Final Flashcards

1
Q

What hormone released by the posterior pituitary functions in uterine contraction and milk letdown in the breast?

A

oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by ________ released from the ________.

A

Releasing Hormone or hypothalmic hormone

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a hormone released from the anterior pituitary?

Question 1: What are four hormones that are released from the anterior pituitary?

Question 2: What are 2 hormones that are released from the posterior pituitary?

A

Question 1: Human growth hormone, Prolactin, Adrenocorticotropic hormone, and Leutinizing hormone

Question 2: Antidiuretic and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The thyroid gland secretes what hormone?

A

T3 (triiodothyronine)
T4 (thyroxine)
Calcitonin
but not the Thyroid stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by gonads?

These hormones are secreted by the gonads:

A

Female hormones, estrogen and progesterone

Male hormones, testosterone and androsterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
Which of the following hormones regulates plasma calcium levels?
A) Calcitonin
B) Oxytocin
C) Parathyroid hormone 
D) Both A and C
E) All of the above
A

D) Both A and C

Calcitonin and Parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The primary effect of FSH on females is

A

Stimulates growth of the ovarian follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The primary effect of FSH on males is

A

Stimulates sperm production in the testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Addison’s disease _______.

  1. Addison’s disease is caused by:
  2. Addison’s disease is a deficiency of which 2 hormones?
  3. Addison’s disease is an example of what?
  4. What are the key signs of Addison’s disease?
A
  1. autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex
  2. glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids
  3. Addisons disease is an example of primary adrenal insufficiency
  4. hyperpigmentation of the skin not exposed to the sun
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome _____________.

  1. Cushings disease is when
    Or
  2. When..
  3. The common cause of Cushings sydrome is…
A
  1. Cushings disease is when there is too much ACTH from the pituitary
  2. Cushings syndrome is when there is too much steroids being released by the adrenal gland
  3. The common cause of Cushings sydrome is Exogenous steroids

In Cushings syndrome cortisol is high while ACTH is low because its telling the pituitary to stop making ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
When a B cell contacts a foreign or abnormal antigen, it develops into a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that releases \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) macrophage : histamine
B) plasma cell : histamine
C) macrophage : antibody
D) plasma cell : antibodies
E) natural killer cell : antibodies
A

D) plasma cell : antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Which of the following is NOT one of the body's nonspecific defenses against pathogens?
A) interferons
B) immunoglobulins
C) histamine
D) neutrophils
OR 
A) intact skin
B) mucous membranes
C) bloodborne chemicals
D) antibodies
E) phagocytic cells
A

B) immunoglobulins

or

D) antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
In the end, the complement system destroys invading bacteria by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) phagocytosis
B) forming a membrane attack complex
C) release of lytic enzymes
D) agglutination
E) neutralization
A

B) forming a membrane attack complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The complement cascade can be activated by binding to ________.

A

Binding of C1 to the Fc region of the antibody molecules TO IgM, IgG1, IgG3

OR the surface of a pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
If bacteria are exposed to a B cell in the spleen, they will initiate a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) inflammatory response
B) nonspecific immune response
C) cell-mediated immune response
D) humoral immune response
E) response from the complement system
A

D) humoral immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is a secondary immune response stronger?

A

Memory cells produced during the primary response, lead to a rapid proliferation of effector cells on subsequent exposure to the antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
What secretes cytokines that enhance the activity of B cells, cytotoxic T cells, suppressor T cells, and helper T cells?
A) Macrophages
B) B cells
C) Helper T cells
D) Cytotoxic T cells
E) Suppressor T cells
A

D) Cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
Cells that leave the thymus with the ability to bind to class I major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules will develop into \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) B cells
C) helper T cells
D) suppressor T cells
E) macrophages
A

A) cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Cells that leave the thymus with the ability to bind to class II major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules will develop into \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) B cells
C) helper T cells
D) suppressor T cells
E) macrophages
A

C) helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ protein on the cytotoxic T cell binds to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule on the infected cell.
A) CD8 : class I
B) CD8 : class II
C) CD4 : class I
D) CD4 : class II
E) CD6 : class I
A

A) CD8 : class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?
A) Producing the hormones melanin and oxytocin
B) Metabolizing vitamin D to its active form
C) Maintaining the proper balance between water and salts and between acids and bases
D) Gluconeogenesis during prolonged fasting

A

A) Producing the hormones melanin and oxytocin

Also, BILE PRODUCTION, Excretion of excess ions, Release of erythropoietin, Activation of vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Blood leaves the ________ and enters the glomerulus.

A

afferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where does blood leaving the glomerulus go to next?

A

Glomerular capillary

24
Q

After fluid passes through the entire proximal tubule, the fluid will enter the ________.

A

loop of Henle

25
Q

During what renal process are molecules selectively removed from the tubule lumen, moved into the interstitial space, and removed from the kidneys by the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta?

A

reabsorption

26
Q
What is the process whereby molecules are selectively transported from the peritubular fluid to the lumen of the renal tubules?
A) absorption 
B) secretion 
C) excretion 
D) glomerular filtration 
E) reabsorption
A

B) secretion

27
Q

What is the process whereby protein-free plasma moves by bulk flow from the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsules?

