleted
40
Which of the following virii are able to be used directly as mRNA for protein synthesis? ssRNA (+) ssRNA (-)
ssRNA (+)
41
Are proteins encoded by rRNA?
no
42
What enzyme joins Okazaki fragments along the lagging strand together to form a complete strand (parallel to the parent?)
DNA Ligase
43
What is the name of the deactivated X chromosomes in the cells of women?
Barr bodies
44
By what mechanism does **Cytomegalovirus** avoid detection by **cytotoxic T-Cells**?
Downregulation of MHC class 1 Genes
45
**Hirschprung disease** is a common feature of birth defects such as Trisomy 21 and Waardenburg Syndrome - what causes **Hirschprung Disease**?
Lack of developement of the Enteric Nervous System
46
A male inheriting an X-Linked dominant disease would have gained the allele from the mother or the father?
Mother
47
What is the medical term for a **factor** which has caused a **mutation** to take place?
Mutagen
48
The **Complement** molecules of the immune system are coded by which class of **Major Histocompatibility Complex**?
Class III
49
In X-Linked Recessive diseases, why is maternal transmission of disease always expressed in sons?
Males do not have a compensatory allele for the affected X-Chromosome gene
50
What is the medical tem for tumours of the **epithelial tissues**?
Carcinoma
51
Ribosomal subunits of 50S and 30S are associated with prokaryotes, or eukaryotes?
Prokaryotes
52
Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer is also known as:
Leisch Nyhan syndrome
53
DNA is read in the 3' ⇒ 5' direction, hence DNA is synthesised in the:
5' ⇒ 3' direction
54
The Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15 is active, or inactive in maternal chromosomes?
Inactive
55
What is the phenomenon that describes defective genes in different chromosomes causing the same disease?
Locus Heterogeneity
56
Curly wooly hair and a webbed neck are features of **Noonan Syndrome** - this is caused by mutation of what gene?
*RAS-MAKP*
57
An effective **screening** test is desirably of a high: Sensitivity *or* Specificity
Sensitivity
58
The probability of a child having a genetically inherited disease is proportional to the number of siblings they have. True or False?
False.
59
Two non-homologous acrocentric chromosomes loose their short arms *(P)*, and the residual long arms (*Q)* fuse to form one long chromosome - what is this phenomenon refererred to as?
Robertsonian Translocation
60
**Sensitivity** is given as a function of **true positives**, divided by:
True positives + False Negatives
61
25% of cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are caused by uniparental disomy of chromosome 15 - what does this mean?
The child inherits both copies of Chromosome 15 from the same parent ## Footnote *(Maternal in this case)*
62
HOX genes clusters consist of normal genes, and what?
Pseudogenes
63
**Supravalvular Aortic Stenosis** results from mutations in which of the following gene products? ## Footnote * Fibrillin-1* * Elastin*
Elastin
64
What is the medical term for an abnormal number of chromosomes within a cell?
Aneuploidy
65
What is Pleitropy?
single genes having more than one discernible effect on the body
66
What will be the **Theta value** of two completely linked genes?
0
67
What is the purpose of maintenance methylation?
methylating newly synthesised strands of DNA
68
Gene therapy with **antisense oligonucleotides** corrects for what type of mutations?
Gain of function mutations
69
**Proteins** are the subject of: Southern Blotting Western Blotting Northern Blotting?
Western Blotting
70
Sickle Cell disease Tay-Sachs disease Cystic Fibrosis Phenylketonuria These disease are detected by what type of screening?
Heterozygote screening
71
IRT (Immunoreactive Trypsinogen) is the subject of a diagnostic test for what disease?
Cystic Fibrosis
72
*A needle passed through the abdomen to collect samples for analysis* describes: Chorionic Villus Sampling or Amniocentesis
Amniocentesis
73
The carbon ring in a nucleotide contains 4 or 5 Carbons?
4 Carbons
74
When calculating the frequency of alleles, the number (*n*) of homozygous (*AA*) or heterozygous (*Aa*) samples must be doubled before dividing by 2N?
Homozygous (*AA*)
75
What is the most straightforward method of epigenetic control?
DNA Methylation
76
During conjucation by bacteria, genetic material travelling through the sex pilus originates from the: Bacterial Chromosome *or* a Plasmid?
Plasmid
77
The subunit formed by DNA wrapped around eight histones is known as a:
Nucleosome
78
If some people with a mutation of a gene do not develop the features of the disorder, the condition is said to have:
A reduced penetrance
79
What is the typical recurrence risk of an autosomal recessive disease?
