Final Exam Flashcards
(256 cards)
1
Q
Who established the system of scientific nomenclature?
A
C. Linnaeus
2
Q
Term for ‘bacteria’: means, pre-nucleus and single celled:
A
prokaryote
3
Q
This type of bacteria is single celled, does not have a membrane bound nucleus, has a peptidoglycan cell wall, divides by binary fission, and derives nutrition from organic or inorganic chemicals or photosynthesis:
A
prokaryote
4
Q
This type of bacteria is a prokaryote that exists in environments that don’t inhabit and is not pathogenic. It also lacks peptidoglycan cell walls:
A
archaea
5
Q
What is the eukaryote that has a membrane bound nucleus, chitin cell wall, produces spores and absorb organic chemicals for energy?
A
fungi
6
Q
Unicellular fungi:
A
yeast
7
Q
multicellular fungi:
A
molds and mushrooms
8
Q
Unicellular eukaryotes that absorb or ingest organic chemicals from their surrounding. May be motile via pseudopods, cilia, or flagella. Free-living or parasitic and can perform phagocytosis.
A
protozoa
9
Q
Eukaryote with cellulose cell walls. Use photosynthesis for energy. Produce oxygen and carbohydrates. Can live in soil, water, salt water:
A
algae
10
Q
Acellular with a DNA or RNA core surrounded by a protein coat and may be enclosed in a lipid envelope. Inert outside living hosts and only replicate when are in a living host cell:
A
viruses
11
Q
Term for parasitic flatworms and roundworms:
A
helminths
12
Q
Eukaryote that is multicellular, not strictly microscopic, and live off of human tissue:
A
Multicellular animal parasites
13
Q
The Tree of Life consists of which domains of cellular organization?
A
Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
14
Q
What is the broadest form used to classify microorgnaisms?
A
Three domains categorized as the Tree of Life
15
Q
Eukarya consists of:
A
protists, fungi, plants, animals
16
Q
Who was responsible for discovering pasteurization and fermentation?
A
Pasteur
17
Q
This person’s discoveries showed the relationship between microbes and disease, immunity, and antimicrobial drugs (antibiotics):
A
Pasteur
18
Q
Who developed the first vaccine (smallpox)?
A
Jenner
19
Q
Who discovered the first antibiotic (penicillium)?
A
Fleming
20
Q
Science of classifying organisms that shows degree of similarity among organisms
A
taxonomy
21
Q
Study of the evolutionary history of organisms
A
Systematics or phylogeny
22
Q
Group of closely related organisms that breed among themselves (capable of sexual reproduction):
A
eukaryotic species
23
Q
Order of the Taxonomic Hierarchy from greatest to least:
A
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
24
Q
Kingdoms for eukaryotes:
A
protista, fungi, pantae, animalia
25
rod-shaped
bacillus
26
spherical
coccus
27
spiral shapes of bacteria:
vibrio, spirillum, spirochete
28
cell shapes specific to archaea:
star-shaped; rectangular
29
pairs of cells
diplo
30
clusters
staphylo
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chains
strepto
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groups of four
tetrads
33
cubelike structure eight cells:
sarcinae
34
What makes up a prokaryote's outermost layer?
glycocalyx
35
What structure's main job is locomotion?
flagella
36
Term for hairlike appendages that allow for attachment? Many GI tract microbes have these so they can attach to the inner wall of the intestine without getting washed away.
fimbrae
37
What prevents a prokaryotic cell from lysis during osmotic changes?
peptidoglycan cell wall
38
Movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration; continues until molecules reach equilibrium:
simple diffusion
39
Solute combines with a transporter protein or carrier molecule in the membrane so that ions and larger molecules are transported across a membrane WITH the concentration gradient:
facilitated diffusion
40
The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of high water an area of lower water concentration:
osmosis
41
What breaks down complex molecules providing energy and building blocks for anabolism?
catabolism
42
What is an endergonic reaction?
anabolism
43
What uses energy and building blocks to build complex molecules?
anabolism
44
Catabolism releases energy by ___ of molecules.
oxidation
45
gain of electrons
reduction
46
oxidation reaction paired with a reduction reaction:
redox reaction
47
What is used as electron carriers in redox reactions?
