Lab Practical 1 Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

The ability of a microscope to differentiate two closely spaced objects as being distinct from one another:

A

resolving power

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2
Q

This is the fourth factor that affects the operation of the microscope…the distance between the objective lens and the slide specimen when the lens is in focus:

A

working distance

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3
Q

What effect does a reduction of illumination have on resolving power?

A

decreasing illumination tends to increase the contrast and reduce the resolving power of a lens

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4
Q

Term indicating what is in focus under low power should be nearly in focus under the immersion lens also:

A

parfocal

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5
Q

What is the magnification of the oil immersion lens?

A

100x

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6
Q

What kingdom are fungi in?

A

kingdom fungi

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7
Q

Are fungi domain prokaryote or eukaryote?

A

Domain: Eukarya

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8
Q

Can fungi photosynthesize?

A

No. They are nonphotosynthetic

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9
Q

Define dimorphic as it applies to fungi:

A

some are yeast and some are mold

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10
Q

fungal mass or meshwork of furry growth is called:

A

mycelium

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11
Q

Individual filaments or strands that form the mycelium of fungi is called:

A

hyphae

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12
Q

How do fungi reproduce?

A

spores

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13
Q

fungi sexually reproduce with:

A

zygospores

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14
Q

fungi asexually reproduce with:

A

sporangiospores, budding, conidiospores

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15
Q

Diseases caused by Candida:

A

vulvovaginitis, oral thrush

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16
Q

Rhizopus, Aspergillus, and Penicillium cause:

A

pulmonary infections

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17
Q

What kingdom are Protozoa in?

A

Protista

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18
Q

What domain are Protozoa in?

A

Eukarya

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19
Q

Are Protozoa eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells?

A

eukaryotic

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20
Q

Do protozoa grow in multicellular form?

A

no, they are single celled heterotrophs

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21
Q

Plasmodium causes:

A

malaria

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22
Q

The vector for plasmodium:

A

anopheles mosquito

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23
Q

Toxoplasma causes:

A

toxoplasmosis

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24
Q

host for Toxoplasma:

A

cats (pregnant women are vulnerable–can cause birth defects or miscarriage)

