final exam 1-13 Flashcards

1
Q

define anatomy?

A

study of body structure and their relationship to each other.

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2
Q

there are 3 cavities in the thoracic body cavity. what are they?

A

pericardial and 2 plural cavities.

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3
Q

which of the following are requirements of life?

A

pressure, oxygen, and water.

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4
Q

define metabolism?

A

all the chemical reaction in a cell/ or body.

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5
Q

which of the following answers are part of all homeostatic mechanism?

A

receptors, control center, and effectors.

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6
Q

supine is defined as?

A

body lying on its posterior surface.

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7
Q

define proximal?

A

closer to point of attachment to the truck.

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8
Q

functions of the skeletal system include.

A

framework and physical protection.

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9
Q

define physiology.

A

the study of how the body and its parts function.

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10
Q

which are characterizes of negative feedback?

A

very common, and reverses change that are outside nirmal values.

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11
Q

positive Feeback triggers an automatic response that?

A

pushes the charge further away from normal values.

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12
Q

the axial portion of the human body includes.

A

neck, trunk, and head.

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13
Q

homeostasis is?

A

maintaining a stable internal environment.

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14
Q

if a surgeon makes an incision just inferior to the diaphragm, what body cavity will be opened?

A

the abdominal cavity.

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15
Q

which of the following are characteristic of life?

A

movement, excretion, and growth.

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16
Q

the visceral layer of a serous membrane lines the cavity wall.

A

false

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17
Q

the human body is divided into the axial and appendicular portions.

A

true

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18
Q

the chemical bond involving the sharing of electrons between pair is?

A

covalent

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19
Q

a solution with a pH of 0 is?

A

acidic

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20
Q

the atomic weight of an element is?

A

the number of protons and neutrons in an atom.

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21
Q

which number is associated with greater stability in chemisty?

A

8

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22
Q

atoms are electrically neutral. why?

A

atoms have the exact same number of protons and electrons.

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23
Q

the mass of neutrons is?

A

the same as the mass of protons.

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24
Q

the primary structure of proteins is defined as?

A

the linear sequences of amino acids.