25%
80
During methylation, which enzyme adds the first methyl group? *de novo* methylase or Maintenance methylase
*de novo* methylase
81
Rostrocaudal symmetry of axial development is regulated by proteins expressed by what genes?
Sonic the Hedgehog Genes ## Footnote *SHH*
82
Myotonic Dystrophy is an autosomal dominant, or recessive disease?
Autosomal Dominant
83
Continuation of the leading strand of DNA is done by which Polymerase?
DNA Polymerase *Epsilon*
84
Exonucleases perform what function?
Error checking and correction
85
What component of the Helicase (MCM) is destroyed by S-Cdk?
Cdc6
86
Resistance gene transfer that is achieved by absorption of new DNA from the external environment is an example of: * Conjugation* * Transduction* * Transformation*?
Transformation
87
In **mitochondrial replacement therapy**, in which method is repair carried out **before fertilisation**? Pronuclear Transfer Maternal Spindle Transfer
Maternal Spindle Transfer
88
A section of DNA incorporated in to the bacterial chromosome by a virus is known as a:
Prophage
89
In what disease are the phagocytes able to take in bacteria and fingi, but unable to kill them?
CGD ## Footnote *Chronic Granulomatous Disease*
90
Inherited Brachydactyly (short digits) results from what type of mutation of *CDMP 1* genes? Misense *or* Nonsense
Nonsense
91
Transduction of non-dividing cells in gene therapy requires what vector?
Adeno-associated virus
92
Which feature of a DNA strand encodes proteins? Exons or Introns?
Exons
93
Which genetic disease is linked to eating fava beans and some oxidative drugs?
G6PD deficiency
94
What is the diploid number for human somatic cells?
23
95
**PPV** (Positive predictive value) measures the ability to: Detect the *presence* of a disease or Detect the *absence* of a disease
Detect the presence of a disease
96
Mutation in which **BMP family** gene causes **fusion of the bones** in various joints?
*Noggin*
97
The person about who's future offspring the genetic analysis refers, is known as:
The consultand
98
What is the purpose of Alternative Splicing in protein synthesis?
Allowing for multiple RNA/Proteins to be produced from the same set of exons.
99
What are the two forms of Huntington's Disease?
Adult Onset Juvenile Onset
100
What are **Lymphomas**?
Tumours of the lymphatic tissues
101
What is the **inheritance risk** of **retinoblastoma** if one parent is affected?
50%
102
With relation to chromosome 15, by what three mechanisms will a patient develop either Prader-Willi Syndrome or Angelman Syndrome?
Uniparental disomy Defective imprinting Deletion
103
Adenine and Guanine are: Purines or Pyramidines?
Purines
104
A law states\* that genotype and allele frequencies will always remain constant from generation to generation - what is this law? **provided certain criteria are met*
Hardy-Weinberg Law
105
What disease is also known as **Bubble Boy** disease?
SCID
106
What is a **Sarcoma**?
Tumours of connective tissues
107
What sequences upstream from the gene promoter site function to regulate DNA transcription to RNA?
Enhancers and Silencers
108
Is Male Pattern Baldness a Sex-Limited trait, or a Sex-Influenced trait?
Sex-Influenced Trait
109
Mutations in ***CYP21A2*** are associated with which disease?
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
110
What are the three types of horizontal resistance gene transfer in bacteria?
Transformation Conjugation Transduction
111
Genetic material, combined with Capsid Protein is known as a:
Nucleocapsid
112
Using the **Knudson Hypothesis**, explain the **earlier onset** of **Retinoblastoma** in a child with an affected parent?
The inerited mutation has provided the 'first hit' already
113
What are the two morphological structures of viral genomes?
Linear Circular
114
Reducing the distance between **loci** of **syntetic** genes will *increase* or *decrease* the **recombination frequency**?
Decrease
115
Pairs of sister chromatids are joined by a special DNA sequence known as a:
Centromere
116
What does Haplosufficient mean?
Accounting for any mutation, there are sufficient proteins produced to maintain homeostatic function
117
The Angelman Syndrome gene on chromosome 15 is active, or inactive in maternal chromosomes?
Active
118
Father to son transmission of genetic disease is an attribute of Autosomal Dominant, or Autosomal Recessive?