NAD+ and FAD
48
Name the physical requirements for microbial growth:
temperature, pH, osmotic pressure (balance between solutes and water)
49
Name the chemical requirements for microbial growth:
water, carbon, N, S, P, O, trace elements, organic growth factors
50
cold loving microbes:
psychrophiles
51
moderate-temperature-loving microbes
mesophiles
52
These microbes are found in hot springs and their optimum growth temp. is 50-60 C
thermophiles
53
These microbes have an optimum growth temp greater than 80 C
hyperthermophiles
54
Obligate aerobes _____oxygen and run the electron transport chain.
require
55
Can grow with (tolerates) or without O2 via fermentation or anaerobic respiration (E. coli):
facultative anaerobes
56
These microbes can't tolerate O2 and are harmed by it:
obligate anaerobes
57
What type of media is used to suppress unwanted microbes and encourage desired microbes?
selective media
58
What type of media allow distinguishing of colonies of different microbes on the same plate?
differential media
59
Phases of bacterial growth:
lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death phase
60
During which stage of phase growth is there intense activity preparing for growth, but no division?
lag phase
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During which stage of phase growth is there exponential increase in population?
log phase
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During which stage of phase growth is there a period of equilibrium?
stationary phase
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During which phase of growth is population decreasing at a logarithmic rate?
death phase
64
Term that refers to bacterial contamination:
sepsis
65
Term that refers to the absence of significant contamination:
asepsis
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Term for removing and destroying all microbial life:
sterilization
67
This is used to destroy harmful microorganisms from fomites:
disinfection
68
Term for destroying harmful microorganisms from living tissue:
antisepsis
69
What is degerming?
mechanical removal (rather than killing) of microbes from a limited area (ex: handwashing).
70
This is used to lower microbial counts on eating utensils to safe levels:
sanitization
71
Term for the lowest temperature at which all cells in a liquid culture are killed at 10 minutes:
Thermal death point (TDP)
72
Term for the minimal time for all bacteria in a liquid culture to be killed at a particular temperature:
Thermal death time (TDT)
73
Which guidelines indicate the severity of treatment required to kill a given population of bacteria?
Thermal death point (TDP) and Thermal death time (TDT)
74
What is Decimal reduction time (DRT)?
minutes to kill 90% of a population at a given temperature
75
Name three types of radiation:
ionizing radiation, nonionizing radiation, microwaves
76
How does ionizing radiation work?
ionizes water to create reactive hydroxyl radicals; damages DNA by causing lethal mutations which can cause a cell to die.
77
How does nonionizing radiation work?
does NOT cause water to split into ions; damages DNA by creating thymine dimers (how melanoma forms)
78
How many phyla does the domain bacteria have?
14
79
List the gram-negative phyla:
proteobacteria, cyanobacteria, chlamydiae, bacteriodetes, fusobacteria, spirochaetes, deinococcus
80
List the gram-positive phyla:
firmicutes, actinobacteria
81
What is the largest phyla of bacteria?
Phylum Proteobacteria
82
Which phylum carry out oxygenic photosynthesis, nitrogen fixation, thought to play important role in increasing O2 concentration in the atmosphere
Phylum Cyanobacteria
83
What phylum causes the most common STD in the U.S.?
Phylum Chlamydiae
84
Are most fungi pathogenic?
no. There are greater than 100,000 species and only about 200 are pathogenic
85
What are the two growth patterns of fungi?
unicellular yeasts; multicellular molds and mushrooms
86
Name the five types of mycoses:
systemic mycoses, subcutaneous mycoses, cutaneous mycoses, superficial mycoses, opportunistic mycoses
87
Name four Phyla of medically important fungi:
zygomycota, microsporidia, ascomycota, basidiomycota
88
Do algae cause infectious diseases?