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25
a building block of nucleic acids is composed of?
phosphate groups, sugar, and a nitrogen containing base.
26
an ionic is defined as?
the attractive force between a cation and anion.
27
a condition in which body fluids is lower than 7.35 is?
acidosis
28
the building blocks of proteins are?
amino acids
29
which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus of atoms?
protons and neutrons
30
the atomic number indicates
the number of protons in a atom.
31
organic compounds are composed primarily of?
carbon
32
pH is defined as?
the concertration (amount) of the hydrogen ion (H+) in a solution.
33
what is the functional until of life?
cell
34
which methods of transport require ATP?
endocytosis, exocytosis, and active transport.
35
which compounds diffuse freely across the lipid portion of plasma membrane?
lipid- soluble compound
36
integral membrane proteins are defined as?
proteins found in the plasma membrane.
37
the term isotonic refers to solutions that?
have the same concentration of solutes as the inside of cells.
38
the term hypertonic refers to solutions that have?
a concentration of solutes higher than inside cells.
39
if a red blood cell is placed into a hypotonic solution the cell will?
swell up because of water moving into the cells.
40
malignant cancer is cells?
may spread all through the body.
41
an unsaturated fat has a least one?
C-C double bond
42
the plasma membrane is composed primarily of?
phospholipids
43
the definition of phagocytosis would include?
requires ATP, and vesicular transport.
44
what organelle package cell products for secretion?
Golgi apparatus.
45
the S phasd of interphase is when?
DNA replicates
46
lipid soluble substances like steroid?
diffuse freely across the cell membrane.
47
what molecule made by cellular respiration is required for active transport function.
ATP
48
osmosis may be defined as?
movement of water down its concentration gradient (from areas of high concentration to area of low concentration). and movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.
49
ribosomes are the organelles where?
protein synthesis take place.
50
during which stage of mitosis dose, the nuclear membrane disperses.
prophase
51
the function of the plasma membrane include.
allows for sensitivity to the environment (cell can monitor outside of the cell), provides cell with physical isolation from extracellular fluid. (boundary between inside and outside). and regulation of exchanges with the environment.
52
catabolic is?
reaction that breakdown molecules into smaller molecules.
53
where in a metabolic pathway dose the rate limiting enzyme usually occur?
at the first enzyme
54
a factor for an enzyme maybe?
a small organic molecule, and an element.
55
metabolic pathways are?
multiple chemical reaction one following another to produce a final product.
56
how dose RNA differ from DNA?
RNA contains uracil, and DNA contains thymine.
57
a codon is?
a triplet of nucleotides.
58
transcription is the?
process of copying the genetic information of DNA into RNA molecules.
59
enzymes work by?
lowering the active energy.
60
how many higher energy phosphate bonds dose adenosine triphosphate (ATP) possess.
two
61
a protein catalyst is called?
an enzyme.
62
the shape of an enzyme is vitally important to be the function of an enzyme.
true
63
what are the 3 main categories of connective tissue?
connective tissue proper, supporting connective tissue, and liquid connective tissue.
64
what are the types of supporting connective tissue?
bone and cartilage.
65
neural tissue is specialized for?
electrical impulse conduction (nerve impulses).
66
which are characteristic of epithelial cells?
cells decide rapidly.
67
which are function of epithelia cells?
absorption, secretion, and protection.
68
which tissue type is specialized sensory reception?
nervous tissue.
69
what is the meaning of the word simple as it regards epithelial tissue?
single layer of cells.
70
which are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
cardiac, skeletal, and smooth.
71
which of these molecules transfer genetic information for the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
mRNA
72
the process of converting DNA into a sequence of amino acids of proteins is known as?
translation.
73
the way to classify epithelial cells is shape and number of layers.
true
74
endocrine glands have ducts?
false
75
the layer of skin that contains papillary reticular layers is the?
dermis.
76
what is the organ of the integumentary system?
skin.
77
skin color is primarily determined by?
genetic inheritance.
78
the most superfical layer of the epidermis?
the stratum corneum.
79
this nonspecific defense mechanism operates at the tissue level is characterized by swelling, redness, warmth, and pain is?
inflammation.
80
the dermis has projections called -_______ between epidermal ridges, which bind the epidermis to the underlying tissue.
dermal papillae.
81
which of the following is an accessory structure of the skin?
all are accessory structure of skin.
82
which of the following glands is primarily responsible for heat evaporation sweat?
eccrine (merocrine) gland
83
which type of burn affects the epidermis and the dermis but not the deeper structure?
second degree
84
as with all epithelial tissue the epidermis adhered to the connective tissue layer beneath
basement membrane.
85
which of the following is the primary method for releasing heat from the skin?
radiation.
86
which of the following occurs when the body temperature falls?
vasocontraction of deep blood vessels.
87
which of the following is true of inflammation?
is the body's attempt to restrict spread of infection, it is a normal response to injury or stress, blood vessels in affected tissue dilate and become more permeable allowing fluid to leak into the damaged tissue.
88
which of the following characteristic is how hones are classified?
shape.
89
the functional unit of compact bone is?
osteon.
90
the thoracic cage consists of?
ribs and sternum.
91
how many pairs of ribs are true ribs?
7.
92
each pectoral girdle consists of?
a clavicle and scapula.
93
which of the following described how the bones of the skull develop?
endochondral ossification.
94
the central shaft of long bones is called?
diaphysis.
95
spongy bone occurs?
in the epiphyses of the long bones.
96
which bone cell's sole function is to secret acid and enzymes that dissolve the bone matrix?
osteoblast.
97
which of the following are functions of the skeletal system?
structural support, mineral storage, protection.
98
the two types of osseous tissue are?
spongy and compact bones.
99
the appendicular skeleton consists of?
the upper and lower limbs, pectoral and pelvic girdles.