Autosomal Dominant
119
According to the two-hit (Knudson) theory, in order for a cell to initiate a tumour it must have:
Two damaged alleles
120
**Specificity** of a medical test measures the ability to correctly identify: True Positives *or* False Negatives
False Negatives
121
Is mitochondrial inheritance maternal, or paternal?
Maternal
122
What are the three classes of **prenatal** diagnosis of genetic disorders?
Invasive Diagnostic Testing Foetal Visualisation Techniques Population Screening
123
**X-Linked Agammaglobulinaemia**, a B-Cell disease, will result in a patient who lacks what?
All immunoglobulins
124
X linked dominant diseases passed down from the mother are seen in boys, girls, or both?
Both
125
What is the mechanism of muscle wastage in Pompe disease?
Lysosomes are unable to break down glycogen Swollen lysosomes disrupt muscle cell function
126
Mutation in what gene gives rise to the X-Linked Recessive disease **Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome**?
*WAS* Gene
127
What is the function of *Operons*?
Regulating gene expression in prokaryotes
128
Mutation in one of the four *FGFR*'s, ***FGFR3***, causes what developmental disease?
Thanatophoric Dysplasia
129
Mutations in the transcription factor encoded by ***TBX5*** can lead to what syndrome?
Holt-Oram syndrome
130
DNA molecules are antiparallel, meaning DNA is: \_\_\_\_\_ in the 3' ⇒ 5' direction, \_\_\_\_\_ in the 5' ⇒ 3' direction.
Read in the 3' ⇒ 5' direction, Written in the 5' ⇒ 3' direction.
131
Why does the **second pregnancy** from an **Rh positive father** usually result in **erythroblastosis Fetalis**, rather than the first?
The detachment of the placenta causes the Rh+ blood to enter the mother's circulation
132
A disorder affecting chromosome 11 causes downregulation of growth factor, is this disease: Beckwith-Weidemann Syndrome or Silver-Russel Syndrome?
Silver-Russel Syndrome
133
Craniosyntosis is caused by mutation in which family of genes?
*FGFR* genes (Fibroblast Growth Factor)
134
In a recessive gene disease, which allele is pathogenic, ***d*** or ***D***?
***d***
135
A new gene formed at the interface between two translocated chromosome is known as:
An Oncogene
136
*TAP2* Mutation is associated with which autosomal recessive disease?
Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome
137
What family of genes was named after the *wingless fruit fly*?
*WNT* genes
138
*De novo* methylase adds methyl (CH3) groups to what locations on the DNA molecule?
CG Islands
139
"Common in Africans, African Americans and Mediterranian peoples." Is this a feature of Sickle Cell anaemia, or Tay Sachs disease?
Sickle Cell anaemia
140
how many generations are required to be examined to qualify a '*complete*' history, regarding genetic disease?
Three
141
The Angelman Syndrome gene on chromosome 15 is active, or inactive in paternal chromosomes?
Inactive
142
What is the medical term for tumours of the **Haematopoietic Organs**?
Leukaemias
143
What is the typical recurrence risk for an Autosomal Dominant disease?
50%
144
The Parental DNA strand is the *Sense* or *Antisense* strand?
Antisense
145
Chromosomes are synthesised during G1 phase of the cell cycle. True or False?
False
146
During the first stage of gene silencing, what molecule is attracted to the methylated CG-Islands?
Methylcytosine-binding protein (MeCP)
147
Why do females display a lower severity of symptoms in Fragile X Syndrome than males?
Females have two copies of the X chromosome, one may be a normal copy (Females are mosaic)
148
The Hayflick Limit refers to what aspect of DNA replication?
Shortening of Telomeres, as DNA strands must be built in the 5' ⇒ 3' direction
149
The **probability** that the child of a patient may inherit a particular disease is known as:
Recurrence Risk
150
What is a synonym for Helicase?
MCM
151
Which of the **three classes of MHC** is used in the function of T-Cell receptors of **Cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes**?
Class I
152
What is the relatonship between **1 cM** (centimorgan) and **theta**?
0.01 theta : 1 cM
153
De La Chapelle Syndrome results from an error in the *SRY / SOX9* crossover process - Does this result in an XX Male, or an XY Female?
XX Male
154
*_Which_* nucleotide base is changed to *_what_*, during the first stages of **somatic hypermutation**?
Cytosine to Uracil
155
Why will uniparental disomy of chromosome 15 cause either Prader-Willi or Angelman Syndrome?