Algae are not pathogenic but some produce toxins which could affect humans and produce neurological problems.
89
Name the three medically important classes of Protozoa:
Sarcomastigophora, Ciliophora, Apicomplexa
90
What class of protozoa includes amoeba and flagellated protozoans?
Class Sarcomastigophora
91
Give examples of Class Sarcomastigophora:
Trypanosoma, Trichomonas, Leishmania
92
Give an example of a pathogen in Class Ciliophora:
Balantdidium coli (causes colitis and is the only parasitic ciliate of humans)
93
Give an example of Class Apicomplexa:
Plasmodium species, Toxoplasma gondi
94
Term for the primary host who harbors the sexually reproducing parasite:
definitive host
95
Term for the secondary host that harbors the larval stage of a parasite:
intermediate host
96
How do arthropods act as vectors in causing disease?
They transmit disease on their feet or in their body without being infected themselves (mechanical vector); or when an infected arthropod transmits a pathogen by a bite or other wound (biological vector)
97
What are the minimum components of a virus?
nucleic acid, protein coat
98
Name the four possible components of a virus:
nucleic acid, capsid, envelope, spikes
99
If a virus has an envelope, what is it made of?
lipid, protein, and carbohydrate coating made from cell components
100
Name some enveloped viruses that are human pathogens:
Herpes, mumps, measles, rubella, hep B, Corona, rabies, influenza, poxviruses, HIV
101
What type of virus (naked or enveloped) is easier to destroy with chemical agents?
enveloped viruses
102
What type of virus (naked or enveloped) is harder for our immune system to destroy?
enveloped viruses
103
Name some naked viral human pathogens:
HPV, rotavirus, norovirus, poliovirus, rhinovirus
104
What part of a virus is more resistant to chemical agents?
capsid
105
Term for the smallest known pathogens, naked, circular, single stranded RNA:
viroid
106
Plant pathogens:
viroids
107
Infectious protein that causes Mad Cow Disease:
prion
108
What are prions?
proteinaceous infectious particles (protein that is infectious)
109
What class of disease do prions cause?
spongiform enchephalopathies
110
What is an example of a spongiform encephalopathy?
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, mad cow disease
111
What is a plant pathogen made of short pieces of make RNA with no protein coat?
viroid
112
Term for all genetic information in a cell:
genome
113
Term for segments of DNA that encode functional products, usually proteins:
genes
114
What two molecules make up chromosomes?
Each chromosome is made of protein and single molecule of DNA
115
Bacteria usually have what type of chromosome...made of ____ and _____?
single circular chromosome; single circular molecule of DNA; proteins
116
During DNA _____ one strand serves as a template for the production of a second strand.
replication
117
What has to happen to the DNA strands for replication to occur?
the strands have to separate
118
T/F DNA replication is more than 99% accurate
True
119
Why is replication highly accurate?
because of the proofreading capability of DNA polymerase (able to fix mistakes and proofreads as each nucleotide is added)
120
Most bacterial DNA replication is _______.
bidirectional (because it is a circular chromosome)
121
When does DNA replication occur in the life of a cell?
before cell division
122
What two processes are involved in gene expression?
transcription and translation
123
Term for the synthesis of a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA template:
transcription (DNA > RNA)
124
Transcription begins when _____ binds to the ____ promoter sequence on DNA.
RNA polymerase; promoter
125
Term for the process where mRNA is translated into the "language" of proteins:
translation (RNA > PROTEIN)
126
T/F only one of the two DNA strands is transcribed during transcription
True
127
What cuts specific sequences of DNA as a way to destroy bacteriophage DNA in bacterial cells?
restriction endonucleases
128
What is the enzyme used to synthesize the new copy of DNA (comes from a hot spring prokaryote called Thermus aquaticus):
Taq polymerase
129
Term for understanding gene function via computer-assisted analysis:
bioinformatics
130
What is the enzyme used to synthesize the new copy of DNA (comes from a hot spring prokaryote called Thermus aquaticus):
Taq polymerase
131
What are the requirements for PCR?