100
the covering of the outer surface of long bone is called?
periosteum.
101
which joint would likely exhibit circumduction?
shoulder.
102
a suture joint is classified as what type of joint?
fibrous joint.
103
joints many be classified by?
structure and function.
104
most joints are?
synovial joints.
105
rotation is defined as?
moving a part around an axis (in a circle).
106
flexion is defined as?
bending parts so that the angle between parts become smaller.
107
functions of joints are?
permit parts of the skeleton to change shape during childbirth.
108
most movement at the joint are paired movement?
true
109
abduction is movement toward midline of the body?
false.
110
the functional unit of skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue is the?
sarcomere.
111
muscle is attached to bone by?
tendons
112
in skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers calcium ion bind to?
troponin
113
the epimysium, perimysium and endomysium come together to form?
a tendon.
114
smooth muscle tissue is found primarily in the?
wall of the hollow organs.
115
the functions of the myscular system are?
movement of food, solid waste and urine, movement of body parts, and pumping blood through the body.
116
the muscle tissue that are involuntary are?
cardiac and smooth.
117
muscles only?
PULL
118
two proteins which are integral part of the sliding filament theory are?
myosin and actin.
119
what are the sources of energy in muscle fibers?
small reserve of ATP and cellular respiration>
120
a prime mover is a muscle whose contrition.
is primarily responsible for particular movement.
121
the actin and myosin in smooth muscle fibers are arranged in unit called sarcomeres?
false.
122
the part of the nerve cell that transmits impulse away from the cell body is the?
axon.
123
what are the parts of all neurons?
cell body, axon, and dendrites.
124
what is the name of the chemicals in synaptic vesicles at the axon terminal that allows electrical impulses to move from one neuron to another?
neurotransmitters.
125
what are neuroglia of the CNS?
microglia, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, and astrocytes
126
immediately after a neuron is stimulated the membrane is?
depolarized.
127
the function of the CNS is?
maintains homeostasis, integrates information and makes decisions, detects changes, and sends motor commands.
128
convergent neurons
have impulses coming in from multiple presynaptic neurons.
129
the nervous tissue that supports nourishes and protects the neurons is the?
neuroglia.
130
what are the parts of the CNS?
spinal cord and the brain.
131
what are the parts of the PNS?
cranial nerves and the spinal nerves.
132
what are the general function of the nervous system?
receives information, sends commands to effectors, coordinates information and makes decisions.
133
afferent neurons carry information to effectors.
false.
134
the brain stem includes?
the pons, midbrain and the medulla oblongata.
135
the cerebrum is?
a thin gray layer over a thicker wit layer.
136
the cerebral cortex is?
is the most superficial layer of the cerebrum, composed of a thin gray layer.
137
the brain contains?
4 ventricles
138
what is the name of the fluid that provided nourishment and protection for the brain and spinal cord?
cerebrospinal fluid.
139
how many cranial never are there?
12.
140
how many spinal nerve are there?
31 pairs.
141
what are the parts of the diencephalon?
thalamus and hypothalamus.
142
what are the functions of the cerebellum?
helps to maintain balance.
143
what are the usual effectors of the autonomic nervous system?
cardiac and smooth muscle.
144
the autonomic nervous system is voluntary?
false
145
sensory receptors are sensitive to?
internal and external environmental change.
146
the five taste sensations of the taste buds are?
umami, bitter, salty, sweet, and sour
147
sharp acute pains are transmitted by ______ axons.
myelinated axons
148
referred pain.
is visceral pain that is not from the area where the pain is sensed.
149
all sensory information except _____ passes through the thalamus?
smell.
150
which senses are widely distributed all over the body?
general senses
151
the intrinsic eye muscles are responsible for?
constricting the pupil and dilating the pupil.
152
which sstructure would you think is known as the "window of the eye.?
cornea
153
what are the parts of the bony labyrinth?
semicircular canals, vestibule and cochlea.
154
which are group of general senses?
proprioceptors, exteroceptors, and interceptors.
155
what are the four accessory structures of the eye?
eye lashes, upper and lower eyelids, lacrimal apparatus and extrinsic eye muscle.
156
static equilibrium is defined as?
the ability to sense the position of the head when they body is still.
157
what are the 3 layers of the wall of the eye?
nervous tunic, fibrous tunic, and vascular tunic.
158
rods can be described as?
vision in dim light, and vision in shades of gray.
159
cones may be described as?
sharpest vision, color vison, and vision in bright lights.
160
chemoreceptors respond to?
chemicals
161
nociceptors are sensitive to?
tissue damage.
162
the ability to ignore unimportant or continuous sensory stimulation is called?
sensory overload.
163
accommodations refer to the change in the lens of the eye for distance viewing.
false
164
dynamic equilibrium is the sense of knowing the position of the head when sitting still.
false
165
the area in the retina that has no rods, all cones is the macula lutea.
false
166
the brain, like the rest of the body has nociceptors.
false
167
which hormones causes the development and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics in females?
estrogen.
168
the hormone that stimulates the production of milk is?
prolactin
169
what endocrine gland secrets the most hormones?
anterior pituitary
170
glucocorticoids are hormones that ________?
have an effect on glucose metabolism.
171
what hormones does the thyroid gland produce?
calcitonin, T3, and T4.
172
the four rice-sized glands are located on the posterior surface of another gland.
parathyroid gland.
173
which hormone causes the development and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics in males?
testosterone.
174
what are the 2 stages of general stress syndromes?
resistance stage and alarm stage.
175
the hormone that increases water reabsorption by the kidneys is?
ADH antidiuretic hormone.
176
the hormone glucagon is secreted by the?
a-cells of the pancreas.
177
what gland secrets melatonin?
pineal gland.
178
what gland makes thymosins?
thymus
179
what hormone suppresses appetite?
leptin.
180
the endocrine system is precise, only targets cells can respond to a specific hormone.
true
181
non-steroid hormones are water soluble
true
182