Week 4 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

What are the three classes of prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders?

A

Invasive Diagnostic Testing

Foetal Visualisation Techniques

Population Screening

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2
Q

List four types of invasive prenatal diagnostic methods for genetic disorders:

A

Amniocentesis

Chorionic Villus Sampling

Percutaneous Umbilical blood sampling

Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis

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3
Q

List three methods of foetal visualisation techniques:

A

Ultrasonography

Radiography

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

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4
Q

Sensitivity is given as a function of true positives, divided by:

A

True positives + False Negatives

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5
Q

Specificity is given as a function of True negatives, divided by:

A

True negatives + False Positives

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6
Q

What type of newborn screening test is used to detect protein variants that signal amino acid disorders?

A

Tandem Mass Spectrometry

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7
Q

Sickle Cell disease

Tay-Sachs disease

Cystic Fibrosis

Phenylketonuria

These disease are detected by what type of screening?

A

Heterozygote screening

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8
Q

DNA Polymorphisms such as SNPs or STRs can be used as markers in what type of diagnostic tests?

A

Linkage Analysis

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9
Q

Which molecular screening tool is the most commonly used tool for genetic diagnosis?

A

Direct Mutation Analysis

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10
Q

A needle passed through the abdomen to collect samples for analysis

describes:

Chorionic Villus Sampling

or

Amniocentesis

A

Amniocentesis

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11
Q

Which sampling method will provide earlier analysis of foetal DNA:

Chorionic Villus Sampling

or

Amniocentesis?

A

Chorionic Villus Sampling

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12
Q

NIPS, Non-invasive Prenatal Screening, draws DNA samples from where?

A

Maternal circulation

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13
Q

Maternal foetal protein will peak lower than the normal value in a test indicative of:

Down Syndrome or Open Spina-Bifida?

A

Down Syndrome

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14
Q

How early can foetal DNA be detected in the maternal circulation?

A

6 to 8 weeks post LMP

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15
Q

Prenatal diagnostic analysis of blastomeres indicates Aongenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, which drug is administed to the mother to prevent masculinisation of a female foetus?

A

Dexamethasone

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16
Q

Does genetic testing reveal mutations, or the presence of disease?

A

Mutations

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17
Q

in CAH, 21-Hydroxylase deficiency results in a patient unable to produce which two hormones?

A

Aldosterone, Cortisol

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18
Q

Specialised E.Coli bacteria deprived of phenylalanine are used in a petrie dish alongside blood samples to detect what disorder?

A

Phenylketonuria

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19
Q

The physical signs of Phenylketonuria are subtle, and mainly present as:

A

Developmental delay

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20
Q

What is the most common single-gene mutation disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Galactosaemia

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21
Q

Which amino acids are unable to be metabolised in maple syrup urine disease?

A

Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine

22
Q

which X-linked recessive disease more common in African American males and linked with protection against malaria results in breakdown of red blood cells?

A

G6PD deficiency

23
Q

Which genetic disease is linked to eating fava beans and some oxidative drugs?

A

G6PD deficiency

24
Q

IRT, Immunoreactive Trypsinogen, is the subject of a diagnostic test for what genetic disease?

A

CF

Cystic Fibrosis

25
The person about who's future offspring the genetic analysis refers, is known as:
The consultand
26
At the present time, what are the only targets of **Gene Therapy**?
Somatic Cells
27
Double stranded DNA is the mechanism of gene therapy in: Adeno-Associated Vector or Adenovirus Vector?
Adenovirus vectors
28
What is the mechanism of muscle wastage in Pompe disease?
Lysosomes are unable to break down glycogen Swollen lysosomes disrupt muscle cell function
29
On what chromosome is the gene *GAA* encoded, which is responsible for the lysosomal breakdown of glycogen in muscle cells?
17
30
Transduction of non-dividing cells in gene therapy requires what vector?
Adeno-associated virus
31
Gene therapy with **antisense oligonucleotides** corrects for what type of mutations?
Gain of function mutations
32
Which complex of the electron transport chain does not utilise mitochondrial DNA for its synthesis?
Complex II
33
Are mitochondrial diseases inherited from the mother, father, or either parent?
Mother
34
What are the two methods of **mitochondrial replacement therapy**?
Pronuclear Transfer Maternal Spindle Transfer
35
In **mitochondrial replacement therapy**, in which method is repair carried out **before fertilisation**? Pronuclear Transfer Maternal Spindle Transfer
Maternal Spindle Transfer
36
In **mitochondrial replacement therapy**, in which method is repair carried out after fertilisation? Pronuclear Transfer Maternal Spindle Transfer
Pronuclear Transfer
37
in MILS (Maternally-inherited Leigh Syndrome) what is encoded by the affected gene, MT-ATP6?
ATP synthase
38
In MILS, what type of error occurs with the gene MT-ATP6 which encodes the ATP synthase complex?
Substitution mutation
39
RNA is probed by Northern or Southern blotting?
Northern
40
DNA is probed by Northern or Southern blotting?
Southern
41
**Proteins** are the subject of: Southern Blotting Western Blotting Northern Blotting?
Western Blotting
42
**Ionising** radiation may have the following effect on DNA: Single or double stranded breaks in DNA backbones *or* Binding of adjacent Thymine bases to one another
Single or double stranded breaks in DNA backbones
43
**Non-ionising** radiation may have the following effect on DNA: Single or double stranded breaks in DNA backbones *or* Binding of adjacent Thymine bases to one another
Binding of adjacent Thymine bases to one another
44
The subunit formed by DNA wrapped around eight histones is known as a:
Nucleosome
45
Adenine and Guanine are: Purines or Pyramidines?
Purines
46
Pairs of sister chromatids are joined by a special DNA sequence known as a:
Centromere
47
the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes associated with cancer of the breasts encodes proteins with what funciton?
DNA Repair
48
On which chromosome is the locus of the genes involved in IGHD Dwarfism?
17
49
Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer is also known as:
Leisch Nyhan syndrome
50