DNA template, primers, Taq polymerase, nucleotides, thermocycler
132
Term for the ability to cause disease:
pathogenicity
133
Term for the degree of pathogenicity
virulence
134
What is the preferred portal of entry?
GI and respiratory
135
This measures the virulence of a microbe based on infectious dose needed to cause illness in 50% of population:
ID50
136
This measures the potency of a toxin what is needed as a lethal dose to cause lethality in 50% of a sample population:
LD50
137
How can microbes evade the immune system?
impairment of phagocytosis
138
What are the ways a microbe can penetrate host defenses?
capsules, cell wall components, enzymes, antigenic variation, penetration into host, biofilms
139
What are two types of toxins?
exotoxins and endotoxins
140
(Endotoxin or Exotoxin) This type is very specific in its effect and causes disease-specific signs and symptoms; soluble in body fluids; proteins are secreted and produced by the bacteria.
Exotoxins
141
List examples of exotoxins:
A-B toxins, membrane-disrupting toxins, superantigens, genotoxins
142
Endotoxin that is part of gram negative bacteria:
Lipid A
143
Do you all endotoxins cause the same signs and symptoms regardless of the species of microbe? What are those symptoms
Yes; chills, fever, weakness, aches
144
Term for visible effects of viral infection on a cell (changes the way the cell behaves):
cytopathic effects (CPE)
145
Name some cytopathic effects:
causing cell lysosomes to release enzymes, changing host cell function or inducing chromosomal changes, inducing antigenic changes on cell surface
146
Selectively finding and destroying pathogens without damaging the host:
selective toxicity
147
Drugs that affect a narrow range of microbial types:
narrow spectrum drug
148
Drug that affect a broad range of gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria--also can destroy the normal microbiota of the host--can also cause the normal microbiota to flourish and become opportunistic pathogens:
broad-spectrum antibiotics
149
Name of test that tests the effectiveness of chemotherapeutic agents:
Kirby-Bauer (disk diffusion) test
150
MIC stands for:
Minimal inhibitory concentration
151
Five mechanisms of resistance:
1. Enzymatic destruction or inactivation of drug 2. Prevention of penetration to the target site 3. Alteration of drug’s target site 4. Rapid efflux of antibiotic 5. Variation of these/combination of mechanisms
152
Five actions of anti microbial drugs:
1. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis 2. Inhibiting protein synthesis 3. Injuring plasma membrane 4. Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis 5. Inhibiting the synthesis of essential metabolites
153
First line of defense:
skin, mucous membranes, antimicrobial substances
154
Second line of defense:
inflammation, fever, phagocytes
155
Third line of defense:
humoral and cell immunity
156
Term for the ability to ward off disease:
immunity
157
Term for lack of resistance to a disease:
susceptibility
158
Which type of immunity has defenses again any pathogen; rapid, present at birth and includes the first and second lines of defense?
innate immunity
159
Which type of immunity is slower to respond to a specific pathogen, has a memory component, and is part of the third line of defense?
adaptive immunity
160
These are immune proteins that regulate the intensity and duration of an immune response--they recruit other WBCs, help activate B and T cells:
cytokines
161
Produces viscous glycoproteins that trap microbes and prevent Resp/GI, etc. from drying out:
mucous/mucous membranes
162
Secretions from mucous membranes that act as the first line of defense:
mucous, lacrimal apparatus, saliva
163
Physical factors provided by the first line of defense:
ciliary escalator, earwax, urine, vaginal secretion, peristalsis, defecation, vomiting, diarrhea
164
Chemical factors provided by the first line of defense:
sebum, lysozyme, gastric juice, vaginal secretion (low pH)
165
How does the normal microbiota compete with pathogens?
microbial antagonism
166
Normal microbiota in the vagina has a low pH and prevents the overgrowth of _____.