A

glomerular filtration

28
Q

Contraction of mesangial cells results in a ________, which decreases glomerular filtration.

A

Decrease in surface area of capillaries available for filtration.

29
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby glomerular filtration rate is regulated?

These ARE mechanisms whereby glomerular filtration rate is regulated:

A

These ARE mechanisms whereby glomerular filtration rate is regulated: Tubuloglomerular feedback, renal autoregulation(?)

30
Q

The activity of the respiratory system can increase pH by ________.

A

a hyperventilation-induced decrease in PCO2

31
Q
Which of the following is NOT a metabolic disturbance that can result in a metabolic acidosis?
A severe diarrhea
B high protein diet
C excessive vomiting
D high fat diet
E heavy exercise
A

C excessive vomiting

32
Q

What is the most rapid defense against changes in blood pH?

A

buffering of hydrogen ions

33
Q

How does severe diarrhea cause a metabolic acidosis?

a. loss of bicarbonate
b. production of bicarbonate
c. loss of hydrogen ions
d. production of hydrogen ions
e. loss of phosphate

A

a. loss of bicarbonate

34
Q

How does severe vomiting cause a metabolic alkalosis?

A

you rid gastric acid, so your alkaline levels would rise

35
Q

A patient is exhibiting several signs of acid-base imbalance. Blood tests reveal that blood pH is 7.3, and bicarbonate and carbon dioxide levels in blood are both low. What is the state of this patient?

A

metabolic acidosis with partial compensation

36
Q

A patient is exhibiting several signs of acid-base imbalance. Blood tests reveal that blood pH is 7.5, and bicarbonate and carbon dioxide levels in blood are both low. What is the state of this patient?

A

respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation

37
Q

As the food is broken into smaller pieces in the mouth, it is combined with ________ that facilitates its movement down the esophagus.

A

Saliva

38
Q

What is a mixture of food particles with gastric juice called?

A

Chyme

39
Q

What cells secrete pepsinogen into the lumen of the stomach?

A

Chief cells

40
Q
What cells function to secrete hydrogen ions into the lumen of the stomach?
A) Goblet
B) Parietal
C) Chief
D) Neck
E) G
A

B) Parietal

41
Q
Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the liver?
A. synthesis of blood proteins
B. secretion of digestive enzyme
C. detoxification of certain substances
D. production of urea
E. gluconeogenesis.
A

B. secretion of digestive enzyme

42
Q
The digestion of proteins begins in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ with the activation of  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) small intestine : chymotrypsinogen 
B) stomach : pepsinogen 
C) small intestine : trypsinogen 
D) stomach : procarboxypeptidase 
E) mouth : pepsinogen
A

B) stomach : pepsinogen

43
Q

In order to begin the process of fat digestion, the fat globules must be ________.

A

emulsified by bile salts

44
Q

Sex determination of a fetus is controlled by the production of ________, which is coded for by the ________ gene.

A

Testes determining factor (TDF); SrY (Y chromosome)

45
Q

The absence of ________ in the fetus will further the development of the ________ into the female reproductive tract.

A

Mullerian-inhibiting susbtance; Mullerian ducts

46
Q

The loss of reproductive capacity that occurs as females age is caused by ________.
A) changes in hormone secretory patterns
B) inability to release an ovum in the presence of luteinizing hormone (LH) surge
C) the release of incompetent ova
D) the complete cessation of sex hormone release
E) altered length of the menstrual cycle

A

A) changes in hormone secretory patterns

47
Q

In what region of the testes are sperm produced?

A

The seminiferous tubule

48
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone stimulate the growth and development of sperm ________.

A

production

49
Q

Within the ovaries, each follicle contains ________.

A

one ovum

50
Q

Where does fertilization usually occur?

A

Fallopian tubes

51
Q

When does the second meiotic division in oogenesis occur?

A

After Ovulation
After fertilization
After sperm fertilizes the secondary oocyte

Before production of the second polar body

52
Q
In the absence of the implantation of a fertilized embryo, the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle is initiated by the degeneration of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) myometrium
B) corpus albicans
C) endometrium
D) corpus luteum
E) Graafian follicle
A

D) corpus luteum

53
Q

The hormonal trigger for menstruation involves a ________.
A) drop in plasma luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) reduction of plasma follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) reduction of inhibin secretion
D) loss of progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum
E) loss of estrogen secretion from the adrenal cortex

A

D) loss of progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum

54
Q

The secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum is maintained during pregnancy by ________ until the corpus luteum degenerates and the ________ takes over secretion of these hormones.

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): placenta

55
Q

Compensatory mechanisms are able to maintain normal blood pressure until

A

until approximately 20% of the blood volume has been lost (?)

56
Q

The sympathetic response to hemorrhagic shock ______________.

A

increase heart rate

57
Q

Testosterone ______________.

A

Is the primary male sex hormone
During adolescence, testosterone in boys rises about 20 times the prepubescent level.
Spermatogensis is activated by this hormone
will stimulate growth of male sex organs in the first trimester of pregnancy, and early infancy.
will stimulate general male body growth and muscle mass.
will stimulate axillary and pubic hair growth.
will stimulate sebum (oil) secretion.
will stimulate erythropoesis, matabolic rate, and appetite
will increase libido; and stimulate erection and ejaculation.
will inhibit FSH when levels are too high.