Active and Inactive PWS and AS regions are sex-dependant ## Footnote *(Maternal or Paternal)*
156
X-Linked recessive and Autosomal Recessive Chronic Granulomatous Disease results in lesion most common in which are of the body?
The lungs
157
**NPV** (Negative predictive value) measures the ability to: Detect the presence of a disease *or* Detect the absence of a disease
Detect the absence of a disease
158
during the second stage of gene silencing, Histone Deacetylase (HDAC) binds to both:
MeCP and DNA
159
Are nucleotide sequences retained in non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) repair?
No
160
On which chromosome is the locus of the genes involved in IGHD Dwarfism?
17
161
What molecule must first bind with the *Ori* to initiate the assembly of the MCM (Helicase)?
ORC Ori Recognition Complex
162
The limb development disorder **Holt-Oram syndrome** is caused by mutations in a gene encoding a **transcription factor** by what name?
*TBX5*
163
List the five Nitrogenous Bases:
Guanine Cytosine Adenine Thymine Uracil
164
is X-Linked Dominant disease transmission possible between fathers and sons?
No
165
Drug resistance gene transfer that is carried out through cell division is an example of *vertical* or *horizontal* gene transfer?
vertical
166
What are the two methods of **mitochondrial replacement therapy**?
Pronuclear Transfer Maternal Spindle Transfer
167
On what chromosome is the gene *GAA* encoded, which is responsible for the lysosomal breakdown of glycogen in muscle cells?
17
168
A mutation in a trinucleotide results in the replacement of Leucine with Proline - is this a nonsense or a missense mutation?
Missense mutation
169
Robertsonian Translocation occurs between two Homologous or Non-Homologous pairs of chromosomes?
Non-homologous
170
Are mitochondrial diseases inherited from the mother, father, or either parent?
Mother
171
is Methylcytosine-binding protein (MeCP) the first or second molecule used in gene silencing?
First
172
Exogenous antigens are presented by MHC proteins of class I or II?
Class II
173
Rh blood disease causes what condition in unborn children?
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
174
**Somatic Hypermutation** can occur in genes that encode **T-Cell receptors**. True or False?
False
175
BRCA genes are associated with which type of cancer?
Breast cancer
176
Xeroderma Pigmentosum is a disease caused by mutations in genes encoding what proteins?
Nucleotide Excision Repair enzymes
177
What aspect of pedigree should be considered when a rare recessive disease is discovered?
Cosanguinity
178
M-Cyclin begins accumulating during which phase of the cell cycle?
G2
179
What enzyme makes retroviruses unique?
DNA Reverse Transcriptase
180
What are the two major **Tumour Suppressor** genes?
* RB1* * TP53*
181
What is the most important factor in calculating **recurrence risk**?
*How* the disease is inherited
182
What Physical phenomenon is responsible for Hydrophobic and Hydrophlic interactions in the tertiary structure of proteins?
Van Der Waal's forces
183
About 15% of SCID cases are caused by deficiency in an enzme that results in a toxic buildup of metabolites (Purines) which kill off B and T cells - what enzyme is this?
ADA ## Footnote *Adenosine Deaminase*
184
Chronic Myelogenous Leukaemia results from translocation of most of chromosome 22 on to the long arm of chromosome 9 in haematopoetic stem cells, what is this new hybrid chromosome known as?
The Philadelphia Chromosome
185
How many individual chromosomes are found in a cell during S phase?
96
186
What is the purpose of the methylated CG-Islands in DNA methylation?
Interfering with DNA transcriptase activity
187
What type of mutations result in destruction of **Hypocretin Neurons** and resultant narcolepsy?
MHC class II
188
Anticipation of genetic disease (Progresive worsening between generations) is caused by what?
Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion mutation
189
An effective **Diagnostic** test is desirably of a high: Sensitivity *or* Specificity
Specificity
190
IRT, Immunoreactive Trypsinogen, is the subject of a diagnostic test for what genetic disease?
CF Cystic Fibrosis
191
Which sugar component of DNA and RNA is rich in oxygen?
RNA
192
Prior to AP Endonuclease and Phosphodiesterase removing a sugar molecule from DNA during repair, what enzyme must first act on the site of a nucleotide mismatch?
DNA Glycosylase
193
What is *the point on a chromosome where replication starts* known as?
*Ori*
194
What is the purpose of Polysomes?
allowing multiple proteins to be produced from the same mRNA simultaneously
195
DNA Ligase is required to complete strands created by: DNA Polymerase ε or DNA Polymerase δ
DNA Polymerase δ
196
On what chromosome is *RB1*, the **retinoblastoma causing gene** located?