Candida
167
____ in the colon produces bacteriocins that inhibit growth of Salmonella and Shigella.
E. coli
168
Live microbial cultures that give health benefits to the the host:
probiotics
169
Promote growth of beneficial bacteria--complex carbohydrates:
prebiotics
170
The second line of defense begins when the microbe is _____ the human body.
inside
171
Leukocytes with granules in their cytoplasm that are visible with a light microscope:
granulocytes
172
Three types of granulocytes:
neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
173
What type of granulocyte is phagocytic and works in the early stages of an infection?
neutrophils
174
What type of granulocyte releases histamine and works in allergic responses?
basophils
175
What type of granulocyte is phagocytic and toxic against parasites and helminths?
eosinophils
176
Term for leukocytes with granules in their cytoplasm that are not visible with a light microscope:
agranulocyte
177
This WBC matures into macrophages in tissues where they are phagocytic:
monocytes
178
This WBC is found in the skin, mucous membranes and thymus; phagocytic:
dendridic cells
179
These are T cells, B cells, and NK cells and play a role in adaptive immunity:
lymphocytes
180
4 mechanisms of phagocytosis:
chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion
181
Chemical signals attract phagocytes during which stage of phagocytosis?
chemotaxis
182
Attachment of a phagocyte to a microorganism is called?
adherence
183
During the ingestion phase of phagocytosis ______ occurs and the microorganism is coated with serum proteins, making ingestion easier.
opsonization
184
During which stage of phagocytosis is the microorganism digested inside a phagolysosome?
digestion
185
What process allows tissue repair to occur?
inflammation
186
four signs of inflammation:
redness, swelling, pain, heat
187
3 steps of inflammation:
vasodilation, phagocyte migration and phagocytosis, tissue repair
188
What type of inflammation has a quick onset and short duration?
acute inflammation
189
What type of inflammation has a slow onset, long duration, and could lead to loss of function?
chronic inflammation
190
Term for the process that includes greater than 30 serum proteins produced by the liver that assist the immune system in destroying microbes:
Complement System (can be recruited to work with the adaptive immune system - is only activated when needed otherwise it can cause tissue destruction)
191
3 pathways of activation of the complement system:
classical, alternative, lectin
192
What is always activated in any complement pathway and results in _____, ______, and ______.
C3; inflammation, cytolysis, opsonization
193
During _____, activated complement protein create a membrane attack complex.
cytolysis
194
During _____, microbe sticks to phagocytes and promotes phagocytosis.
opsonization
195
During _____, activated complement proteins bind to mast cells, releasing histamine.
inflammation
196
These are used to warn neighboring cells of a virus; they are antiviral/bacterial cytokines and cause neighboring cells to make anti-viral proteins:
interferons
197
Most pathogenic bacteria require ____ for their growth or to survive.
iron
198
Iron found in blood and tissue fluids:
transferrin
199
Iron found in milk, saliva, mucous:
lactoferrin
200
Iron found in the liver, spleen, and red bone marrow:
ferritin
201
Iron found in red blood cells:
hemoglobin
202
Bacteria produce ______ to compete with the host iron-binding proteins.
siderophores
203
Adaptive immunity reacts to _________.
specific antigens
204
Which response of the adaptive immune system combats a particular foreign substance and is SLOW:
primary response
205
Which response of the adaptive immune system is fast and stronger:
secondary response
206
Memory cells are part of the primary or secondary response of the adaptive immune system:
secondary
207
Which response, primary or secondary, produces immunity?
secondary
208
B cells are part of _____ immunity.
humoral
209
T cells are part of _____ immunity.