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25
What disease does Trypanosoma cause?
Chagas disease and African Sleeping Sickness
26
Vector of transmission for Trypanosoma:
tsetse fly
27
What disease is caused by Trichomonas?
STD
28
What disease is caused by Leishmania?
leishmaniasis
29
What is the vector for Leishmania?
sand fly
30
Giardia causes...
severe gastroenteritis by way of fecal-oral route
31
Balantidium causes...
colitis (fecal-oral route)
32
What are two ways to contract toxoplasmosis?
feces of cats and eating undercooked or raw meat
33
What are two medical problems associated with congenital toxoplasmosis?
hydrocephaly, microcephaly, heart defects, blindness
34
What are fomites?
nonliving surfaces
35
hemolysis is the....
destruction of red blood cells
36
What is a blood agar plate made of?
TSA and 5% sheep's blood
37
Gamma hemolysis is:
no hemolysis (growth, but still normal red color)
38
Alpha hemolysis is:
partial hemolysis (produces green pigment/green halo)
39
Beta hemolysis is:
complete hemolysis (clear halos)
40
Routes of transmission:
droplets, vectors, airborne (aerosols, dust spores), direct contact, bloodborne, food and water borne, fecal-oral route
41
What is a pure culture?
a culture of any microorganism that contains only cells of that microorganism
42
asepsis means...
without any microorganisms
43
Term for the transfer of microorganisms from one medium to another:
inoculation
44
What is the purpose of flaming the openings of the test tubes?
prevents contamination by keeping airborne microbes out of the tube
45
What are two methods of inoculation completed with an inoculating look?
transferring a loopful of liquid suspension of microorganism to a solid surface medium (petri dish of agar or agar slant) or to another liquid medium.
46
What does nutrient broth contain?
peptone, beef extract, distilled water
47
sterile means...
free from bacteria or other living microorganisms
48
How is growth detected in broth?
cloudiness (turbidity)
49
Agar deeps are stabbed with...
inoculating needle
50
How is a slant prepared?
liquid agar is poured in tubes and sterilized in the steam sterilizer, then it is allowed to solidify on a tilted board so that the agar surface is on a slant
51
What is an agar deep?
Agar media that is allowed to solidify while the tubes are upright so that it form a solid plug of medium
52
What is the solidifying agent in deeps and slants and petri dishes?
agar
53
Steps for performing aseptic transfer:
flame loop or needle at an angle slowly until it glows red hot, allow loop to cool so it doesn't kill microbes, flame the lip of the test tube 2x quickly, flame test tube opening and return cap, transfer microbe to agar, flame loop or needle to sterilize.
54
What kind of stain uses only one dye?
simple stain
55
What kind of stain uses multiple dyes?
differential stain
56
What are some examples of basic dyes?
crystal violet, safranin, methylene blue, carbolfushin, malachite green
57
The lens that one looks through is called (microscope):
Ocular/eyepiece
58
Vector for African Sleeping Sickness (Trypanosoma brucei)
Tsetse fly
59
Transmission of Trypansoma cruzi (Chagas disease):
Feces of reduviid bug
60
What’s an example of an acidic stain?
Nigrosine and India Ink
61
What does a good quality smear look like?
Hazy/cloudy
62
What is the charge on a negative stain and what kind of dye is used?
Negative; acidic stain (nigrosine)
63
Why is a negative stain useful?
To identify morphology
64
Do you heat fix a negative stain?
No, you do not heat fix so there is NO distortion of the cell morphology
65
For smear prep and staining, what kind of dye do you generally use for bacteria?
Basic dye
66
Does a basic stain have a positive or negative charge?
Positive
67
Why does a negative stain look the way it does?
Because the dye and cytoplasm are both acidic, the dye does not bind to the cell and only the background is stained.
68
What’s another name for the Schaeffer-Fulton Procedure?
Endospore stain
69
By what process do endospores form?
Sporogenesis from the sporangium
70
Term for the change of a spore from the dormant stage to the metabolically active stage...
Germination
71
As an endospore forms, it accumulates...
Calcium and dipicolinic acid
72
Where are endospores formed?
Within the vegetative cell
73
Endospores contain the genus:
Bacillus and clostridium
74
Aerobic bacteria that form endospores are found in the genus:
Bacillus
75
Anaerobic bacteria that form endospores are found in the genus:
Clostridium
76
What kind of dye is used to stain the endospore?
Malachite green
77
Endospores are resistant to:
Heat
78
Is a decolorizer used in an endospore stain?
No
79
Name the primary and secondary stains for an endospore stain:
Primary: malachite green ; Secondary: safranin
80
What color do endospores stain? What color do the vegetative cells stain?
ES: green; Veg. Cell: pink
81
In staining procedures, what distorts cell morphology?
Heat fixing
82
What are two chemicals responsible for endospore resistance?
Calcium and dipicolinic acid
83
Is endospore formation a method of cell division?
No
84
What are cardinal temperatures?
Minimum, optimum, maximum
85
Anti-septics are used on:
Living tissue
86
Disinfectant is used on:
Non-living surfaces
87
Give an example of a common resident flora:
Staphylococcus epidermis Corneybacterium Proprionibacterium
88
Give an example of common transient flora:
Staphylococcus aureus Coliforms (fecal material) Clostridia
89
What are TSA plates made of?
Tryptic soy agar
90
Describe two body mechanisms used to eliminate transient flora:
Lysozyme from sweat glands and low pH of the skin
91
T/F: coliforms are an example of transient flora.
True
92
Who established the importance of hand washing to reduce puerperal sepsis?
Semmelweis
93
Describe a hazard psychotropics present during refrigeration:
They grow at 0 degrees C which allows them to grow in the fridge
94
Describe a temperature dependent process in Serratia marcescens:
Pigment production