13
197
5' Caps and Poly-A tails are features of Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic mRNA?
Eukaryotic mRNA
198
Somatic recombination in the production of immune cell receptors are combinations of which genes?
VDJ Genes
199
Tumour cells derived from a **single ancestral cell** are known as:
Monoclonal cells
200
Which complex of the electron transport chain does not utilise mitochondrial DNA for its synthesis?
Complex II
201
What unit is used to measure the distance between loci of genes?
cM ## Footnote *Centimorgans*
202
How many of the parents must be carriers of the defective gene in order for one of their offspring to express an autosomal recessive disease?
Both
203
A child who shows a **white reflex** (reflection) in the pupil of one eye in a flash-lit photograph is suspected to have what condition?
Retinoblastoma
204
What substrate must accumulate in the cytoplasm in order for mitosis to be triggered by cyclin-dependant kinase (Cdk)?
M-Cyclin
205
What **theta value** will two independantly assorting genes have?
0.5
206
The WASP protein is required by erythrocytes in order to form cell-to-cell attachment - patients with Wiskott-Aldritch System will have what defect as a result?
Reduced ability to form blood clots
207
Which amino acids are unable to be metabolised in **maple syrup urine** disease?
Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine
208
The *Ori* of chromosomes are rich in AT pairs, why?
Two H-bonds (as opposed to 3 in CG)
209
Bacterial molecules that act as scissors to cleave foreign viral DNA in the cytosol that are useful in DNA analysis are known as:
Restriction Enzymes
210
What is the most common single-gene mutation disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?
Galactosaemia
211
Maternal foetal protein will peak lower than the normal value in a test indicative of: Down Syndrome *or* Open Spina-Bifida?
Down Syndrome
212
What does LINEs stand for in DNA types?
Long Interspersed Elements
213
Whatis the definition of **Leukaemias**?
Tumours of the haematopoietic organs
214
"Common in Ashkenazi Jews and French Canadian peoples." Is this a feature of Sickle Cell anaemia, or Tay Sachs disease?
Tay Sachs Disease
215
The mosaic distribution of overgrowth in **Proteus Syndrome** is caused by mutation in what gene?
*AKT1*
216
**Achondroplasia**, the most common short-limbed dwarfism, is caused by mutations on chromosome 4, at location 4p16 - what gene is encoded there?
*FGFR3*
217
Both alleles affecting the phenotype are a feature of what type of inheritance?
Codominant Inheritance
218
DNA is probed by Northern or Southern blotting?
Southern
219
A patient with **Agammaglobulinaemia** will have some degree of immunity for a short while after birth due to a **temporary supply** of **which immunoglobulin** from the mother?
IgG
220
In the Hardy-Weinberg Law formula: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 , what does the p2 represent in terms of alleles?
Frequency of *AA*
221
What is the role of SHH (sonic the Hedgehog) proteins in axial development?
Setting up left and right sides of the body
222
What is the function of *Xist* RNA?
Inactivation of X Chromosomes
223
Defective duplicate genes found in eukaryotic cells are known as:
Pseudogenes
224
What are three forms of signals which instruct cells to stop growing in size?
Signalling Molecules Contact Inhibition Hayflick Number *(Internal programmed limits)*
225
Females are considered genetic mosaics with regard to X-Linked genetic traits - what does this mean?
She will express X-linked alleles from both her mother and her father
226
Virii are *Obligate Parasites* - what does this mean?
They require the use of host machinery to reproduce
227
Regarding **tumours,** what does **monoclonal** mean?
Cells derived from a single ancestral cell
228
What type of genes regulate axial development of the embryo?
HOX gene clusters
229
What sequence precedes an exon along a DNA strand?
Promoter region (Includes the TATA box)
230
The template strand is the sense or antisense strand?
Sense strand
231
In **X-Linked Chronic Granulomatous Disease**, the patient does not produce a particular protein which is **required by phagocytes** in order to destroy the bacteria and fungi that they endocytose - what is this protein?
Cytochrome-B
232
Tay Sachs Disease: Autosomal Dominant, or Recessive?
Autosomal Recessive
233
What does *tetra-amelia* mean?
Lack of all four limbs
234
On which chromosome (and arm) will the genes encoding the **Major Histocompatibility Complex** be found?