cellular/cell-mediated immunity
210
What type of lymphocyte recognizes free antigens, produces antibodies, and is best against invaders outside of cells--bacteria, toxins, and extracellular viruses:
B cells
211
What type of lymphocyte recognizes antigens processed by phagocytic cells and is best at fight intracellular infections and some fungal and parasitic infections:
T cells
212
Known as the chemical messengers of immune cells:
cytokines
213
5 types of cytokines:
interleukins, chemokines, interferons, tumor necrosis factor (TNF), hematopoietic cytokines
214
Cytokines between leukocytes (WBC):
interleukins
215
Induce migration of leukocytes:
chemokines
216
Interfere with viral infections:
interferons
217
Promote inflammation--too much can result in autoimmune disease:
tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
218
Control stem cells that develop into red and white blood cells:
hematopoietic cytokines
219
Term for a foreign substance that cause the production of antibodies/T cells
antigens
220
Antibodies interact with _____ or antigenic determinants = specific sites on the antigen.
epitopes
221
These are antigens too small to provoke immune responses by themselves; attach to carrier molecules:
haptens
222
What is an antigenic determinant on an antigen?
epitope
223
Antibodies are also known as _____.
immunoglobulins
224
Five classes of antibodies:
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
225
Naturally acquired antibody that makes up 80% of serum antibodies:
IgG
226
Antibody that is the first response to an infection but is short lived. Causes agglutination and complement fixation:
IgM
227
Antibody common in mucous membranes, saliva, tears, and breast milk:
IgA
228
Antibody in blood, lymph, and B cells - no well defined function:
IgD
229
Antibody that causes allergic reaction and is on mast cells and basophils:
IgE
230
What are the results of the antigen-antibody binding?
agglutination, opsonization, antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity, neutralization, activation of the complement system
231
What process protects the host by tagging foreign molecules or cells for destruction?
antigen-antibody binding
232
What type of MHC protein mark a cell as SELF and not foreign?
Class I MHC
233
What type of MHC proteins are only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells and are important in presentation of antigen to T cells?
Class II MHC
234
What are antigen-presenting cells?
B cells, dendritic cells, macrophage
235
What are the primary APCs (antigen presenting cells)?
dendritic cells
236
Term for programmed cell death:
apoptosis
237
This is a secondary response that occurs after the second exposure to an antigen. It is fast and lasts many days in greater magnitude. Memory cells are activated for a strong and fast response.
Immunological memory
238
Naturally acquired active immunity occurs:
from infection
239
Immunity provided by breast milk is:
naturally acquired passive immunity
240
Injection of a vaccine is an example of:
artificially aquired active immunity
241
Injection of antibodies, antitoxin, or antivenom is an example of:
artificially acquired passive immunity
242
An overreaction of the immune system is called:
hypersensitivity
243
Four types of hypersensitivity:
anaphylactic, cytotoxic, immune complex, delayed cell-mediated
244
What type of virus is HIV?
Genus Lentivirus ; Retrovirus
245
When new viruses bud from the host cell:
active infection
246
When DNA is hidden in the chromosome as a provirus--in HIV, some become memory T cells that serve as the reservoir for HIV:
latent infection
247
Term for suspension of organisms or fractions of organisms that induce immunity:
vaccine
248
What provokes a primary immune response and leads to the formation of antibodies and memory cells without causing illness?
vaccine
249
What kind of vaccine provides a weakened pathogen, closely mimics an actual infection, and usually provides lifelong cellular and humoral immunity?
live attenuated vaccines
250
What type of vaccine contains kill bacteria or inactivated viruses, usually requires a booster and provides mostly humoral immunity?
inactivated vaccines
251
What type of vaccines use antigenic fragments to stimulate an immune response?
subunit vaccines
252
This is a subunit vaccine produced by genetic modification:
recombinant vaccine
253
A subunit vaccine that resemble intact viruses but do not contain viral genetic material:
virus-like particle (VLP) vaccines
254
Term for inactivated toxins:
toxoids
255
What type of vaccine combines antigen with a protein to boost immune response and is used for diseases in children with poor immune response to capsular polysaccharides?
conjugated vaccines
256
What type of vaccine injects naked DNA into patient cells to produce the protein antigen--stimulated humoral and cellular immunity:
Nucleic acid (DNA) vaccines