Short arm, Chromosome 6
235
A disorder affecting chromosome 11 causes upregulation of growth factor, is this disease: Beckwith-Weidemann Syndrome or Silver-Russel Syndrome?
Beckwith-Weidemann Syndrome
236
Robertsonian Translocation occurs during: Gametogenesis or Embryonic Cell Division?
Gametogenesis
237
Resistance gene transfer that is achieved by introduction of new DNA by Bacteriophage (Virii) is an example of: * Conjugation* * Transduction* * Transformation*?
Transduction
238
At the present time, what are the only targets of **Gene Therapy**?
Somatic Cells
239
Albinism: Autosomal dominant, or recessive?
Autosomal Recessive
240
What protein, when phosphorylated binds to E2F to arrest the cell cycle?
pRb
241
Three hydrogen bonds wil be found between which two Nitrogenous Bases?
Cytosine and Guanine
242
In the cellular immune response, by what mecanism are viral peptites brought to the cell surface to display and attract T-Cells?
MHC
243
List four types of **invasive prenatal** diagnostic methods for genetic disorders:
Amniocentesis Chorionic Villus Sampling Percutaneous Umbilical blood sampling Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis
244
The establisment of the **trilaminar structure of embryonic development** (*Ectoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm*) is established in days 14-28 of gestation, what is this process referred to as?
Gastrulation
245
During which phase of the cell cycle does G1/S-Cyclin activity peak?
G1
246
**Ionising** radiation may have the following effect on DNA: Single or double stranded breaks in DNA backbones *or* Binding of adjacent Thymine bases to one another
Single or double stranded breaks in DNA backbones
247
What is the medical term for tumours of the **Lymphatic Tissues**?
Lymphomas
248
What is unique about Introns found in LINEs? (Long Interspersed Elements)
A coding sequence
249
NIPS, Non-invasive Prenatal Screening, draws DNA samples from where?
Maternal circulation
250
How early can foetal DNA be detected in the maternal circulation?
6 to 8 weeks post LMP
251
The process of forming Barr Bodies with *Xist* RNA is known as:
Lyonisation
252
What is the typical recurrence risk of an autosomal dominant disease?
50%
253
What are the **four** major families of **Paracrine Signalling** molecules?
**F**ibroblast Growth Factor **H**edgehog **W**ingless **T**ransforming Growth Factor *Four Hedgehogs Walk Together*
254
in CAH, 21-Hydroxylase deficiency results in a patient unable to produce which two hormones?
Aldosterone, Cortisol
255
In SCID, the patient is unable to adequately express MHC type II proteins, why does this leave the patient susceptable to all infections and viruses?
MHC type II proteins tag *exogenous* antigens
256
Which molecular screening tool is the most commonly used tool for genetic diagnosis?
Direct Mutation Analysis
257
In transduction, the incorporation and proliferation of Phage DNA in to the chromosome of the host bacteria is known as: Lysogenic Cycle Lytic Cycle
Lysogenic
258
Which cyclin is the longest acting during the cell cycle? G1/S-Cyclin S-Cyclin M-Cyclin
S-Cyclin
259
are expressed Pseudogene mRNA used for protein transcription?
No
260
Alu elements (Named for the Alu 1 Restriction enzyme) are what type of DNA genes?
Short Interspersed Elements SINEs
261
Continuation of the lagging strand is carried out by which DNA Polymerase?
DNA Polymerase *Gamma*
262
In transduction, phage DNA that utilises bacterial machinery to produce more copies of the virus (with the view to release from the cell) is known as: The Lysogenic Cycle The Lytic Cycle
Lytic cycle
263
**Sensitivity** of a medical test measures the ability to correctly identify: True Positives *or* False Negatives
True Positives
264
What do geneticists mean by anticipation?
Severity of the disease and earliness of onset increases as the disorder is passed from one generation to the next
265
What is the name of the process by which ordered spatial arrangements of differeintiated cells create distinct tissues and organs in an organism?
Pattern Formation
266
**Specificity** is given as a function of **True negatives**, divided by:
True negatives + False Positives
267
**NADPH Oxidase** is the enzyme missing in which form of **Chronic Granulomatous Disease**, *X-Linked* or *Autosomal Recessive*?
Autosomal Recessive
268
What does Wild Type refer to in protein synthesis?
Proteins produced by healthy genes before any mutation
269
What is the medical term for tumours of the **connective tissues**?
Sarcoma
270
In MILS, what type of error occurs with the gene MT-ATP6 which encodes the ATP synthase complex?
Substitution mutation
271
In the Hardy-Weinberg Law formula: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 , what does the q2 represent in terms of alleles?
Frequency of *aa*
272
What are the three major categories of cancer-causing genes?
Tumour Suppresspor genes Oncogenes Genes that participate in DNA repair
273
how does the **H1N1 vaccine** *Pandermix* attack **Hypocretin Neurons**?
modified CD8 T-cells cross the blood-brain barrier.
274
Specialised E.Coli bacteria deprived of phenylalanine are used in a petrie dish alongside blood samples to detect what disorder?
Phenylketonuria
275
What immunodeficient disease is charachterised by deficient MHC class I expression?
Type I BLS Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome
276
At what phase of the cell cycle does the *error checking* of chromosomes formed during S phase occur?
G2
277
the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes associated with cancer of the breasts encodes proteins with what funciton?
DNA Repair
278
List three methods of **foetal visualisation** techniques:
Ultrasonography Radiography Magnetic Resonance Imaging
279
Fragile X Syndrome is typically more severe in males, or females?
Males
280
**Marfan syndrome** is a result of mutation in which of the following gene products: ## Footnote * Fibrillin-1* * Elastin*
*Fibrillin-1*
281
Endogenous antigens are presented by MHC proteins of class I or II?
Class I
282
The Ori found along a chromosome consist of sequences rich in which nucleotide pairs? AT or CG
AT
283
What does Haploinsufficient mean?
Affected genes do not produce enough proteins to fulfil their designated function
284
The physical signs of Phenylketonuria are subtle, and mainly present as:
Developmental delay
285
Prenatal diagnostic analysis of blastomeres indicates **Aongenital Adrenal Hyperplasia**, which drug is administed to the mother to prevent masculinisation of a female foetus?
Dexamethasone
286
Why is the p53 protein (via *TP53* gene) of intrest in tumour pathology?
p53 regulates apoptosis and cell cycle arrest
287
Bloom syndrome, a disease resulting in short stature, cancers and rash from sun exposure is a result of mutation in genes encoding what proteins?
DNA Helicase
288
The Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15 is active, or inactive in paternal chromosomes?
Active
289
Cancers that may be **intergenerational** are cancers of **somatic cells** or **germline cells**?
Germline cells
290
Methylation upregulates or downregulates gene expression?
downregulates
291
What is a **Carcinoma**?
Tumors of epithelial tissues
292
Sickle Cell Anaemia: Autosomal Dominant, or Recessive?
Autosomal Recessive
293
Antisense RNA, miRNA and siRNA perform what functions?
Downregulation and suppresion of gene expression
294
How does the process of sequential DNA replication made more time-efficient, given the extraordinary length of DNA molecules?
Multiple *Ori* ## Footnote *Allows parallel dna replication processes along the same chromosome*
295
In **mitochondrial replacement therapy**, in which method is repair carried out after fertilisation? Pronuclear Transfer Maternal Spindle Transfer
Pronuclear Transfer
296
Polymerase works in which direction - 5'⇒3' or 3'⇒5'?
5'⇒3'
297
Familial Isolated Growth Hormone Deficiency (IGHD) is an example of complex genetic transmission, why?
There can be both *recessive* and *dominant* IGHD
298
Genes that are considered **syntetic** are:
Found on the same chromosome
299
Resistance gene transfer that is achieved by transferring new DNA via a protein tube between adjacent bacteria is an example of: ## Footnote * Conjugation* * Transduction* * Transformation?*
Conjugation
300
The hypothesis that most genes require two mutations to cause a phenotypic change is known as:
The Two-Hit model of carcinogenesis *or* The Knudson Hypothesis
301
which X-linked recessive disease more common in African American males and linked with protection against malaria results in breakdown of red blood cells?
G6PD deficiency
302
A mutation in a trinucleotide encoding the translation of alanine results in no change to the amino acid sequence, was this a misense or a silent mutation?
Silent Mutation
303
*Patient with adrenocortical Carcinoma or Choroid Plexus Tumour, Irrespective of family history* is one diagnostic criteria for what syndrome?
Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
304
Amplification of DNA for cloning or analysis is done by a process of what name?
PCR ## Footnote *Polymerase Chain Reaction*
305
What type of hypothalamic neurons are lost in **Narcolepsy**?
Hypocretin (Orexin) producing neurons